4. you pay for, O Publicity, personal selling Advertising, sales promotion Advertising, publicity O Publicity, advertising you pray for. 8. COGS is the most import part of: Ofixed cost GSA cost transportation charges variable cost 17. A retailer originally priced a lounge chair at $95 and then raised the price to $105. Before raising the price, the retailer was selling 1,200 chairs per week. When the price is increased, sales dropped to 1,010 unites per week. Are customers price sensitive in this case? Answer this question by showing E factor. 18. The major difference between gross and net profit is that net profit ----- O includes transportation charges deducts operating expenses O is based on LIFO, while gross profit is based on FIFO O uses a cost complement calculation

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Answer 1

Advertising and sales promotion are the most commonly used promotional tools.

Advertising is used to reach a large number of people at once, whereas sales promotion is used to encourage sales of a particular product or service. Publicity is a third promotional tool that is free to use. Publicity is the process of getting people to talk about your product or service through media coverage, word-of-mouth, and other methods.

8. The cost of goods sold (COGS) is the most important part of the cost structure of any business. It is the direct cost of producing a product or providing a service. COGS is calculated by adding up all of the direct costs of producing a product or providing a service, such as materials, labor, and manufacturing overhead. The cost of goods sold is subtracted from revenue to determine gross profit.

17. To determine the price sensitivity of customers in this case, we need to calculate the E factor. The E factor is calculated using the following formula:

E = (Q2 - Q1) / ((Q1 + Q2) / 2) / ((P2 - P1) / ((P1 + P2) / 2))

Where Q1 is the initial quantity sold, Q2 is the new quantity sold, P1 is the initial price, and P2 is the new price.

E = (1010 - 1200) / ((1010 + 1200) / 2) / ((105 - 95) / ((95 + 105) / 2))

E = -190 / 1105 / 0.0524

E = -0.3227

Since E is negative, customers are price-sensitive in this case.

18. The major difference between gross profit and net profit is that net profit deducts operating expenses from gross profit. Gross profit is the difference between revenue and cost of goods sold, while net profit is the difference between gross profit and operating expenses. Gross profit is a measure of profitability before deducting expenses, while net profit is a measure of profitability after deducting expenses.

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Related Questions

Assume you are forecasting with an exponential smoothing model using a = 0.46. a. How much weight is placed on the most recent actual demand? (Round your answer to 2 decimal places.) Weight of the data b. How much weight is given to the demand one time period older than the most recent data? (Round your answer to 3 decimal places.) Weight of the data i c. How much weight is given to data from two periods in the past? (Round your answer to 3 decimal places.) Weight of the data

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Answer:

The weight given to data from two periods in the past is approximately 0.118.

Explanation:

a. The weight placed on the most recent actual demand can be calculated using the formula: Weight = 1 - a

Given that a = 0.46, the weight of the most recent data would be: Weight = 1 - 0.46 = 0.54

Therefore, the weight placed on the most recent actual demand is 0.54.

b. The weight given to the demand one time period older than the most recent data can be calculated using the formula: Weight = a * (1 - a)

Given that a = 0.46, the weight for the demand one time period older than the most recent data would be: Weight = 0.46 * (1 - 0.46) = 0.2492

Therefore, the weight given to the demand one time period older than the most recent data is approximately 0.249.

c. The weight given to data from two periods in the past can be calculated using the formula: Weight = a^2 * (1 - a)

Given that a = 0.46, the weight for data from two periods in the past would be: Weight = 0.46^2 * (1 - 0.46) = 0.1176

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The aged analysis of A/R encompasses the following issues: (Select ALL correct answers)
A) The borrower’s working capital ratio
B) The A/R period’s consistency with the borrower’s stated credit terms
C) The amount of sellable inventory on hand
D) The receivables collection procedures in place
E) The credit terms the business provides to its customer

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The  s are: B) The A/R period's consistency with the borrower's stated credit terms D) The receivables collection procedures in place E) The credit terms the business provides to its customer

The aged analysis of accounts receivable (A/R) focuses on evaluating the effectiveness of a company's credit and collection policies.

the timeliness of customer payments and identifies any potential issues or risks related to outstanding receivables. The following factors are relevant to the aged analysis of A/R:

B) The A/R period's consistency with the borrower's stated credit terms: This involves comparing the average age of receivables to the credit terms the company offers its customers. It helps determine if customers are paying within the agreed-upon timeframe.

D) The receivables collection procedures in place: This refers to the company's processes for collecting outstanding receivables. It assesses the effectiveness of the collection efforts and the likelihood of timely payments.

E) The credit terms the business provides to its customer: This involves evaluating the credit terms extended to customers, such as payment due dates, discounts, and penalties. It helps determine if the credit terms are reasonable and align with industry standards.

A) The borrower's working capital ratio: Although the A/R aging analysis may indirectly impact the borrower's working capital, it is not directly related to assessing the working capital ratio. The working capital ratio is a measure of a company's short-term liquidity and is calculated by dividing current assets by current liabilities.

C) The amount of sellable inventory on hand: The aged analysis of A/R focuses on accounts receivable and customer payments, not inventory levels. While inventory may be relevant in assessing a company's overall financial health, it is not directly related to the aged analysis of A/R.

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In the economy, we found a recessionary gap of 50, relative to potential output of 4,800. Suppose that, in this economy, the natural rate of unemployment rate is 5%. What will the actual unemployment rate be after the recessionary gap appears?"

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In the given scenario, we have a recessionary gap of 50, with potential output of 4,800. Let's find the current output level with the given information.

The output level can be calculated as follows; Output gap = Y - Yp50 = Y - 4800Y = 4800 - 50Y = 4750. This means that the actual output level is 4,750. Now, we can use Okun's law to find the actual unemployment rate when the natural rate of unemployment rate is 5%. Okun's law states that for every 1% the actual unemployment rate exceeds the natural unemployment rate, there is a 2% negative GDP gap.

The formula is:ΔY = −2(Actual unemployment rate − Natural unemployment rate) where ΔY is the percentage point change in the output gap. Let's plug in the given information:50 = −2(Actual unemployment rate − 5%)50 = −2(Actual unemployment rate − 0.05)50 = −2(Actual unemployment rate − 0.05)50 = −2Actual unemployment rate + 0.1-50.1 = -2Actual unemployment rate-0.1 = Actual unemployment rate. So the actual unemployment rate is 4.9%.

Therefore, the actual unemployment rate will be 4.9% after the recessionary gap appears.

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to be valid, a security agreement must contain a description of the collateral. T/F

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A security agreement is an agreement between a lender and a borrower that lays out the terms and conditions of the loan and the collateral that secures it.

To be effective, a security agreement must contain a description of the collateral being used to secure the loan. This can include real property (land and buildings), personal property (vehicles, inventory, equipment, etc.), and other assets that have value.To be valid, a security agreement must meet specific legal requirements. The agreement must be in writing, signed by both parties, and clearly describe the collateral being used to secure the loan. In addition, the agreement must be filed with the appropriate state or local authority to ensure that it is legally enforceable.To sum it up, it is true that a security agreement must contain a description of the collateral in order to be valid. A security agreement that does not contain a description of the collateral would not be legally enforceable. Therefore, it is important for lenders and borrowers to carefully review the terms of the agreement and ensure that it complies with all legal requirements.

To secure a loan, a security agreement is an agreement between the lender and the borrower that lays out the terms and conditions of the loan and the collateral. It must contain a description of the collateral being used to secure the loan to be effective. A security agreement must be in writing, signed by both parties, and describe the collateral. The agreement must be filed with the appropriate state or local authority. A security agreement that does not contain a description of the collateral would not be legally enforceable. Therefore, lenders and borrowers should review the terms of the agreement and ensure that it complies with all legal requirements.

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Conflict is inevitable. Ethical principles provide the framework/tools which may facilitate individuals and society to resolve conflict in a fair, just and moral manner. Set out and discuss five ethical principles that form this framework

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Conflict is an inevitable part of human life, but ethical principles provide a framework and tools to help individuals and society resolve conflict in a fair, just, and moral manner. Here are the five ethical principles that form this framework.1. Autonomy:Autonomy refers to an individual's right to make decisions about their own life, free from external pressure or influence. T

his principle emphasizes the importance of respect for persons and their ability to make decisions. When conflicts arise, autonomy can help to ensure that all parties have a voice and are free to express their views.2. Beneficence:This principle emphasizes the importance of doing good. It focuses on promoting well-being and preventing harm. Beneficence helps to guide decision-making and can be useful when conflicts arise between competing interests.3. Non-maleficence:Non-maleficence emphasizes the importance of not causing harm. It recognizes that sometimes the best course of action is to do nothing, especially if taking action could lead to unintended negative consequences. When conflicts arise, non-maleficence can help to ensure that no harm is caused to any party.4. Justice:Justice emphasizes the importance of fairness and equality. It recognizes that all people should be treated equally and that everyone should have access to the same opportunities. When conflicts arise, justice can help to ensure that all parties are treated fairly and equally.5. Veracity:Veracity emphasizes the importance of truthfulness. It recognizes that honesty and transparency are essential for building trust and resolving conflicts. When conflicts arise, veracity can help to ensure that all parties are honest and transparent with each other, which can lead to more effective conflict resolution.These five ethical principles provide a framework and tools to help individuals and society resolve conflict in a fair, just, and moral manner. They can help to guide decision-making and promote well-being while preventing harm. When conflicts arise, these principles can be used to ensure that all parties are treated fairly and equally while promoting transparency and honesty.

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1.) The bottom line view of revenue management decisions always considers: Price/Value Relationship(WRONG ANSWER) option left A)Yield,, B)Pricing Fences,, C)Booking Pace
2.) The typical recommended marketing and advertising spend for a property, as a percentage of sales, is in the range of: 8-10% WRONG ANSWER FROM -CHEGG)- Option left A)3-5%, B)1-2%, C)12-15%,,

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The bottom line view of revenue management decisions always considers: Pricing Fences (WRONG ANSWER)

The correct answer is: A) Yield

Yield management, also known as revenue management, involves making strategic decisions to maximize revenue and profitability. It focuses on optimizing the allocation of limited resources, such as hotel rooms or airline seats, to different customer segments at different prices. The goal is to maximize revenue by selling the right product to the right customer at the right time and price.

The typical recommended marketing and advertising spend for a property, as a percentage of sales, is in the range of: 8-10% (WRONG ANSWER FROM CHEGG)

The correct answer is: C) 12-15%

The typical recommended marketing and advertising spend for a property, such as a hotel or resort, is generally in the range of 12-15% of total sales. This percentage can vary depending on various factors, including the property's size, location, target market, and competitive environment. Allocating a sufficient budget for marketing and advertising activities is crucial for promoting the property, attracting customers, and driving revenue growth.

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Fiddelsticks Ltd is an entertainment company. It organises live events. The company’s revenue comes from sales of tickets, merchandise and selling films of the events to Pay TV and steaming services. The company’s shares are listed on the ASX. The company was profitable until 2019. In 2019, the then board of directors collectively decided to invest most of the working capital of the company into a tour by an unknown acrobatic troupe, ‘Le Cirque de la Vidange’. The directors had not viewed the troupe’s performance or read any reviews or taken any other action to assess the quality of the troupe’s performance. A reading of the board minutes indicates the board may have confused the Vidange troupe with a famous troupe with a similar name. The tour was nearly a disaster for the company. The reviews of the performances were terrible, and the company lost a lot of money but did not become insolvent. The following year the entire board resigned. The current board is now considering suing one of the former directors, Bim. Bim is an actor. He was an independent non-executive director in 2019. He has considerable personal wealth. Required: Advise the current board of directors whether there are grounds to bring legal action against Bim for a breach of directors’ duties and the likelihood of a successful outcome. explain with relevant case law and based on autralian law

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According to the given case study, the company Fiddelsticks Ltd. is an entertainment company that organizes live events. The revenue of the company comes from sales of tickets, merchandise, and selling films of the events to Pay TV and streaming services.

The company's shares are listed on the ASX. The company was profitable until 2019. In 2019, the then board of directors collectively decided to invest most of the working capital of the company into a tour by an unknown acrobatic troupe, 'Le Cirque de la Vidange.' The directors had not viewed the troupe's performance or read any reviews or taken any other action to assess the quality of the troupe's performance. They confused the Vidange troupe with a famous troupe with a similar name. The tour was almost a disaster for the company.

The reviews of the performances were terrible, and the company lost a lot of money but did not become insolvent. The following year the entire board resigned. The current board is now considering suing one of the former directors, Bim, who is an actor and an independent non-executive director in 2019. He has considerable personal wealth. The current board of directors wants to know whether there are grounds to bring legal action against Bim for a breach of directors' duties and the likelihood of a successful outcome. As per the given situation, the current board is now considering suing one of the former directors, Bim, for a breach of directors' duties.

In Australia, under the Corporations Act, the director's duties and responsibilities are as follows:They should always act in the best interest of the company and its shareholders. According to Section 181 of the Corporations Act, a director must act with due care and diligence. This duty includes making decisions that are in the company's best interests and considering the interests of the company's shareholders. A director must also exercise due care and diligence when performing his or her duties. A director must not use his or her position improperly. According to Section 182 of the Corporations Act, a director must not use his or her position to gain an advantage for himself or herself or someone else.

A director must not use the company's information to gain an advantage for himself or herself or someone else.Using the above-stated law and the given scenario, it can be concluded that Bim's actions of investing most of the working capital of the company into a tour by an unknown acrobatic troupe without assessing the quality of the troupe's performance can be seen as a breach of directors' duties and responsibility. Bim, being a non-executive director, failed to act with due care and diligence when making decisions for the company. As a result, the company suffered financial loss and bad reviews.The current board can bring legal action against Bim for breaching his duties as a director. There are grounds for legal action. Bim's actions have caused financial loss to the company. Therefore, he has breached his duties as a director. The current board can sue Bim for the loss suffered by the company because of his actions.

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Which of the following is true about perfectly elastic product demand? Select all that apply: Elasticity equals zero. Elasticity is infinite. The demand curve is a vertical line. The demand curve is a horizontal line. Question 28 The price of widgets has decreased from $8 to $7, causing the quantity demanded to increase from 400 to 450 units. Use the midpoint method calculate the price elasticity of demand. Round to decimal places and use absolute values. Provide your answer below: Question 31 Suppose that price increased by 10% whereas quantity demanded fell by 12%. Demand is Select the correct answer below: elastic unitary elastic negative inelastic Question 34 Elasticity is an economics concept which measures Select the correct answer below: the slope of a curve. the responsiveness of one variable to changes in another variable. the range of a variable. none of the above. Question 35 If the cross-price elasticity is negative, then the goods are Select the correct answer below: substitutes complements normal Oinferior

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Perfectly elastic product demand is a situation where an increase or decrease in price will not cause a change in the quantity demanded by consumers.

Therefore, the demand curve for a perfectly elastic good is a horizontal line. The following are true about perfectly elastic product demand: Elasticity is infinite. The demand curve is a horizontal line.Price elasticity of demand is the percentage change in the quantity demanded of a good or service divided by the percentage change in the price of that good or service. The midpoint method can be used to calculate the price elasticity of demand.The price elasticity of demand can be calculated using the following formula:

Price elasticity of demand = (Change in quantity / Average quantity) / (Change in price / Average price)

In this case: Average quantity = (400 + 450) / 2 = 425 units

Average price = ($8 + $7) / 2 = $7.5 per unit

Change in quantity = 450 - 400 = 50 units

Change in price = $7 - $8 = -$1 per unit (note that this is a decrease, so it is negative)

Using these values in the formula, we get:

Price elasticity of demand = (50 / 425) / (-1 / 7.5)= -0.176 rounded to three decimal places

Since this value is negative, we ignore the negative sign and say that the price elasticity of demand for widgets is 0.176.

If the percentage change in the quantity demanded is greater than the percentage change in price, then demand is elastic. If the percentage change in the quantity demanded is less than the percentage change in price, then demand is inelastic. If the percentage change in the quantity demanded is exactly equal to the percentage change in price, then demand is unitary elastic.In this case, the price increased by 10%, whereas the quantity demanded fell by 12%. Since the percentage change in the quantity demanded is greater than the percentage change in price, demand is elastic.

Elasticity is an economics concept that measures the responsiveness of one variable to changes in another variable. It is typically measured as the percentage change in one variable divided by the percentage change in another variable. There are different types of elasticity measures, such as price elasticity of demand, income elasticity of demand, and cross-price elasticity of demand

Cross-price elasticity of demand measures the responsiveness of the quantity demanded of one good to changes in the price of another good. If the cross-price elasticity of demand is negative, then the goods are complements. If the cross-price elasticity of demand is positive, then the goods are substitutes. If the cross-price elasticity of demand is zero, then the goods are unrelated.

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A company has determined that the price and the monthly demand of one of its products are related by the equation D=√(400-p) where p is the price per unit in dollars and D is the monthly demand. The associated fixed costs are $1.470/month, and the variable costs are $99/unit Which of the following values of D represents the breakeven point? Choose the closest answer below. A. 24 B. 23 C. 11 D. 14

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To find the breakeven point, we need to determine the value of D (monthly demand) that results in zero profit, where profit is equal to zero when revenue equals total costs.

Given data:

Fixed costs: $1,470/month

Variable costs per unit: $99/unit

Demand equation: D = √(400 - p), where p is the price per unit in dollars

To calculate the revenue, we multiply the price per unit (p) by the monthly demand (D):

Revenue = p * D

The total costs consist of fixed costs plus variable costs:

Total Costs = Fixed Costs + (Variable Costs per unit * D)

At the breakeven point, the revenue is equal to the total costs:

p * D = Fixed Costs + (Variable Costs per unit * D)

Substituting the values of fixed costs and variable costs per unit:

p * D = $1,470 + ($99 * D)

Simplifying the equation:

p * D - $99 * D = $1,470

Factoring out D:

D * (p - $99) = $1,470

Solving for D:

D = $1,470 / (p - $99)

Now, let's find the breakeven point by substituting the values for D from the answer choices into the equation and solving for p.

A. D = 24

24 = $1,470 / (p - $99)

24 * (p - $99) = $1,470

24p - $2,376 = $1,470

24p = $1,470 + $2,376

24p = $3,846

p = $160.25

B. D = 23

23 = $1,470 / (p - $99)

23 * (p - $99) = $1,470

23p - $2,277 = $1,470

23p = $1,470 + $2,277

23p = $3,747

p = $162.91

C. D = 11

11 = $1,470 / (p - $99)

11 * (p - $99) = $1,470

11p - $1,089 = $1,470

11p = $1,470 + $1,089

11p = $2,559

p = $232.64

D. D = 14

14 = $1,470 / (p - $99)

14 * (p - $99) = $1,470

14p - $1,386 = $1,470

14p = $1,470 + $1,386

14p = $2,856

p = $203.71

From the given answer choices, the closest value to the breakeven point is D = 14, which corresponds to Option D.

The breakeven point occurs when the monthly demand (D) is approximately 14 units.

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Which decision making application involves multi-attributes?
Select one:
a. Unusual analysis
b. Regression analysis
c. Break-even analysis
d. Factor analysis

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The decision making application that involves multi-attributes is called factor analysis. The correct option is d. Factor analysis. What is factor analysis.Factor analysis is a statistical technique that reduces the number of variables in a dataset.

The variables are grouped based on their correlations, and each group is referred to as a "factor." This method is used in a variety of fields, including psychology, marketing, and business. It is especially useful when a researcher is trying to determine which variables are most important when making a decision that involves multiple attributes.What is a multi-attribute decision-making model?A multi-attribute decision-making model is a framework used to evaluate complex decisions. This model considers multiple factors or attributes, each with different weights. These weights reflect the relative importance of each attribute to the decision being made. The decision maker can use this model to compare different alternatives and determine which one is the best fit for their needs.

Example of a multi-attribute decision-making modelA marketing team wants to choose a new logo for their company. The team considers three options and evaluates them based on four attributes: color, simplicity, brand recognition, and uniqueness. The weights assigned to each attribute are as follows: color (30%), simplicity (25%), brand recognition (25%), and uniqueness (20%).The team uses a multi-attribute decision-making model to compare the three logos based on the four attributes. The logos are given scores between 1 and 5 for each attribute, with 5 being the highest score. The scores for each logo are then multiplied by the weights for each attribute to determine an overall score.The logo with the highest overall score is selected as the new logo for the company.

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One of those P's is Product. A company must carry out a customer-driven new product development pro w product List the eight major steps, of the new product development process, in sequence.

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The eight major steps of the new product development process, in sequence, are as follows:

1. Idea Generation: Generate a pool of ideas for potential new products through various sources such as customer feedback, market research, brainstorming sessions, and internal innovation.

2. Idea Screening: Evaluate the generated ideas to identify the most promising ones and eliminate those that do not align with the company's objectives, target market, or resources. This step helps filter out ideas that have low potential for success.

3. Concept Development and Testing: Develop detailed concepts for the selected ideas, including product features, benefits, and target market. Test these concepts with a sample group of potential customers to gather feedback and assess market acceptance.

4. Business Analysis: Conduct a thorough analysis of the potential profitability and feasibility of the new product. This includes evaluating costs, sales projections, market size, competition, and potential risks. The analysis helps make informed decisions about moving forward with the product development.

5. Product Development: Once the concept and business analysis are deemed viable, the actual product development process begins. This involves designing and engineering the product, creating prototypes, and conducting extensive testing to ensure functionality, quality, and safety.

6. Market Testing: Launch a small-scale market test to assess the product's performance, customer response, and acceptance. This step helps gather real-world data and feedback before a full-scale launch, allowing for necessary modifications or improvements.

7. Commercialization: If the market testing phase is successful, proceed with the full-scale launch and commercialization of the new product. This includes finalizing production, marketing and sales strategies, distribution channels, and setting pricing.

8. Evaluation and Continuous Improvement: Monitor and evaluate the performance of the newly launched product in the market. Gather customer feedback, track sales and market share, and make necessary adjustments or improvements to enhance the product's success.

These steps represent a general framework for the new product development process, and the specific implementation may vary depending on the industry, company, and product characteristics.

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From your theoretical knowledge on the concept about the reserve requirement policy of the Fed in bank deposit and money creation in bank's lending process, read the transcript in the url link below posted by the Federal Reserve on March 15, 2020. At the bottom of the transcript, the Fed announced the reserve requirement to zero for all bank deposits, a major departure from its years of unchanged policy on reserve requirement. https://www.federalreserve.gov/newsevents/pressreleases/monetary. Question26: What is the key reason for reducing the reserve requirement to zero% and its potential effect on macroeconomic fundamentals during this economic downturn caused by COVID-19 pandemic? O Answer 2: To encourage the banks and financial institutions to use this additional reserve and liquidity buffer to provide financial support to households and businesses who are affected by COVID-19 crisis. O Answer 3: To accelerate inflation to encourage business investments O Both Answer 1 and Answer 2 are correct statements O Answer 1: To maximize the liquidity in bank reserve so that financial institutions can continue to fuel the economy with massive lending to businesses, consumers, and local governments

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Option 1) To maximize the liquidity in bank reserve so that financial institutions can continue to fuel the economy with massive lending to businesses, consumers, and local governments is correct .

The key reason for reducing the reserve requirement to zero% and its potential effect on macroeconomic fundamentals during this economic downturn caused by COVID-19 pandemic is to maximize the liquidity in bank reserve so that financial institutions can continue to fuel the economy with massive lending to businesses, consumers, and local governments. reserve requirement policy is the share of the deposit that the bank is obliged to hold in reserve with the Fed, while the rest can be used for loans, purchases of securities, or other purposes.

Reserve requirements help to ensure that banks have enough liquidity to meet customer demands for cash withdrawals, especially in times of economic or financial stress, by limiting the amount of loan and investment banks can finance through their deposits. When the reserve requirement is reduced to zero, banks can now hold the entire amount of their deposits as excess reserves, which they can use for lending and investment, which leads to an increase in the money supply.

In other words, reserve requirements reduce the money creation capacity of banks, and their absence allows banks to create more money, resulting in increased economic activity. With zero reserve requirement policy, banks can make more loans available, encourage more lending to households, businesses, and local governments, and thus increase the liquidity in bank reserve, fueling the economy with massive lending to businesses, consumers, and local governments.

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Sheridan's Home Renovations was started in 2008 by Jim Sheridan. Jim operates the business from an office in his home. Listed below, in alphabetical order, are the company's assets and liabilities as at December 31, 2021, and the revenues, expenses, and drawings for the year ended December 31, 2021: Accounts payable $7,506 Operating expenses $3,569 Accounts receivable 10,126 Prepaid insurance 1,578 Cash 8,757 Salaries expense 88,164 Equipment 28,753 Service revenue 158.710 Insurance expense 3,217 Supplies 447 Interest expense 1,141 Supplies expense 20,721 J. Sheridan, drawings 44,172 Unearned revenue 15,486 Notes payable 30,741 Vehicles 41,300 Jim's capital at the beginning of 2021 was $39,502. He made no investments during the year.

Answers

The balance sheet shows the company's assets, liabilities, and owner's equity at the end of the year is  $90,961

To prepare a balance sheet for Sheridan's Home Renovations as of December 31, 2021, we need to classify the assets, liabilities, and owner's equity.

Assets:

- Accounts receivable: $10,126

- Cash: $8,757

- Prepaid insurance: $1,578

- Equipment: $28,753

- Supplies: $447

- Vehicles: $41,300

Liabilities:

- Accounts payable: $7,506

- Unearned revenue: $15,486

- Notes payable: $30,741

Owner's Equity:

- J. Sheridan, capital (beginning of 2021): $39,502

- Service revenue: $158,710

- Operating expenses: $3,569

- Salaries expense: $88,164

- Insurance expense: $3,217

- Supplies expense: $20,721

- Interest expense: $1,141

- J. Sheridan, drawings: $44,172

Now, we can prepare the balance sheet:

Sheridan's Home Renovations

Balance Sheet

As of December 31, 2021

Assets:

Cash                          $8,757

Accounts receivable    $10,126

Prepaid insurance       $1,578

Equipment                  $28,753

Supplies                      $447

Vehicles                     $41,300

Total Assets              $90,961

Liabilities:

Accounts payable        $7,506

Unearned revenue     $15,486

Notes payable            $30,741

Total Liabilities        $53,733

Owner's Equity:

J. Sheridan, capital (beginning of 2021)   $39,502

Add: Service revenue                            $158,710

Less: Operating expenses                        $3,569

Less: Salaries expense                            $88,164

Less: Insurance expense                          $3,217

Less: Supplies expense                          $20,721

Less: Interest expense                             $1,141

Less: J. Sheridan, drawings                    $44,172

Total Owner's Equity                           $38,548

Total Liabilities and Owner's Equity    $90,961

The balance sheet shows the company's assets, liabilities, and owner's equity at the end of the year. It indicates the financial position of Sheridan's Home Renovations as of December 31, 2021.

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Use X = 10,000,000 ST3. Capitol Industries has x million shares of stock outstanding. In an election for the board of directors, 80 percent of the shares are voted. The company has seven directors on its board, all of whom are elected annually. d. the company uses a majority rule voting procedure, how many ch are required to elect i. One director ii. Two directore A majority of the members of the board. b. If the company uses a cumulative voting procedure, how many shares are required to elect i. One director ii. Two directors iii. A majority of the members of the board Answer only part b above. Make sure answer all three parts of part b like this: Answer to b.i: (make sure to show your work) Answer to b.ii: (make sure to show your work) Answer to b.iii (make sure to show your work)

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Given,X = 10,000,000 ST3. Capitol Industries has x million shares of stock outstanding. In an election for the board of directors, 80 percent of the shares are voted.

The company has seven directors on its board, all of whom are elected annually.If the company uses a cumulative voting procedure, the number of shares required to elect a director, two directors, and a majority of the members of the board are calculated as follow

Shares required to elect one director in cumulative voting = (X / 7) * 0.80 = 1,142,857 Shares required to elect two directors in cumulative voting = (2 * X / 7) * 0.80 = 2,285,714 Shares required to elect a majority of the members of the board in cumulative voting = [(7/2) + 1] = 4 directors required=> Shares required = (4*X/7) * 0.80 = 4,571,428.

the number of shares required to elect a director, two directors, and a majority of the members of the board in cumulative voting is 1,142,857, 2,285,714, and 4,571,428, respectively.

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does trading take place only once a day at closing market prices in the case of: exchange traded funds? traditional mutual funds? a no no b no yes c yes no

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For Exchange-traded​ funds: No; For Traditional mutual​ funds: Yes. Thus, option B is the correct option.

In the case of exchange-traded funds (ETFs), trading takes place throughout the day, just like individual stocks. ETFs are traded on stock exchanges, and investors can buy or sell ETF shares at market prices during trading hours. The price of ETF shares can fluctuate throughout the day based on market demand and supply.

On the other hand, traditional mutual funds are typically traded only once a day at the closing market price. Mutual funds calculate their net asset value (NAV) at the end of each trading day based on the value of the underlying securities in the fund's portfolio. Investors can buy or sell mutual fund shares at the NAV price determined at the end of the trading day. This process is known as a "forward pricing" mechanism.

Thus, option B is the correct option.

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Woolworths’ Targets are to achieve a top quartile ranking in how the business engages fairly and equitably with its suppliers. How do supplier relations and the fairness in dealing with supplier relate to sustainability and ""doing good"" for society (and the company)?

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Supplier relations and fairness in dealing with suppliers are closely linked to sustainability and "doing good" for society and the company. By prioritizing strong supplier relationships and fair practices, Woolworths can contribute to sustainable supply chain management, ethical sourcing, and social responsibility.

Maintaining positive supplier relations and fairness in dealings with suppliers is crucial for sustainable business practices. When Woolworths engages fairly and equitably with its suppliers, it helps foster a collaborative and long-term partnership. This can lead to improved supplier performance, reduced supply chain risks, and increased supply chain transparency. By treating suppliers ethically, Woolworths can ensure that its supply chain practices align with social and environmental standards, promoting sustainability.

Fairness in dealing with suppliers also supports the concept of "doing good" for society. Ethical sourcing practices, such as fair wages, safe working conditions, and responsible sourcing of materials, contribute to the well-being of workers and communities involved in the supply chain. By prioritizing fairness, Woolworths can positively impact the livelihoods of suppliers and their employees, promoting social equity and contributing to the broader welfare of society.

Moreover, upholding fairness and strong supplier relations can benefit the company itself. By fostering trust and cooperation with suppliers, Woolworths can gain access to high-quality products, innovative solutions, and reliable supply chains. This can lead to increased customer satisfaction, improved brand reputation, and enhanced competitiveness in the market. Additionally, fair and sustainable supplier practices can mitigate reputational risks and ensure long-term business viability.

Overall, supplier relations and fairness in dealing with suppliers play a vital role in promoting sustainability and "doing good" for both society and the company. By prioritizing ethical and equitable practices, Woolworths can contribute to a more sustainable supply chain, support social well-being, and enhance its own business performance and reputation.

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Use the information below to calculate the times interest earned ratio (TIE)
operating (loss) income = (3,870,334)
interest income= 16,773
interest expense= (1,291,753)
a. 3.04
b. (3.04)
c. not enough information
d. no answers are correct

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The best option is option B .The Times Interest Earned (TIE) Ratio is a financial measurement used to determine a company's ability to fulfill its interest payment obligations using its current income. The times interest earned ratio calculation requires the use of a company's income statement to compute how much revenue it generates relative to the interest it pays on debts.

Formula to calculate Times Interest Earned Ratio:
Times Interest Earned Ratio = (Operating Income + Interest Expense + Income Tax Expense) / Interest Expense
Where operating income represents revenue minus operating costs. Income tax expense is the amount of tax due on the company's taxable income. Interest expense is the amount of interest owed to creditors for outstanding loans.
As per the given data, Operating (loss) Income = (3,870,334), Interest Income = 16,773, Interest Expense = (1,291,753)
To calculate the Times Interest Earned Ratio, we will use the formula above.
TIE Ratio = (Operating Income + Interest Expense) / Interest Expense
TIE Ratio = [(-3,870,334) + 16,773] / 1,291,753
TIE Ratio = (-3,853,561) / 1,291,753
TIE Ratio = -2.98
Therefore, the answer is (b) (-3.04) which indicates the company is generating less than one dollar of operating income for every dollar of interest expense. It is not able to cover its interest expenses and, therefore, may be at risk of defaulting on its loans.

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5.True or False? A multispecialty group has many satellite locations. As the market changes in population distribution, the group decides to close some clinic locations. This strategy is referred to as retrenchment.
4. true or False? Specialty hospitals can be said to follow a niche strategy.
6.True or False? A market penetration strategy can occur through a more aggressive pricing strategy or distribution strategy than a competitor.

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False. A multispecialty group may have multiple specialties within a single location, but it does not necessarily mean it has many satellite locations. The number of locations can vary based on the group's structure and business model.

True. Specialty hospitals typically focus on specific medical areas or procedures, catering to a niche market segment. They provide specialized services and have a narrower scope compared to general hospitals, making them an example of a niche strategy.

True. A market penetration strategy involves increasing market share by capturing a larger portion of existing customers or attracting new customers through more aggressive pricing or distribution strategies.

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You have been asked to analyze the Value Net of the craft brewing and distilling industries in your state, and you have observed close relationships between those artisanal industries and local hospitality businesses (such as restaurants and lodging facilities) in the region under study. Those local hospitality businesses can be said to be Multiple Choice cohabitors. competitors. o cooperators. complementors. customers.

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Option (c) cooperators. In analyzing the Value Net of the craft brewing and distilling industries in your state, you can observe that there are close relationships between those artisanal industries and local hospitality businesses (such as restaurants and lodging facilities) in the region under study.

Those local hospitality businesses can be said to be cooperators.

In business, cooperator refers to a player who operates in the same domain as the primary company, and whose goods or services complement those of the primary company. Cooperators collaborate with the focal company to reduce costs, enhance product quality, or increase consumer demand. A good example of cooperators in the case above is the craft brewing and distilling industries, which collaborate with local hospitality businesses to increase consumer demand and make the products more readily available to consumers.

In conclusion, local hospitality businesses that work with the craft brewing and distilling industries can be said to be cooperators.

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Identify and provide a detailed explanation of four tools used in digital business management.

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Answer:

Explanation:

1. Customer Relationship Management (CRM) Systems: These tools help businesses manage and enhance customer relationships by tracking interactions, storing customer data, and enabling personalized marketing and efficient customer support.

2. Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) Systems: These tools integrate various business functions, such as finance, inventory, and HR, into a centralized platform for streamlined operations and improved efficiency.

3. Analytics and Business Intelligence Tools: These tools analyze data to provide insights and support data-driven decision making helping businesses understand customer behavior, optimize operations, and identify growth opportunities.

4. Project Management Software: These tools help plan, organize, and track projects, facilitating collaboration, task management, and efficient project execution ultimately improving productivity and meeting business objectives.

Digital business management is a strategic approach to manage business activities to adapt to digital transformation. The tools used in digital business management are instrumental in managing business processes, allowing organizations to be competitive.

The following are four tools used in digital business management:

CRM - Customer Relationship Management Customer Relationship Management (CRM) is a tool used in digital business management to manage customer interactions throughout the customer journey. It involves the collection, analysis, and reporting of customer data to enable businesses to create effective marketing campaigns and provide excellent customer service. CRM also enhances customer satisfaction, retention, and loyalty. Digital Marketing Digital marketing is a tool used in digital business management to create brand awareness and promote products and services through online channels. The tool utilizes online channels such as email, social media, websites, and mobile apps to reach customers and create a lasting relationship. Digital marketing provides companies with a platform to analyze customer data and create personalized campaigns to increase sales and customer satisfaction.

E-Commerce is a tool used in digital business management to facilitate online transactions between businesses and customers. E-commerce is essential in digital business management since it allows businesses to reach customers globally, regardless of location or time. E-commerce also eliminates the need for brick-and-mortar stores, reducing operational costs and increasing profitability.

Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP)

Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) is a tool used in digital business management to integrate business processes and manage company resources. ERP allows businesses to streamline business processes by integrating departments such as human resources, supply chain management, finance, and customer service. This tool provides real-time data on business operations, enabling businesses to make data-driven decisions that improve productivity, efficiency, and profitability.

In conclusion, these four tools used in digital business management are essential in managing digital business processes, improving customer experience, and increasing profitability. They provide businesses with a platform to manage customer relationships, analyze customer data, streamline business processes, and improve customer satisfaction.

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Choose a Lebanese Company, and answer the following questions:

Question 1: Who are their customers?

Question 2: How do customers find this company?

Question 3: What makes the company better than the competitors?

Question 4: What makes the company unique?

Question 5: Define Unique Selling Proposition

Question 6: What’s next? (Ask yourself if every marketing effort highlights the USP. If it doesn’t, don’t do it. Or change your messaging until it does.)

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For the purpose of this response, let's choose "ABC Electronics" as the Lebanese company.

Question 1: ABC Electronics primarily serves individual consumers, businesses, and institutions in Lebanon and potentially international markets.

Question 2: Customers can find ABC Electronics through various channels, including their physical stores, online platforms, social media presence, advertisements, word-of-mouth referrals, and search engine results.

Question 3: ABC Electronics differentiates itself from competitors by offering a wide range of high-quality electronic products, excellent customer service, competitive pricing, and a commitment to staying up-to-date with the latest technological advancements.

Question 4: ABC Electronics sets itself apart by providing personalized solutions tailored to meet the specific needs of their customers. They prioritize building long-term relationships, offering after-sales support, and fostering a sense of trust and reliability.

Question 5: A Unique Selling Proposition (USP) is a distinctive feature or benefit that sets a company, product, or service apart from its competitors, making it compelling and attractive to customers. It highlights the unique value or advantage that the offering provides.

Question 6: To ensure effective marketing, ABC Electronics should ensure that their USP is prominently highlighted in all their marketing efforts. By consistently emphasizing their unique strengths, they can communicate their value proposition to customers, differentiate themselves from competitors, and capture the attention and interest of their target audience. It's crucial to align all messaging, branding, and promotional activities with their USP to create a cohesive and compelling marketing strategy.

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A. Think about the ideal job you would like to obtain upon graduation from this program. Describe this job, the kind of manager you would like to report to, and the kind of organization you would be working in. Then answer the following questions (LM 5).

Describe you levels of expectancy and instrumentality for this job. Which outcomes would have high valence for you on this job? What steps would your manager take to influence your levels of expectancy, instrumentality, and valence?
Whom would you choose as a referent on this job? What steps should your manager take to make you feel that you were being equitably treated? What would you do if, after a year on the job, you experience underpayment inequity?
What goals would you strive to achieve on this job? Why? What role would your manager play in determining your goals?
What needs would you strive to satisfy on this job? Why? What role would your manager play in helping you satisfy these needs?
What behaviors would your manager positively reinforce on this job? Why? What positive reinforcers would your manager use?
Would there be any vicarious learning on this job? Why or why not?
What would be your level of self-efficacy on this job? Why would your self-efficacy be at this level? Should your manager take steps to boost your self-efficacy? If not, why not? If yes, what would these steps be?

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The above prompt has to do with Job and or Career expectations. See Reponses below.

Job/Organizational Expectations

The level of expectations are described as follows

Ideal Job -  Data Scientist in a tech company

Manager -  Supportive and knowledgeable, promotes growth and learning

Organization -  Innovative and collaborative tech company

Levels of Expectancy -  High, as I have the necessary skills and knowledge

Levels of Instrumentality -  High, as I believe my efforts will lead to desired outcomes

High Valence Outcomes -  Challenging projects, opportunities for growth, recognition, competitive salary

Manager's Influence -  Provide clear goals, feedback, and resources; offer growth opportunities and recognition; align rewards with performance

Referent -  A senior data scientist or a successful colleague

Equitable Treatment -  Fair compensation and benefits; transparent decision-making; regular communication and feedback

Underpayment Inequity -  Discuss the issue with the manager and explore potential solutions, such as a salary adjustment or additional benefits

Goals -  Develop advanced analytical skills, contribute to innovative projects, and achieve career advancement

Manager's Role -  Set challenging yet attainable goals, provide guidance and support, offer feedback and recognition

Needs -  Intellectual stimulation, growth opportunities, work-life balance, social connection

Manager's Role -  Provide challenging projects, training and development opportunities, promote work-life balance, foster a positive work environment

Positive Reinforcement -  Recognition for exceptional performance, opportunities for advancement and skill development

Positive Reinforcers -  Praise, promotions, bonuses, increased responsibilities

Vicarious Learning -  Yes, through collaboration, sharing best practices, and knowledge transfer among colleagues

Level of Self-Efficacy -  Moderate to high, based on my skills, knowledge, and past successes

Manager's Role -  Provide constructive feedback, assign appropriate tasks, offer support and mentorship

Boosting Self-Efficacy -  Provide challenging yet achievable tasks, offer encouragement and support, provide opportunities for skill-building and growth

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8. DETAILS BRECMBC9 4.1. TB.011. Robb makes several purchases totaling $58.85. How would he write the word form of this amount on a check? 85 fifty-eight and 100 fifty-eight dollars and eighty-five cents fifty-eight and eighty-five cents 85 nifty-eight dollars and 100 Need Help? Rosdt

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Robb would write the word form of the amount $58.85 on a check as "fifty-eight dollars and eighty-five cents."

When writing the word form of an amount on a check, it is important to accurately express both the dollar and cents portions of the amount. In the given scenario, Robb's total purchase amount is $58.85. To write this amount in word form on a check, we can break it down as follows:

The dollar portion is $58, which can be written as "fifty-eight dollars." This represents the whole number part of the amount. The cents portion is 85 cents. To express this in word form, we say "eighty-five cents." This represents the fractional part of the amount.

By combining these two parts, we can write the word form of the amount as "fifty-eight dollars and eighty-five cents." This accurately represents the total amount that Robb wants to pay through his check. Writing the amount in words provides clarity and avoids any potential confusion or misinterpretation when the check is being processed by the recipient or the bank. It ensures that the exact amount is understood and correctly recorded.

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A business wishes to hire a legal firm to provide some legal services. The marginal benefit to the business from the legal services is MB = 210 - q, where q is the quantity provided. The marginal cost to the legal firm is MC = 2q. The issue is that is difficult to contract on the quantity of legal services provided. The business can spend $100 on monitoring and the legal firm can spend $100 on a recording its efforts. Even with these expenditures, a court cannot distinguish the difference between a q- 60 and the efficient level of q. In this case, what is the total agency cost?

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If the business spends $200 or less on monitoring and recording cost, there won't be any agency cost. Answer: Total agency cost = $0.

An agency cost is a cost that arises from the failure of an agent to perform according to the agreement with the principal. Agency cost arises because of a conflict of interest between shareholders and managers of a business. In the case where it is difficult to contract the quantity of legal services provided and a court cannot distinguish the difference between q - 60 and the efficient level of q, A business that wishes to hire a legal firm to provide some legal services.

The marginal benefit to the business from the legal services is MB = 210 - q, where q is the quantity provided.

The marginal cost to the legal firm is MC = 2q.

Total agency cost can be determined by the summation of both the monitoring and the recording cost as follows:$100 + $100 = $200

Agency cost occurs when the business spends more than the efficient level of q. The efficient level of q can be calculated by equating the marginal cost to the marginal benefit.

That is, MC = MB2q = 210 - qq = 105

Therefore, the efficient level of q is 105.

Thus, if the business spends more than $200, agency cost will arise. The total agency cost can be calculated as the total cost minus the efficient cost.

Thus, Total agency cost = Total cost - Efficient cost The total cost of hiring a legal firm is given as,

Total cost = (MC x q) + monitoring cost + recording cost Substituting the efficient level of q into the equation above, we get;

Total cost = (2 x 105) + $100 + $100

Total cost = $410Hence, the total agency cost will be;

Total agency cost = $410 - ($200 + (2 x 105))Total agency cost = $410 - $410Total agency cost = $0

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In 2018, consumers bought 200,000 laptops at a price of $1,000. In 2019, consumers demand more than 200,000 at a price of $1,000. Which of the following causes would not lead to this effect? a.An increase in population

b.A decrease in the price of games on Steam, which are complements to laptops

c.A recession ends and consumer income increases.

d.Improvements in technology which lower laptop production costs

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The answer that would not lead to the effect described in the scenario is b) a decrease in the price of games on Steam, which are complements to laptops.What is a complement?Complementary goods are products that are commonly used together.

They're frequently used as a way to make the primary product more attractive or functional. For example, if someone buys a laptop, they may also need a laptop bag, which is a complementary product.Let's take a look at each alternative to determine which cause will not result in the effect observed in the scenario.a) An increase in population: This will result in more people buying laptops, which will cause demand to rise. This cause is likely to lead to the effect observed in the scenario.b) A decrease in the price of games on Steam, which are complements to laptops: The decrease in price of complements to laptops will lead to a decrease in the demand for laptops. This cause will not lead to the effect observed in the scenario.c) A recession ends, and consumer income increases: This will cause consumers to have more money to spend, which may lead to an increase in demand for laptops. This cause is likely to lead to the effect observed in the scenario.d) Improvements in technology which lower laptop production costs: If production costs decrease, then the price of laptops will likely decrease, causing an increase in demand. This cause is likely to lead to the effect observed in the scenario.

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Maria works for a restaurant as a waitress. The following illustrates Maria's employment rent. If Maria loses her job, her government provides an unemployment benefit for up to 20 weeks. ➜ Hourly wage = $12 Unemployment benefit plus the disutility of effort-$8 Unemployment benefit - $6 0 what Maria gets should she not lose her job today =what Maria gets should she lose her job today >>> Maria's rent when employed Disutility of effort when employed What Maria receives in unemployment benefit during her period of unemployment 0 Number of 35-hour weeks Which of the following statements correctly explains the diagram above? O a. Maria's employment rent will be higher if the unemployment benefit is higher. O b. Maria's employment rent will be reduced in the situation where the Hourly wages (S) Employment rent per hour Reservation wage per hour Expected duration of unemployment 4 weeks Which of the following statements correctly explains the diagram above? O a. Maria's employment rent will be higher if the unemployment benefit is higher. O b. Maria's employment rent will be reduced in the situation where the unemployment rate is higher. O c. Maria is not enjoying any employment rent because she is able to find a new job in four weeks. O d. Maria's total unemployment rent is $24. Oe. This model does not account for certain costs involved in employment such as commuting costs.

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Option B is the correct answer. Maria's employment rent will be reduced in the situation where the unemployment rate is higher. The diagram above illustrates a hypothetical employment rent function that relates the expected unemployment duration and reservation wage to the employment rent per hour.

Maria's rent when employed is $6, and the disutility of effort when employed is $8, which means she would earn $12 per hour. She would earn $12 per hour, and if she were to lose her job today, she would get an unemployment benefit of $6. This suggests that Maria's hourly wage is lower when she is not employed. Furthermore, her rent will decrease if the unemployment rate rises, indicating that the supply of workers seeking employment is higher. Maria is not enjoying any employment rent because she can find a new job in four weeks.

This statement is incorrect since Maria's rent when employed is $6 per hour, and she is only entitled to an unemployment benefit of $6 per hour if she loses her job today. Furthermore, the diagram does not account for commuting costs, among other costs associated with employment. Maria's total unemployment rent is $24, this statement is also incorrect since the diagram only displays Maria's expected unemployment rent per hour, not her total unemployment rent. Therefore, we can conclude that option B is the correct answer: Maria's employment rent will be reduced in the situation where the unemployment rate is higher.

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BE12-9 and K. Carter $22.000. The partners share income equally. On June 9 of the current year, D. Dutton (SO In ABC Co., the capital balances of the partners are A. Ali $30,000. S. Babson $25,000; Rece is admitted to the partnership by purchasing one-half of K. Carter's interest for $13,000. (a) Jour nalize the admission of Dutton on June 9. (b) How would the entry change if Dutton paid $10,000 instead of $13,000 to be admitted to the partnership? nn.

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(a) The journal entry to record the admission of D. Dutton to the partnership on June 9 is as follows:

In the books of accounts of the company, D. Dutton is introduced by buying one-half of K. Carter's interest for $13,000. K. Carter's interest balance is $22,000, and he is sharing income equally with the other partners. Since D. Dutton is acquiring a 50% stake in the company, the buyout price is $13,000.The entry to record D. Dutton's entry on June 9 is:Partnership Equity will rise by $12,500 as a result of this entry.

(b) If Dutton paid $10,000 instead of $13,000 to be admitted to the partnership, then the entry to record his admission would change. The new entry will be as follows:

If Dutton paid $10,000 instead of $13,000 to be admitted to the partnership, he would only acquire 5/11 of K. Carter's interest, not 6/11. K. Carter's balance is $22,000, and he shares income equally with other partners. As a result, Dutton's investment would be $10,000/(5/11) = $22,000, and he would be entitled to 5/11 of the profits and losses of the firm.The journal entry to record this entry will be as follows:This will increase the balance in Partnership Equity by $9,000.

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Consider a research study you might conduct. What is the role of gatekeepers?

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In the context of research studies, gatekeepers refer to individuals or entities that control access to potential research participants or data sources.

They act as intermediaries between the researcher and the target population or data.

The role of gatekeepers can vary depending on the nature of the study and the specific context. Some common examples of gatekeepers include:

1. Institutional Review Boards (IRBs): In many research settings, IRBs act as gatekeepers by reviewing and approving research proposals to ensure ethical considerations and participant protection. They ensure that the study meets certain ethical standards before granting access to participants.

2. Organizational authorities: Gatekeepers can be individuals or groups within organizations, such as managers, department heads, or administrators, who control access to employees or specific data sources. They may evaluate research requests, assess the potential benefits and risks, and grant or deny access accordingly.

3. Community leaders or representatives: In community-based research, gatekeepers can be community leaders, tribal authorities, or representatives who protect the interests of their community members. They may have the authority to grant or deny access to the community for research purposes and ensure that studies align with community values and priorities.

The role of gatekeepers is to ensure the integrity of the research process, protect the rights and well-being of participants or data sources, and maintain compliance with relevant regulations and policies. They help researchers establish relationships, gain trust, and navigate access to the desired population or data, thereby facilitating the smooth execution of the research study.

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use commercial bank and federal reserve bank balance sheets to demonstrate the immediate effect of each of the following transactions on commercial bank reserves. assume the initial reserve ratio is 20 percent. fill in the appropriate columns of the balance sheets below for each of the following transactions. consider each transaction separately, not cumulatively.
a. federal reserve banks purchase $2 billion worth of securities from banks.
b. commercial banks borrow $1 billion from federal reserve banks at the discount rate.
c. the fed reduces the reserve ratio from 20 percent to 19 percent.

instructions: enter your answers as a whole number. place your answers in the gray-shaded cells using both tables below.

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A balance sheet is a financial statement that provides a snapshot of a company's financial position at a specific point in time. It presents the company's assets, liabilities, and shareholders' equity. The balance sheet follows the fundamental accounting equation, which states that assets must equal liabilities plus equity.

The balance sheet is divided into two main sections:

1. Assets: This section lists all the resources owned or controlled by the company, which can be categorized into current assets (expected to be converted into cash or used within one year) and non-current assets (expected to be used for more than one year). Examples of assets include cash, accounts receivable, inventory, property, and equipment.

2. Liabilities and Shareholders' Equity: This section lists the company's obligations and the shareholders' claims on the company's assets. It can be divided into current liabilities (obligations due within one year) and long-term liabilities (obligations due beyond one year). Shareholders' equity represents the residual interest in the company's assets after deducting liabilities and consists of contributed capital and retained earnings.

To demonstrate the immediate effect of each transaction on commercial bank reserves, we will fill in the appropriate columns of the balance sheets for each transaction. Let's start with the initial balance sheets of the Commercial Bank and the Federal Reserve Bank:

Initial Balance Sheet - Commercial Bank

Assets                                                          Liabilities and Capital

Reserves:                                                                 ???

Securities:                                                                 ???

---------------------------------------------------------- --------------------------------------

Initial Balance Sheet - Federal Reserve Bank

Assets                                                          Liabilities and Capital

Securities:                                                                   ???

---------------------------------------------------------- --------------------------------------

a. Federal Reserve Banks purchase $2 billion worth of securities from banks.

Transaction a - Balance Sheet Update

Assets                                                          Liabilities and Capital

Reserves:                                                                   ???

Securities:                                                                   ???

---------------------------------------------------------- --------------------------------------

Initial Balance Sheet - Federal Reserve Bank

Assets                                                             Liabilities and Capital

Securities:                                                                   ???

---------------------------------------------------------- --------------------------------------

b. Commercial banks borrow $1 billion from Federal Reserve Banks at the discount rate.

Transaction b - Balance Sheet Update

Assets                                                           Liabilities and Capital

Reserves:                                                                 ???

Securities:                                                                 ???

---------------------------------------------------------- --------------------------------------

Initial Balance Sheet - Federal Reserve Bank

Assets                                                             Liabilities and Capital

Securities:                                                                 ???

---------------------------------------------------------- --------------------------------------

c. The Fed reduces the reserve ratio from 20 percent to 19 percent.

Transaction c - Balance Sheet Update

Assets                                                               Liabilities and Capital

Reserves:                                                                    ???

Securities:                                                                    ???

---------------------------------------------------------- --------------------------------------

Initial Balance Sheet - Federal Reserve Bank

Assets                                                                Liabilities and Capital

Securities:                                                                    ???

---------------------------------------------------------- --------------------------------------

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Define what is meant by the term "insider trading". Using examples published in online news sources since 2021, describe the problems that can arise from insider trading. Describe TWO (2) strategies managers can implement to avoid insider trading by their employees.

Answers

Insider trading refers to the illegal practice of trading stocks or other securities based on non-public, material information about a company. It involves individuals with access to privileged information using it for personal gain or providing it to others for trading purposes.

Problems arising from insider trading include unfair market advantage, erosion of investor confidence, and potential legal consequences. To prevent insider trading, managers can implement strategies such as educating employees about insider trading laws and consequences, establishing clear guidelines and policies, monitoring trading activities, and maintaining strict control over sensitive information. Additionally, implementing strong internal controls, such as pre-clearance requirements and restricted trading windows, can help minimize the risk of insider trading.

Insider trading refers to the illegal practice of buying or selling stocks or other securities based on material non-public information about a company. For instance, if a corporate executive trades company shares based on confidential knowledge of an upcoming merger, it would be considered insider trading. Problems arising from insider trading include unfair advantages for those with privileged information, which undermines the integrity of financial markets and erodes investor confidence. Additionally, insider trading is illegal in most jurisdictions, and individuals caught engaging in it can face severe fines, criminal charges, and reputational damage. To prevent insider trading, managers can educate employees about insider trading laws, establish clear policies, monitor trading activities, and enforce strict controls over sensitive information. Implementing measures like pre-clearance requirements and restricted trading windows can help mitigate the risk of insider trading by employees.

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