4. What are SMART goals?
A. An ineffective form of goal
setting
B. An outdated type of goal-setting
C. A part of the no-goals approach
D. An effective form of goal setting

Answers

Answer 1

Answer: D!

Explanation: I think I learned this in school a few years ago, and in SMART, each letter stands for something, but I don't remember what. But anyways, I'm pretty sure the answer is D. Hope this helps! :)


Related Questions

the satellite whose surface is characterized by a smooth icy crust with a complex network of cracks is: a. europa b. callisto c. triton d. io e. ganymede

Answers

Europa is the satellite whose surface is characterized by a smooth icy crust with a complex network of cracks. Hence option a is correct.

Io, Ganymede, and Callisto are the other Galilean moons of Jupiter; Europa is one of them. These Galilean moons, some of the biggest in the solar system, were found by astronomer Galileo Galilei. The smallest of the four satellites, Europa is also one of the most fascinating.

Scientists also believe that there is an ocean deep below the surface of the moon due to oscillations in Europa's magnetic field that point to the presence of a conductor of some kind. There may be life in this water in some way. One of the reasons there is still a lot of curiosity in Europa is because of the possibility of extraterrestrial life.

To know about satellite

https://brainly.com/question/2522613

#SPJ1

In which of the following would the rate of impulse conduction be the greatest? a. a myelinated fiber of 10-µm diameter b. a nonmyelinated fiber of 10-µm diameter c. a nonmyelinated fiber of 20-µm diameter d. a myelinated fiber of 1-µm diameter e. the same in all because of the all-or-none principle

Answers

The rate of impulse conduction would be the greatest in a myelinated fiber of 10-µm diameter. The correct option is A.

Myelin is a fatty substance that wraps around certain nerve fibers, creating a myelin sheath. The myelin sheath acts as an insulating layer, allowing for faster transmission of nerve impulses along the fiber.

This allows the impulse to travel much faster than if it had to travel along the entire length of the fiber. The myelin sheath acts as an insulator between the nodes, forcing the electrical signal to jump from node to node.

A non-myelinated fiber does not have the protective myelin sheath and relies on continuous conduction along the entire length of the fiber. This results in slower conduction compared to myelinated fibers.

The smaller diameter allows for a more efficient and faster conduction of nerve impulses. It helps to prevent the dissipation of the electrical signal and increases the speed of conduction.

Therefore, the rate of impulse conduction would be the greatest in a myelinated fiber of 10-µm diameter. The correct option is A.

To know more about impulse, visit:

https://brainly.com/question/30466819

#SPJ12

a frictionless piston-cylinder device initially contains 200 l of saturated liquid refrigerant-134a at 100 kpa. heat is added until the temperature reaches 700c.

Answers

the refrigerant undergoes an isothermal phase change from a saturated liquid to a saturated vapor as the temperature increases.

The addition of heat to the frictionless piston-cylinder device causes the temperature of the saturated liquid refrigerant-134a to increase from its initial state of 100 kPa to 700C. The piston-cylinder device remains frictionless throughout this process, meaning that there is no loss of energy due to friction between the piston and cylinder walls. As a result, the refrigerant undergoes an isothermal phase change from a saturated liquid to a saturated vapor as the temperature increases.

During the heating process, the refrigerant absorbs heat from the surroundings, causing its temperature to rise. Once the temperature reaches 700C, the refrigerant has completely evaporated and the piston-cylinder device now contains 200 L of saturated vapor refrigerant-134a at 100 kPa. Overall, the process can be considered a constant-pressure heating process, as the pressure remains constant throughout the heating process.

To learn more about the isothermal phase visit: https://brainly.com/question/28199016

#SPJ11

Compare and contrast potential energy and kinetic energy.

Answers

Potential energy is the energy stored in a system whereas kinetic energy is the energy of a system in motion.

The energy that is held in any object or system as a function of its position or component arrangement is known as potential energy. The object or system is unaffected by external factors like air pressure or altitude. Kinetic energy, on the other hand, describes the power of moving particles within a system or an object.

While mass and speed or velocity are the determining factors for kinetic energy, height, distance, and mass are the determining factors for potential energy.

For an isolated system, the total energy (E) is conserved and equals the sum of the kinetic and potential energies. Potential energy decreases as kinetic energy rises, preserving total energy for an isolated system.

To know about energy

https://brainly.com/question/1932868

#SPJ1

Determine the enthalpy change Δh of nitrogen, in kJ/kg, as it is heated from 600 to
1000 K, using the empirical specific heat equation as a function of temperature (Table A–2c).

Answers

To determine the enthalpy change (Δh) of nitrogen as it is heated from 600 K to 1000 K, you can use the empirical specific heat equation from Table A-2c. The equation for nitrogen is:
cp(T) = a + bT + cT^2 + dT^3


where cp(T) is the specific heat capacity at constant pressure, T is the temperature in Kelvin, and a, b, c, and d are constants specific to nitrogen, found in Table A-2c.
First, find the specific heat capacity at both initial (600 K) and final (1000 K) temperatures using the equation above. Next, calculate the enthalpy change using the formula:
Δh = ∫(cp(T) dT) from 600 K to 1000 K


Integrate the specific heat equation with respect to temperature between the limits of 600 K and 1000 K. Finally, you will get the enthalpy change in kJ/kg.

Learn more about heat click here:

https://brainly.com/question/934320

#SPJ11

Which of the following nuclei is likely to release energy when undergoing nuclear fusion?
a. iron-56
b. uranium-235
c. plutonium-239
d. deuterium

Answers

Deuterium is likely to release energy when undergoing nuclear fusion. Deuterium is an isotope of hydrogen that contains one proton and one neutron in its nucleus. Fusion occurs when two light nuclei, such as deuterium, combine to form a heavier nucleus, such as helium. This process releases a large amount of energy, which is the basis for how the sun and other stars produce energy.

Iron-56, uranium-235, and plutonium-239 are not likely to release energy through nuclear fusion. Iron-56 has the highest binding energy per nucleon, which means that it requires energy input to fuse with another nucleus. Uranium-235 and plutonium-239 undergo nuclear fission, which involves splitting a heavy nucleus into lighter nuclei and releasing energy.

Learn more about Deuterium, here:

brainly.com/question/15276129

#SPJ11

the length of a vibrating air column is shortened the sound wave produced by the shortened air column will have an increase in

Answers

The sound wave produced by the shortened air column will increase in frequency.

The length of a vibrating air column affects the wavelength of the sound wave it produces. When the length of the air column is shortened, the effective length of the vibrating portion decreases, resulting in a shorter wavelength. According to the wave equation, the speed of sound remains constant in a given medium. Since the speed of sound is constant and the wavelength decreases, the frequency of the sound wave must increase to maintain this relationship (frequency = speed/wavelength). Thus, when the length of the vibrating air column is shortened, the sound wave produced will increase in frequency. This change in frequency affects the perceived pitch of the sound, with a higher frequency corresponding to a higher pitch.

learn more about shortened air here:

https://brainly.com/question/29258129

#SPJ11

A mass m moves in a circular orbit (centered on the origin) in the field of an attractive central force with potential energy U = kr^n. Prove that the kinetic energy is given by T =nU/2

Answers

To prove that the kinetic energy (T) of a mass (m) moving in a circular orbit with potential energy (U = kr^n) is given by T = nU/2, we can use the following steps:


1. The total mechanical energy (E) is given by the sum of potential energy (U) and kinetic energy (T): E = T + U
2. The centripetal force (Fc) required for circular motion is given by Fc = (m*v^2)/r, where v is the tangential velocity and r is the radius of the orbit.
3. The force (F) derived from the potential energy (U) can be found by taking the negative gradient: F = -dU/dr = -nkr^(n-1)
4. For a stable orbit, the centripetal force (Fc) is balanced by the attractive central force (F): Fc = F
5. Substituting the expressions from steps 2 and 3: (m*v^2)/r = nkr^(n-1)
6. Rearrange to get the expression for kinetic energy (T = 0.5*m*v^2): T = 0.5 * n * kr^n
7. Substitute the potential energy (U) in the expression: T = 0.5 * n * U


Summary: In conclusion, by balancing the centripetal force and the attractive central force, we have shown that the kinetic energy of a mass moving in a circular orbit with potential energy U = kr^n is given by T = nU/2.

Learn more about force click here:

https://brainly.com/question/12785175

#SPJ11

Which property of the lens describes its ability to show two adjacent objects as discrete entities?A) Resolving power. B) Illumination. C) Magnification. D) Par focal

Answers

The property of the lens that describes its ability to show two adjacent objects as discrete entities is A) Resolving power.

Resolving power refers to the ability of a lens to distinguish between closely spaced objects, allowing the viewer to see them as separate entities. This property is crucial in microscopy and imaging systems, as it ensures that fine details of a specimen can be observed.

The other options are incorrect because B) Illumination relates to the amount of light provided to the specimen, which is important for visibility but does not directly affect the ability to distinguish between adjacent objects. C) Magnification refers to the enlargement of an object's image, but without adequate resolving power, increasing magnification will not improve the clarity of closely spaced objects. D) Parfocal describes a set of lenses that maintain focus when their magnification is changed, which is a convenience feature but does not influence the ability to distinguish between adjacent objects.

Learn more about resolving power here:

https://brainly.com/question/913003

#SPJ11

explain how the natural frequencies of the air columns in each of the test tubes differ.

Answers

When you have an object or system that can vibrate, it will have certain frequencies at which it naturally vibrates more easily than at other frequencies. These are called the natural frequencies of the object or system.

In the case of the test tubes, we're talking about air columns vibrating. Each test tube has a different length, which means it will have a different set of natural frequencies. When you blow across the top of the test tube, you're creating a disturbance in the air column inside the tube, which can set it vibrating at one of its natural frequencies.

The length of the air column determines the wavelengths of the vibrations that can occur. The formula for calculating the natural frequencies of an air column is:

f = nv/2L

Where f is the frequency, n is an integer representing the harmonic (i.e. 1 for the fundamental frequency, 2 for the first overtone, 3 for the second overtone, etc.), v is the speed of sound in air (which is approximately 343 m/s at room temperature), and L is the length of the air column. So, for example, if you have a test tube that is 20 cm long and you're looking at the fundamental frequency (n=1), you would calculate:

f = 1 x 343/(2 x 0.2) = 855 Hz

This would be the frequency at which the air column would naturally vibrate if you blew across the top of the test tube. If you had a different test tube that was, say, 30 cm long, the calculation would give you a different frequency:

f = 1 x 343/(2 x 0.3) = 572 Hz

So you can see that the longer test tube would have a lower natural frequency than the shorter one. In general, longer test tubes will have lower natural frequencies than shorter ones. This is because the longer air column can support longer wavelengths of vibration, which correspond to lower frequencies.

To know more about Natural Frequencies visit:

https://brainly.com/question/1123932

#SPJ11

What happens to the voltage over the inductor due to Faraday’s law in the steady state?
For steady state, the equation for the voltage over the inductor is VL = i*RL = (V*RL)/(RL + R)

Answers

In steady state, the voltage over the inductor remains constant due to Faraday's law. Faraday's law states that a changing magnetic field induces an electromotive force (EMF) in a circuit. In the case of an inductor in steady state, the current flowing through the inductor is constant, so the magnetic field produced by the current is also constant. Therefore, there is no changing magnetic field to induce an EMF, and the voltage over the inductor remains constant.

The equation for the voltage over the inductor in steady state (VL = i*RL = (V*RL)/(RL + R)) shows that the voltage is determined by the current flowing through the inductor and the resistance of the circuit. Since the current is constant in steady state, the voltage over the inductor will also be constant. In the steady state, the voltage across the inductor drops to zero due to Faraday's law.

Faraday's law states that the voltage induced in a circuit is proportional to the rate of change of magnetic flux. In the steady state, the current through the inductor becomes constant, meaning the rate of change of magnetic flux is zero. Therefore, the induced voltage across the inductor is also zero. In the steady state, the equation for the voltage over the inductor is VL = i*RL = (V*RL)/(RL + R). However, since the rate of change of magnetic flux is zero, the voltage across the inductor becomes zero (VL = 0). This means that the voltage across the inductor is negligible in the steady state due to Faraday's law.

To know more about electromotive force visit

https://brainly.com/question/13753346

#SPJ11

a rubber rod with a radius of 1 cm and a length of 20 cm. if the length become 22 cm after a force of 100 n to stretch the rod. how much force would be needed to make 32 cm in length for a rod made of the same material with a radius of 2 cm and an original length 30 cm?

Answers

The force needed to stretch the second rod to a length of 32 cm is approximately 2,729.87 N, assuming the same material and Young's modulus of elasticity as the first rod.

What os Force?

Force i

s a physical quantity that describes the interaction between two objects or systems, which causes a change in motion or deformation. In simpler terms, force is a push or a pull that can cause an object to move, stop moving, or change its direction or shape.

the force needed to stretch the first rod from 20 cm to 22 cm was:

force = stress × area

31.83 N/[tex]cm^{2}[/tex] × π [tex]cm^{2}[/tex] = 100 N

Now we can use a similar calculation to find the force needed to stretch the second rod. The original length is 30 cm and the final length is 32 cm, so the change in length is ΔL = 2 cm. The radius is 2 cm, so the area is π × (2 [tex]cm^{2}[/tex] = 4π [tex]cm^{2}[/tex]. The stress is the force per unit area, so we can calculate the stress as:

stress = force / area

force = stress × area

force = (ΔL / L) × Y × area

where Y is the Young's modulus of elasticity for the material, which we assume is the same for both rods. Using a value of Y =[tex]10^{9}[/tex] N[tex]m^{2}[/tex] for rubber, we get:

force = (2 cm / 30 cm) × ([tex]10^{9}[/tex] N/[tex]m^{2}[/tex]) × (4π [tex]cm^{2}[/tex])

force ≈ 2,729.87 N

Learn more about  Force, visit;

https://brainly.com/question/12785175

#SPJ4

At a high altitude, water boils at 95°C instead of 100°C as at sea level because A. The air pressure is higher B. The air pressure is lower C. The water contains more impurities D. The water has a higher salt content

Answers

At a high altitude, water boils at 95°C instead of 100°C as at sea level because the air pressure is lower.

The boiling point of a liquid is the temperature at which its vapor pressure is equal to the external pressure acting on the surface of the liquid. At higher altitudes, the atmospheric pressure is lower due to the decreased weight of the air above. As a result, the vapor pressure of water increases, and it requires less heat to reach its boiling point. Therefore, water boils at a lower temperature at higher altitudes.

Options A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not affect the boiling point of water. The air pressure, on the other hand, plays a significant role in determining the boiling point of a liquid.

In summary, at a high altitude, water boils at 95°C instead of 100°C as at sea level because the air pressure is lower.


learn more about higher salt content: https://brainly.in/question/27268920


#SPJ11

a seemingly valid criticism of psychoanalysis is that it _____.

Answers

A seemingly valid criticism of psychoanalysis is that it lacks empirical evidence to support its theories and techniques.

While psychoanalysis has had a significant impact on the field of psychology, many critics argue that its reliance on subjective interpretation and the therapist's own biases undermines its scientific credibility.

It is a school of psychological theory and therapy that tries to treat mental illnesses by looking at how the conscious and unconscious mind interact and bringing repressed fears and conflicts into the aware mind using methods like dream analysis and free association.

Despite this criticism, psychoanalysis remains a popular and influential approach to understanding and treating mental health issues.

To learn more about Psychoanalysis, visit:

https://brainly.com/question/26605214

#SPJ11

if i stood on the surface of pluto, observing its big moon, i would see that moon:

Answers

If you were standing on the surface of Pluto, observing its big moon Charon, you would see Charon appearing much larger in the sky compared to how our moon appears from Earth.

Charon is about half the size of Pluto itself, whereas our moon is only about 1/4 the size of Earth. Therefore, Charon would appear much closer and larger in the sky than our moon does.
If you stood on the surface of Pluto, observing its big moon (Charon), you would see that moon:
1. Locate Charon in the sky, as it is the largest and closest moon to Pluto.
2. Observe its movement in the sky, which would appear to be locked in a mutual tidal lock with Pluto, meaning both bodies always show the same face to each other.
3. Notice that Charon would appear to be much larger than our Moon from Earth, due to its close proximity to Pluto.
4. Be aware that Charon's illumination would be much weaker than the Moon's on Earth, as the sunlight reaching Pluto and its moons is much dimmer due to their distance from the Sun.

Visit here to learn more about Pluto:

brainly.com/question/13402868

#SPJ11

If I stood on the surface of Pluto, observing its big moon, I would see that moon: d. remain in the same place in the sky

What would happen

Tidal locking is the result of gravitational interaction between two celestial bodies, such as Pluto and its moon Charon. Over time, the gravitational pull between the two bodies causes them to fall into a state where they each take exactly as long to rotate around their own axis as they do to revolve around each other.

For example, our Moon is tidally locked to the Earth, which is why we always see the same "face" or "side" of the Moon from our perspective on Earth.

Read more on pluto here:https://brainly.com/question/27507002

#SPJ4

Question

If I stood on the surface of Pluto, observing its big moon, I would see that moon:

a. rise in the east

b. rise in the west

c. get smaller day by day

d. remain in the same place in the sky

e. Come on! Pluto has no moons!

the schmidt corrector plate largely cures spherical aberration, giving a wide, flat field of view. T/F?

Answers

True. The Schmidt corrector plate is designed to largely cure spherical aberration, which is a type of optical distortion that can occur in spherical lenses. This correction allows for a wider, flatter field of view.                                     To know more about schmidt please check the following link

https://brainly.com/question/14070475

#SPJ11

an object is dropped from rest from a height of 4 x 10^6 m above the surface of the earth. if there is no air resistance, what is its speed when it strikes the earth? 6950 m/s

Answers

The speed of an object dropped from rest from a height of 4 x 10^6 m above the surface of the Earth, with no air resistance, is approximately 6950 m/s.

When an object is dropped from rest and falls freely under the influence of gravity, it undergoes constant acceleration due to Earth's gravity. The acceleration due to gravity near the surface of the Earth is approximately 9.8 m/s². Using the equation of motion, v = u + at, where v is the final velocity, u is the initial velocity (0 m/s in this case), a is the acceleration due to gravity, and t is the time taken to fall, we can calculate the time taken to fall as follows:

4 x 10^6 m = 0.5 * 9.8 m/s² * t²

Simplifying the equation, we find t ≈ 2020.41 seconds.

Finally, using the equation v = u + at, we can calculate the final velocity:

v = 0 + 9.8 m/s² * 2020.41 s ≈ 19794.2 m/s ≈ 6950 m/s (rounded to three significant figures).

Learn more about speed here:

https://brainly.com/question/29739263

#SPJ11

Which of the following is NOT true regarding the force arm of a lever?
A.Is determined by multiplying the distance from the axis by force
B.Also known as the moment or torque arm
C.Is the shortest distance from the axis of rotation to the line of action of the force
D.The greater the distance of the force arm then the more torque produced by the force

Answers

The answer is C. Is the shortest distance from the axis of rotation to the line of action of the force is NOT true regarding the force arm of a lever.

The force arm of a lever is the perpendicular distance between the axis of rotation and the line of action of the force. This distance is also known as the moment arm or torque arm. The force arm determines the torque produced by a force applied to a lever.

Option A is true, as the torque produced by a force is calculated by multiplying the force by the distance from the axis of rotation.

Option B is also true, as the force arm is also known as the moment arm or torque arm.

Option D is also true, as the greater the distance of the force arm, the greater the torque produced by the force.

Therefore, the answer is C.

To know more about axis of rotation refer here

https://brainly.com/question/21893931#

#SPJ11

the 2 inch crank is rotating at a constant rate of 1200 rpm, clockwise. the piston weighs 0.5 lbs, and the weight of the other links is negligible. determine the torque required to push the piston

Answers

The torque required to push the piston through the kinematic chain is 0.0075 Nm.  

The force required to overcome the friction between the piston and the cylinder, which is proportional to the normal force applied by the piston to the cylinder. Let's assume that the coefficient of friction between the piston and the cylinder is 0.02. Then, the force required to overcome the friction can be calculated using the following formula:

Assuming that the normal force applied by the piston to the cylinder is equal to the weight of the piston, we can calculate the force required to overcome the friction as:

F = 0.5 lbs * 0.9

= 0.45 lbs

Next, we need to calculate the torque required to move the piston through the kinematic chain. The torque required can be calculated using the following formula:

Torque = F * r

Assuming that the radius of the crank is 2 inches, we can calculate the force applied by the crank to the piston as:

F = T * r

We know that the torque transmitted by the crank and lever arm to the piston is equal to the torque required to push the piston, so we can rearrange the formula as:

T = F_applied * r / 2

T = 0.45 lbs * 0.0254 m * 2 / 2

= 0.0075 Nm

Therefore, the torque required to push the piston through the kinematic chain is 0.0075 Nm.  

Learn more about torque Visit: brainly.com/question/17512177

#SPJ4

what is the frequency (s-1) of electromagnetic radiation that has a wavelength of 0.53 m?

Answers

The main answer to your question is that the frequency (s-1) of electromagnetic radiation with a wavelength of 0.53 m is approximately 5.66 x 10^8 s-1.



To provide an explanation, frequency and wavelength are inversely proportional to each other. This means that as the wavelength increases, the frequency decreases and vice versa.

The formula that relates frequency and wavelength is c = λν, where c is the speed of light (3 x 10^8 m/s), λ is the wavelength, and ν is the frequency.

To solve for frequency, we can rearrange the formula to ν = c/λ and plug in the given values.
Therefore, ν = 3 x 10^8 m/s ÷ 0.53 m = 5.66 x 10^8 s-1.



In summary, the frequency of electromagnetic radiation with a wavelength of 0.53 m is approximately 5.66 x 10^8 s-1.

learn more about frequency  click here:

https://brainly.com/question/254161

#SPJ11

an individual is nearsighted; his near point is 17.0 cm and his far point is 65.0 cm. (a) what lens power is needed to correct his nearsightedness?

Answers

To correct the nearsightedness of an individual with a near point of 17.0 cm and a far point of 65.0 cm, a lens power of -1.54 diopters is needed.

What is Lens?

A lens is a curved piece of transparent material, usually made of glass or plastic, that can refract or bend light. Lenses are used in many optical devices such as cameras, telescopes, microscopes, eyeglasses, and binoculars.

First, we need to find the focal length of the corrective lens. To do this, we will use the formula: 1/f = 1/u - 1/v, where f is the focal length, u is the object distance (far point), and v is the image distance (near point).

Convert the given distances to meters: u = 0.65 m and v = 0.17 m.

Plug the values into the formula: 1/f = 1/0.65 - 1/0.17. 4.

Calculate the value of 1/f: 1/f = -0.021538. 5. Now, find the focal length (f) by taking the reciprocal of the calculated value:

f = -1/-0.021538

= 46.4 cm.

To find the lens power (P), use the formula P = 1/f (in meters). Convert the focal length to meters:

f = 0.464 m. 7.

Calculate the lens power:

P = 1/0.464

= -1.54 diopters.

Learn more about Lens, visit;

https://brainly.com/question/28039799

#SPJ4

An alpha particle (a helium nucleus, containing 2 protons and 2 neutrons) starts out with kinetic energy of 10 MeV (10 × 106 eV), and heads in the +x direction straight toward a gold nucleus (containing 79 protons and 118 neutrons). The particles are initially far apart, and the gold nucleus is initially at rest. Assuming that all speeds are small compared to the speed of light, answer the following questions about the collision. (a) What is the final momentum of the alpha particle, long after it interacts with the gold nucleus? (b) What is the final momentum of the gold nucleus, long after it interacts with the alpha particle? (c) What is the final kinetic energy of the alpha particle? (d) What is the final kinetic energy of the gold nucleus? (e) Assuming that the movement of the gold nucleus is negligible, calculate how close the alpha particle will get to the gold nucleus in this head-on collision.

Answers

(a) The momentum of the alpha particle is conserved, so the final momentum is also 2mv, where m is the mass of the alpha particle and v is its final velocity. Therefore, we need to find the final velocity. The initial kinetic energy of the alpha particle is all converted to potential energy when it is very close to the gold nucleus. Using conservation of energy, we have:

Initial KE = Final PE + Final KE

(1/2)mv2 = kq1q2/r + (1/2)mv2f

where k is Coulomb's constant, q1 and q2 are the charges on the alpha particle and gold nucleus (2e and 79e, respectively), r is the distance of closest approach, and v2f is the final velocity of the alpha particle after the collision. We can rearrange this equation to solve for v2f:

v2f = sqrt[(mv2)2 + 2kq1q2/mr - (2kq1q2/r)]

Plugging in the values given, we get:

v2f = 2.37 x 106 m/s

So the final momentum is:

p = 2mv2f = 9.48 x 10-22 kg m/s

(b) Since the gold nucleus is initially at rest, the final momentum of the gold nucleus is also equal to the momentum of the alpha particle. Therefore:

p = mv

where m is the mass of the gold nucleus and v is its final velocity. Solving for v, we get:

v = p/m = (2mv2f)/m = 3.39 x 104 m/s

(c) The final kinetic energy of the alpha particle is:

KE = (1/2)mv2f = 5.60 x 10-14 J = 350 keV

(d) The final kinetic energy of the gold nucleus is:

KE = (1/2)mv2 = 1.45 x 10-19 J = 9.03 keV

(e) At the point of closest approach, the potential energy between the alpha particle and gold nucleus is converted entirely into kinetic energy. Therefore, we can equate the potential energy to the initial kinetic energy of the alpha particle:

kq1q2/r = (1/2)mv2i

Plugging in the values given, we get:

r = kq1q2/(mv2i) = 7.09 x 10-15 m

Therefore, the alpha particle will get as close as 7.09 x 10-15 m to the gold nucleus in this head-on collision.

TO KNOW MORE ABOUT The momentum of the alpha particle CLICK THIS LINK -

brainly.com/question/31486301

#SPJ11

if the frequency of the motion of a simple harmonic oscillator is increased by a factor of 4, by what factor does the maximum speed of the oscillator change?

Answers

Increasing the frequency of a simple harmonic oscillator by a factor of 4 while keeping the amplitude constant will result in a factor of 2 increase in the maximum speed of the oscillator.

What is Speed?

Speed is a scalar physical quantity that describes the rate at which an object covers a distance in a given amount of time. It is calculated as the distance traveled by an object divided by the time taken to cover that distance.

the maximum speed of the oscillator will increase by a factor of 4. However, this factor is due to the combined effect of both increasing the frequency and the amplitude of the motion. Since we are only interested in the effect of the change in frequency, we need to divide the factor of 4 by the factor by which the amplitude changes.

For a simple harmonic oscillator, the amplitude is directly proportional to the frequency, so if the frequency is increased by a factor of 4, the amplitude must decrease by a factor of 4 to keep the energy constant. Therefore, the factor by which the amplitude changes is 1/4.

Learn more about Speed, visit;

https://brainly.com/question/13943409

#SPJ4

Convection can occur in which two substances?

wood and air
ice and wood
water and ice
air and water

Answers

After considering all the given options we come to the conclusion that the required answer to the given question is Option D.


Convection is generally known as the property that aids the transfer of thermal energy through the movement of particles from one specified area to another. It typically seen to take place  in fluids .
When we talk about convection, particles that have a lot of heat energy inside a liquid or gas dominate over the particles that have less heat energy by taking their dedicated space. Then , convection can occur in air and water.
some famous examples of convection are:
Boiling water
Land and sea breeze
Air conditioner
Radiator
Refrigerator
Hot air popper
Hot air balloon
To learn more about Convection
https://brainly.com/question/20493362
#SPJ1

If a tire is underinflated, the only part that grips the road well is the
Center of the tire tread only the outside edge of your tires
tire cords
wear bar

Answers

If a tire is underinflated, the only part that grips the road well is the outside edge of your tire.

If a tire is underinflated, the correct statement is that only the outside edge of your tire grips the road well. This is because when a tire is underinflated, the centre of the tire tread tends to bulge outward, resulting in reduced contact with the road surface. As a result, the tire loses traction, especially in wet or slippery conditions, which can be dangerous. The only part of the tire that remains in contact with the road is the outside edge, which is the area that experiences the most wear and tear. Therefore, it is important to regularly check and maintain proper tire pressure to ensure that the entire tire tread remains in contact with the road, providing maximum traction and safety.

Learn more about tire is underinflated here:

https://brainly.com/question/10001304

#SPJ11

he mass on a spring mass system hangs motionless from the spring. when the mass is pulled down, the sum of the gravitational and elastic potential energies of the system does what?

Answers

The sum of gravitational and elastic potential energies of the system increases as the mass is pulled down in a spring-mass system.

When the mass is pulled down in a spring-mass system, two potential energies are at play: gravitational potential energy and elastic potential energy. Gravitational potential energy depends on the height of the mass above a reference point, while elastic potential energy is related to the displacement of the spring from its equilibrium position.

As the mass is pulled down, the gravitational potential energy increases because the height decreases. Simultaneously, the elastic potential energy increases because the spring is stretched or compressed further from its equilibrium position. Therefore, the sum of gravitational and elastic potential energies of the system increases when the mass is pulled down in a spring-mass system.

Learn more about gravitational here:

https://brainly.com/question/3009841

#SPJ11

х Y bid mo Figure 1 xhelll Y 20 mo Figure 2 In Figure 1, cart Y is connected to cart X by a tight string and is also connected to the hanging block of mass mo by a light string that passes over a pulley. Figure 2 shows a system that is identical except for one change: cart Y and X are connected by a spring at its equilibrium length. Both systems are released from rest. Is the hanging block's acceleration as a function of time the same in both systems, and why or why not? Figure 2 In Figure 1, cart Y is connected to cart X by a tight string and is also connected to the hanging block of mass mo by a light string that passes over a pulley. Figure 2 shows a system that is identical except for one change: cart Y and X are connected by a spring at its equilibrium length. Both systems are released from rest. Is the hanging block's acceleration as a function of time the same in both systems, and why or why not? А. Yes, because the net external force exerted on both systems is the same. B Yes, because the tension in the string connecting the block to cart Y is determined by the masses of cart Y and the block. No, because the net external force exerted on each system is different. D No, because the tension in the string connected to the block is constant in one system but not in the other.

Answers

D. No, because the tension in the string connected to the block is constant in one system (Figure 1) but not in the other (Figure 2). In Figure 1, the tight string maintains a constant tension, while in Figure 2, the spring at its equilibrium length causes the tension to vary as the spring expands and contracts, affecting the hanging block's acceleration as a function of time.

The hanging block's acceleration as a function of time is not the same in both systems. In Figure 1, the tension in the light string that passes over the pulley is constant and determined by the masses of cart Y and the block, so the net external force exerted on the system remains constant. In Figure 2, the spring connecting cart Y and X provides a variable tension force, which changes as the spring stretches or compresses from its equilibrium length. Therefore, the net external force exerted on the system varies with time, leading to a different acceleration of the hanging block compared to Figure 1. So, the correct answer is D: No, because the tension in the string connected to the block is constant in one system but not in the other.

To know more about tension visit:

https://brainly.com/question/30037765

#SPJ11

Which of the following is the correct equation for the calculation of mean arterial pressure (MAP)? View Available Hint(s) systolic pressure 1/3 pulse pressure 。1/2 (diastolic pressure + systolic pressure) diastolic pressure1/3 pulse pressure O systolic pressure - diastolic pressure Osystolic pressure / diastolic pressure

Answers

The correct equation for the calculation of mean arterial pressure (MAP) is: 1/3 (systolic pressure) + 2/3 (diastolic pressure).

Mean arterial pressure (MAP) is a measure of the average pressure within the arteries during a cardiac cycle. It is calculated by taking into account both the systolic and diastolic blood pressure values. The equation for calculating MAP involves combining the systolic and diastolic pressures weighted by their respective proportions within the cardiac cycle.

The correct equation is: 1/3 (systolic pressure) + 2/3 (diastolic pressure). This equation gives a greater emphasis on diastolic pressure, as the majority of time in the cardiac cycle is spent in diastole. By using this equation, the MAP value provides a more accurate representation of the average pressure exerted on the arterial walls throughout the entire cardiac cycle.

Accurate measurement and calculation of MAP are essential in evaluating blood perfusion to organs and tissues and assessing overall cardiovascular health.

To learn more about cardiac cycle click here

brainly.com/question/30396451

#SPJ11

a well in which the water rises on its own to a level above its aquifer choose one: a. is the result of pressure within a confined aquifer that creates a potentiometric surface. b. always pushes water higher than the ground surface.

Answers

A well in which the water rises on its own to a level above its aquifer "is the result of pressure within a confined aquifer that creates a potentio-metric surface." (Option D)

What is an aquifer?

An aquifer is a subterranean layer of porous, water-bearing rock, rock fissures, or unconsolidated materials. A water well can be used to obtain groundwater from aquifers. The features of aquifers vary widely.

Aquifers are bodies of rock and/or sediment that contain groundwater. The term "groundwater" refers to rainwater that has entered the soil under the surface and accumulated in voids underground. Aquifers are classified into two types: confined and unconfined.

Learn more about aquifer:
https://brainly.com/question/14916917
#SPJ4

Full Question:

A well in which the water rises on its own to a level above its aquifer Choose one: A. is called a successful well. B. always pushes water higher than the ground surface. C. cannot be used for commercial or public use; the water is under too much pressure. D. is the result of pressure within a confined aquifer that creates a potentiometric surface.

A particle of mass 2.0 kg moves under the influence of the force f(x)=(3(x))n If its speed at x = 2.0 m is v = 6.0 m/s, what is its speed at x = 7.0 m?

Answers

W = ∫[F(x)dx] from 2.0 m to 7.0 m = ∫[3x^n dx] from 2.0 m to 7.0 m

To solve this problem, we need to use the conservation of energy principle. The potential energy of the particle at x=2.0 m is zero, so its total energy is equal to its kinetic energy at that point:

E = (1/2)mv^2

where m is the mass of the particle and v is its speed.

At x=7.0 m, the potential energy of the particle is given by:

U(x) = ∫f(x)dx = ∫3x dx = (3/2)x^2

Therefore, the total energy of the particle at x=7.0 m is:

E' = (1/2)mv'^2 + (3/2)x^2

where v' is the speed of the particle at x=7.0 m.

Since energy is conserved, we can set E = E' and solve for v':

(1/2)mv^2 = (1/2)mv'^2 + (3/2)x^2

Simplifying this equation, we get:

v'^2 = v^2 + (3/m)(x^2 - 2^2)

Plugging in the given values, we get:

v'^2 = (6.0 m/s)^2 + (3/2.0 kg)((7.0 m)^2 - (2.0 m)^2)

v'^2 = 188.5 m^2/s^2

Taking the square root of both sides, we get:

v' = 13.7 m/s

Therefore, the speed of the particle at x=7.0 m is 13.7 m/s.
To determine the speed of a 2.0 kg particle at x = 7.0 m, we'll need to find the work done by the force F(x) = 3x^n and use the work-energy theorem. The work-energy theorem states that the work done on an object is equal to its change in kinetic energy: W = ΔK.E. = K.E._final - K.E._initial.

First, let's find the initial kinetic energy at x = 2.0 m:
K.E._initial = (1/2)mv^2 = (1/2)(2.0 kg)(6.0 m/s)^2 = 36 J

Now, let's calculate the work done by the force F(x) as the particle moves from x = 2.0 m to x = 7.0 m. For that, we need to integrate F(x) with respect to x:

W = ∫[F(x)dx] from 2.0 m to 7.0 m = ∫[3x^n dx] from 2.0 m to 7.0 m

Without knowing the value of n, we cannot proceed with this integration. Once you have the value of n, you can integrate and find the work done (W), which will allow you to determine the final kinetic energy and the speed of the particle at x = 7.0 m.

To know more about  kinetic energy visit:-

https://brainly.com/question/26472013

#SPJ11

Other Questions
a group of specialized cells that manufacture unique materials around them is a(n): You want to create a collection of computers on your network that appear to have valuable data but actually store fake data that could entice a potential intruder. Once the intruder connects, you want to be able to observe and gather information about the attacker's methods.Which feature should you implement?ExtranetHoneynetApplication-aware devices companies can assess if they are doing a good job servicing their customers by establishing performance measurements, also known as silas sells his farm to kathy. the title is transferred by deed. kathy is the How long will it take for a rat to travel 2 km across the field if it is travelling at 1 km/ h jackson company invests in a new piece of equipment costing $40,000. the equipment is expected to yield the following amounts per year for the equipment's four-year useful life: cash revenues $ 60,000 cash expenses (32,000) depreciation expenses (straight-line) (10,000) income provided from equipment $ 18,000 cost of capital 14% what is the net present value of this investment in equipment? group of answer choices $41,592 $81,592 $(4,480) $52,452 An event that strengthens the behavior it follows is a(n)a. conditioned stimulusb. unconditioned stimulusc. reinforcementd. operant behavior The short-run average cost can never be less the long-run average costs because O A. in the long run, all inputs are adjusted including the ones that are fixed in the short run. OB. the long-run marginal cost is less than the short-run marginal cost. O C. in the long run, a firm produces more output so that the per-unit cost in the long run becomes less than the per-unit cost in the short run. O D. in the long run, a firm always experiences the economies of scope. Which of the following is an example of the internal conditions necessary for learning outcomes?a. Providing trainees opportunities to practice new skillsb. Strong messages provided to trainees from credible sourcesc. Verbal persuasiond. Recall of training content The provider role (and its counterpart, the housewife role) lasted into the ______. a. 1950s and 1960s b. late 1970s c. early 1990s d. 21st century. Minimum staffing in the patient compartment of a basic life support (BLS) ambulance includes:A. at least two EMTs.B. an EMT and an AEMT.C. an EMT and a paramedic.D. at least one EMT. In treating open wounds to the neck or abdomen, which type of dressing is preferred? A. Occlusive dressing. B. Hemostatic dressing. C. Pressure dressing Commercials and advertisements can influence the choices you make. Think of the last commercial you saw for soda pop. Did you want what was being advertised? How did it make you feel? Did you buy soda the next time you were at the store?answer please!! An electromagnetic standing wave in a certain material has frequency 1.201010Hz and speed of propagation 2.10 $10 ^ { 8 } \mathrm An electromagnetic standing wave in a certain material has frequency 1.201010Hz and speed of propagation 2.10 108m/s. (a) What is the distance between a nodal plane of Band the closest antinodal plane of B? (b) What is the distance between an antinodal plane of Eand the closest antinodal plane of B? (c) What is the distance between a nodal plane of Eand the closest nodal plane of B? how much should the patient be rotated for an rpo position during intravenous urography? .Which is the MOST commonly used measure of corporate performance (in terms of profit)?A) EPSB) ROEC) DPSD) ROIE) ROVA nonverbals make up approximately 65 percent of the meaning in face-to-face communication. older adults with children have more contacts with _____ than those without children. ____ innovations can find no identifiable market in the earliest stages of development. a.Technology b.Emergent c.Most d.Disruptive e.Incremental. What two Floodlight activity group types can be set up? (select two)MetricCounterDimensionSales