70 points easy!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!! (2 questions

70 Points Easy!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!! (2 Questions
70 Points Easy!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!! (2 Questions

Answers

Answer 1

For the following base sequences:

The set of bases in Molecule 2 that will bond to this sequence in a complementary way is C, UAGTGU.The statement that best explains the overall function of Molecule 2 is A, It contains the instructions for building proteins.

How to determine base sequence?

1. The bases in DNA are complementary to each other, which means that adenine (A) always pairs with thymine (T), and guanine (G) always pairs with cytosine (C).

The sequence of bases in Molecule 1 is GTACAG. The complementary sequence of bases in Molecule 2 is UAGTGU.

Therefore, the answer is UAGTGU.

2. Molecule 2 is DNA, which stands for deoxyribonucleic acid. DNA is a molecule that contains the instructions for building proteins. Proteins are essential for life, and they perform a variety of functions in the body, such as building and repairing tissues, fighting disease, and transporting nutrients.

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Related Questions

Genetic drift often occurs along with the bottleneck effect. What is genetic drift? Well, it is a change in the frequency of an allele in a population. Here is an example of genetic drift, and how a population bottleneck can lead to it. First, you need to know that the disease sickle cell anemia is caused by a mutant allele of a single gene. For someone to get sickle cell anemia, they need to inherit that allele from both parents. Now, imagine an isolated population in which fifty people have sickle cell anemia, thirty people are carriers of the disease (meaning that they have one disease-causing allele and one regular one) and twenty people who do not have sickle cell anemia nor are they carriers of it. One day, a tremendous tidal wave hits the population and half of the people die. Now, just ten people have sickle cell anemia, twenty two people are carriers of it, and eighteen do not have nor carry it. You can see how genetic drift has caused the predominant allele, which causes sickle cell anemia, to become less present in the population due to the bottleneck effect.

Answers

Genetic drift is random allele frequency change caused by chance events, like a population bottleneck.

What is genetic drift?

Genetic drift refers to the random fluctuations in the frequency of alleles in a population over successive generations. It occurs due to chance events rather than natural selection. The bottleneck effect is one such event that can lead to genetic drift.

In the given example, an isolated population is affected by a tremendous tidal wave, resulting in the death of half the population. Before the event, the population consisted of fifty individuals with sickle cell anemia, thirty carriers of the disease, and twenty individuals without the disease or being carriers.

However, after the bottleneck event, only ten individuals have sickle cell anemia, twenty-two are carriers, and eighteen individuals neither have the disease nor carry it.

The reduction in population size due to the tidal wave represents a bottleneck event. During this event, certain alleles may be disproportionately lost or overrepresented due to random chance, rather than natural selection. In this case, the allele responsible for sickle cell anemia becomes less prevalent in the population as a result of the genetic drift caused by the bottleneck effect.

Genetic drift can have various effects on populations. In small populations, it can lead to the loss of certain alleles, which can reduce genetic diversity.

It can also result in the fixation of alleles, meaning that an allele becomes the only variant present in the population. Both scenarios can impact the long-term survival and adaptability of a population.

It's worth noting that genetic drift is more pronounced in small populations because chance events can have a greater impact on allele frequencies. Additionally, genetic drift is one of the mechanisms driving evolution alongside natural selection, mutation, and gene flow.

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how does binding of gtp to a gtp-binding protein affect its activity? choose one: a. could activate or inactivate the protein b. always activates the protein c. does not affect the protein d. always inactivates the protein

Answers

The binding of GTP (guanosine triphosphate) to a GTP-binding protein can affect its activity. The correct answer is:

a. It could activate or inactivate the protein.

When GTP binds to a GTP-binding protein (also known as a G-protein), it can lead to the activation or inactivation of the protein, depending on the specific G-protein and cellular context.

In the G-protein cycle, GTP is bound to the G-protein in its active state. This GTP-bound form allows the G-protein to interact with downstream effector molecules and initiate cellular signaling pathways. In this activated state, the G-protein transmits signals and carries out its functions.

However, GTP can be hydrolyzed to GDP (guanosine diphosphate) by the intrinsic GTPase activity of the G-protein. This hydrolysis of GTP to GDP leads to the inactivation of the G-protein, reducing its signaling capacity.

Therefore, the binding of GTP to a GTP-binding protein can activate the protein by enabling it to interact with effector molecules, but it can also lead to subsequent hydrolysis of GTP and inactivation of the protein. The ultimate outcome depends on the specific G-protein and the regulatory mechanisms involved in the cellular signaling pathway.

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which statement is false?human beings are bipedal and have paired extremities.the human skeleton consists of 306 bones.the body of every person is composed of the same materials commonly found in the earth.

Answers

The statement that is false is that the human skeleton consists of 306 bones option B is correct.

The human skeleton is composed of 206 bones, not 306. This includes the bones in the axial skeleton (skull, vertebral column, and rib cage) and the appendicular skeleton (limbs and girdles). The axial skeleton provides support and protection for vital organs, while the appendicular skeleton allows for movement and mobility.

Human beings are indeed bipedal, meaning they walk on two legs, and they have paired extremities such as arms and legs. The body of every person is composed of elements commonly found on Earth, including oxygen, carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, and various minerals. These elements make up the molecules and compounds found in the human body, such as water, proteins, and carbohydrates, option B is correct.

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The complete question is:

Which statement is false?

A. human beings are bipedal and have paired extremities

B. the human skeleton consists of 306 bones

C. the body of every person is composed of the same materials commonly found on the earth.

unlike dna synthesis, rna synthesis requires ______________.

Answers

Answer:

RNA synthesis requires transcription bubbles direct RNA polymerase to the initiation site.

Explanation:consensus sequences DNA sequences that are deduced by comparing many related DNA sequences are called Unlike DNA synthesis, RNA synthesis requires transcription bubbles direct RNA polymerase to the initiation site.

Unlike DNA synthesis, RNA synthesis requires only a single-stranded RNA molecule to be synthesized.

DNA synthesis is a process of replicating or copying DNA molecules to produce an exact replica of the original DNA molecule. RNA synthesis is the process of synthesizing RNA molecules from DNA templates during the transcription process. Below is a detailed explanation of RNA synthesis: RNA synthesis is the process of synthesizing RNA molecules from DNA templates during the transcription process.

It is different from DNA synthesis in that it only requires a single-stranded RNA molecule to be synthesized. RNA synthesis begins with the process of transcription, which is the process of synthesizing RNA molecules from DNA templates.During transcription, the DNA strand is first separated into two strands by helicase enzyme.

The RNA polymerase enzyme then binds to the promoter region of the DNA template strand, which is a specific sequence of nucleotides that signals the start of transcription. The RNA polymerase enzyme then reads the DNA template strand in the 3'-5' direction and synthesizes a complementary RNA strand in the 5'-3' direction.

The RNA polymerase enzyme adds nucleotides to the growing RNA strand, which forms base pairs with the DNA template strand through hydrogen bonds. Once the RNA polymerase enzyme reaches the end of the DNA template strand, it then releases the newly synthesized RNA molecule, and the DNA strands re-anneal to form a double helix.

Finally, the RNA molecule is further processed and modified before it is transported to the cytoplasm for translation. RNA synthesis is essential for the synthesis of proteins and regulation of gene expression in cells.

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What is totalitarianism?

A. total social support including
health and old-age pensions.

B.government that controls
nearly all aspects of people's
lives

C.strong, parliamentary system
of government

D.socialistic government

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

B. government that controls nearly all aspects of people's lives.


Totalitarianism refers to a form of government characterized by centralized and authoritarian control, where the ruling party or individual exercises extensive power and control over all aspects of people's lives, including political, social, economic, and cultural spheres.


In a totalitarian regime, individual freedoms and civil liberties are often severely restricted, dissent is suppressed, and the government maintains a high level of surveillance and control over its citizens.


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tom's blood type is ab positive. what does this mean? tom's blood type is ab positive. what does this mean? he can only receive blood from a donor who is ab positive his blood lacks the rh factor there are no antibodies to a, to b, or to rh antigens in the plasma antibodies to a and b are present in the plasma

Answers

Tom's blood type being AB-positive means that there are no antibodies to A or B antigens, nor to Rh antigens, in his plasma, option C is correct.

Blood types are determined by the presence or absence of certain antigens on the surface of red blood cells. The AB-positive blood type indicates that Tom has both A and B antigens on his red blood cells, and he also has the Rh factor antigen. Since Tom has both A and B antigens, his plasma does not contain antibodies against these antigens.

Additionally, his plasma lacks antibodies against the Rh antigen. As a result, Tom can receive blood from donors with any blood type, making him a universal recipient. However, he can only donate blood to individuals with AB-positive blood type since they are the only ones who can receive his blood safely, option C is correct.

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The complete question is:

Tom's blood type is AB positive. What does this mean?

A. antibodies to A and B are present in the plasma

B. he can only receive blood from a donor who is AB positive

C. there are no antibodies to A to B or to Rh antigens in the plasma

D. his blood lacks the Rh factor

describe the structure (gross and histological) and function of the three types of muscle tissue.

Answers

Skeletal, cardiac, and smooth muscles are the three types of muscle tissue found in the human body. Each type has a distinct structure and function. Skeletal muscle is responsible for voluntary movements and is characterized by its striated appearance under a microscope. Cardiac muscle is found in the heart and is responsible for involuntary contractions.

It also possesses a striated appearance and has intercalated discs that allow for coordinated contractions. Smooth muscle, found in the walls of organs, blood vessels, and other structures, is non-striated and responsible for involuntary movements like peristalsis.Skeletal muscle is composed of long, multinucleated fibers that are arranged in a parallel fashion and contain striations due to the arrangement of actin and myosin filaments.

These muscles are under voluntary control and enable movements of the skeleton. Skeletal, cardiac, and smooth muscles are the three types of muscle tissue found in the human body. Each type has a distinct structure and function. Skeletal muscle is responsible for voluntary movements and is characterized by its striated appearance under a microscope. Cardiac muscle is found in the heart and is responsible for involuntary contractions. It also possesses a striated appearance and has intercalated discs that allow for coordinated contractions.  Cardiac muscle is made up of branching, striated fibers connected by intercalated discs. It contracts rhythmically and involuntarily to pump blood throughout the body. Smooth muscle consists of spindle-shaped cells without striations. It contracts slowly and involuntarily, facilitating various functions like digestion and regulation of blood vessel diameter.Understanding the structure and function of different muscle  muscle is made up of branching, striated fibers connected by intercalated discs. It contracts rhythmically and involuntarily to pump blood throughout the body. Smooth muscle consists of spindle-shaped cells without striations. It contracts slowly and involuntarily, facilitating various functions like digestion and regulation of blood vessel diameter.Understanding the structure and function of different muscle tissue types is important as it allows us to comprehend their specific roles in the body. Skeletal muscles enable conscious movements, cardiac muscles maintain heart function, and smooth muscles regulate various internal processes. Each muscle type is adapted to perform its unique functions, and their coordinated actions ensure proper body movement and organ function.

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Haemophilic carrier female marries a normal man. In the progeny
A) All daughters will have haemophilia
B) All sons will have haemophilia
C) 50% daughters will have haemophilia
D) 50% sons will have haemophilia

Answers

When a female carrier of hemophilia (a condition where blood clotting is impaired) marries a normal man, the progeny have the following possibilities: 50% of sons will have hemophilia, and 50% of daughters will be carriers of the disease. Therefore, the correct answer is D) 50% sons will have hemophilia. Hemophilia is an X-linked recessive disorder, meaning it is caused by a mutation in a gene located on the X chromosome.

Females have two X chromosomes (XX), while males have one X and one Y chromosome (XY). In this scenario, the female carrier has one normal X chromosome and one X chromosome with the mutation for hemophilia. The normal man has one X chromosome and one Y chromosome, both without the hemophilia mutation. During reproduction, the female can pass on either her normal X chromosome or her X chromosome with the hemophilia mutation to her offspring. If she passes on the normal X chromosome, the child will not have hemophilia. However, if she passes on the X chromosome with the mutation, the child will have hemophilia. In the case of sons, since they inherit their X chromosome from their mother, they have a 50% chance of receiving the X chromosome with the hemophilia mutation, resulting in hemophilia. Meanwhile, daughters have a 50% chance of inheriting either the normal X chromosome or the X chromosome with the mutation. If they inherit the X chromosome with the mutation, they become carriers of hemophilia but may not necessarily show symptoms of the disorder. When a hemophilic carrier female marries a normal man, 50% of the sons will have hemophilia, and 50% of the daughters will be carriers of the disease.

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T/F: the reducing end of a disaccharide or a polysaccharide is the end of a chain with a free anomeric carbon (i.e., not involved in a glycosidic bond).

Answers

True. The reducing end of a disaccharide or a polysaccharide is the end of a chain with a free anomeric carbon (i.e., not involved in a glycosidic bond).

Two monosaccharide molecules connected by a glycosidic bond make up a disaccharide, a type of sugar. Disaccharides include substances such as lactose, maltose, and sucrose. A glycosidic bond is a covalent link created by a dehydration event between two monosaccharides. The end of a chain with a free anomeric carbon, or one that is not connected to a glycosidic bond, is the reducing end of a disaccharide or polysaccharide.

A polymer of carbohydrates known as a polysaccharide is made up of many monosaccharide units connected by glycosidic linkages. The polysaccharides cellulose, starch, and glycogen are three examples. Carbohydrates are composed of monosaccharides. In between two monosaccharide molecules, glycosidic linkages form. The orientation of the anomeric carbon determines whether a glycosidic bond is alpha or beta.

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for how long were prokaryotes the only kind of life on earth? A,1.5 Billion years B.1 Billion Years C. 2 Billion Years D.2,5 Billion Years

Answers

For approximately 2 billion years, prokaryotes were the only kind of life on Earth. Prokaryotes are simple, single-celled organisms that lack a true nucleus and other membrane-bound organelles.

They represent the earliest forms of life on our planet and are believed to have originated around 3.5 billion years ago. During the early stages of Earth's history, the conditions were primarily hostile to more complex life forms. The atmosphere was predominantly composed of gases such as methane, ammonia, and carbon dioxide, and there were no significant amounts of oxygen. Prokaryotes, particularly bacteria, were able to thrive in these extreme environments and played a vital role in shaping the Earth's early biosphere. It wasn't until approximately 2 billion years ago that oxygen-producing photosynthetic prokaryotes, called cyanobacteria, emerged and started releasing oxygen as a byproduct of their metabolic activities. This event, known as the Great Oxygenation Event, led to the gradual accumulation of oxygen in the atmosphere and paved the way for the development of more complex, oxygen-dependent life forms.

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site of capacity for learning, memory, perception and intellectual function

Answers

The brain is the primary site responsible for learning, memory, perception, and intellectual function. It is a complex organ that consists of billions of interconnected neurons and specialized regions that work together to process information and facilitate cognitive processes.

Learning and memory are closely linked functions that involve the encoding, storage, and retrieval of information. The brain's hippocampus, located in the temporal lobe, plays a crucial role in forming new memories and consolidating them for long-term storage. Other regions, such as the prefrontal cortex, are involved in executive functions, decision-making, and attention, which contribute to learning and memory processes.

Perception, on the other hand, involves the brain's ability to interpret and make sense of sensory information received from the environment. Different areas of the brain, such as the occipital lobe for vision, the temporal lobe for hearing, and the parietal lobe for touch, are responsible for processing specific sensory inputs and integrating them to create a coherent perception of the world.

Intellectual function encompasses various cognitive processes, including reasoning, problem-solving, language comprehension, and abstract thinking. These functions rely on the coordinated activity of multiple brain regions, such as the frontal and parietal lobes, which are involved in higher-order cognitive processes. The prefrontal cortex, in particular, plays a crucial role in executive functions, such as planning, decision-making, and cognitive control.

In summary, the brain serves as the central hub for learning, memory, perception, and intellectual function. Its intricate network of neurons and specialized regions enables the processing and integration of information, allowing us to acquire knowledge, perceive the world around us, and engage in complex cognitive tasks.

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In humans, having a widow's peak in your hairline (W) is dominant to having a straight hairline (w). If a man with a straight hairline has a baby with a woman who Is homozygous dominant for widow's peak, what is the likelihood their children will have a widow's peak?
a. 100%
b. 75%
c. 50%
d. 25%
e. 0%

Answers

The correct option is a. 100%. The likelihood that their children will have a widow's peak is 100%.

In this scenario, the man with a straight hairline is homozygous recessive (ww) for the widow's peak trait, while the woman is homozygous dominant (WW) for the widow's peak trait. Since widow's peak (W) is a dominant trait and straight hairline (w) is a recessive trait, all the offspring will inherit one copy of the dominant allele from the mother.

When crossing a homozygous dominant parent (WW) with a homozygous recessive parent (ww), all the offspring will inherit one copy of the dominant allele (W) from the mother and one copy of the recessive allele (w) from the father. As a result, all the children will have the genotype Ww, which expresses the widow's peak trait.

Since all the offspring will have at least one copy of the dominant allele (W), the likelihood of their children having a widow's peak is 100%.

The likelihood that the children of a man with a straight hairline and a woman who is homozygous dominant for widow's peak will have a widow's peak is 100%.

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what does reactive cellular changes and/or repair are present mean

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

The phrase "reactive cellular changes and/or repair are present" refers to the observation that cellular changes and repair mechanisms are occurring in response to a specific stimulus or injury. It suggests that the cells in a particular tissue or organ are undergoing modifications or adaptations to counteract the effects of damage or stress.

When cells are exposed to harmful stimuli, such as injury, infection, or inflammation, they can exhibit reactive changes as a protective response. These changes may include alterations in cell shape, size, or function, increased cellular division (proliferation), or the activation of repair processes.

Repair mechanisms aim to restore tissue structure and function after injury or damage. This can involve the regeneration of damaged cells or the deposition of scar tissue to heal the affected area. The presence of reactive cellular changes and repair indicates that the body is actively responding to the initial insult and attempting to restore homeostasis or normal function.

The specific nature of reactive cellular changes and repair mechanisms can vary depending on the type and severity of the injury or stimulus, as well as the specific tissue or organ involved. It is an indication that the body's cellular processes are actively engaged in response to the observed condition.

Reactive cellular changes and/or repair are present is a cytology report that indicates that the cells in the sample have been damaged or changed in response to an injury, inflammation, or infection. These changes are usually harmless and do not indicate cancer.

The most common causes of reactive cellular changes are:

Injury: This can be caused by a physical injury, such as a cut or scrape, or by a medical procedure, such as a biopsy.Inflammation: This is the body's response to infection or injury. It can cause the cells to swell and change shape.Infection: This can be caused by bacteria, viruses, or parasites. The infection can damage the cells and cause them to change shape.

In most cases, reactive cellular changes are harmless and do not require any treatment. However, if the changes are severe or if they are accompanied by other symptoms, such as pain, bleeding, or discharge, you should see a doctor to rule out a more serious condition.

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in terms of trophic levels, why do baleen whales eat plankton

Answers

Baleen whales eat plankton primarily because they occupy a specific trophic level known as the herbivorous or primary consumer level.

Baleen whales, such as the blue whale and humpback whale, belong to the herbivorous or primary consumer trophic level. Trophic levels represent the different levels of the food chain or the positions that organisms occupy based on their feeding habits. At the primary consumer level, organisms obtain their energy by consuming producers, which in this case are the plankton.

Plankton are tiny organisms that include both plants (phytoplankton) and animals (zooplankton). They are the primary producers of the ocean, converting sunlight and nutrients into organic matter through photosynthesis. As filter feeders, baleen whales have specialized baleen plates in their mouths that act as a filter, allowing them to take in vast amounts of water and filter out the planktonic organisms.

The large size of baleen whales requires them to consume significant quantities of food to sustain their energy needs. By consuming plankton, which are abundant in many marine environments, baleen whales can efficiently obtain the energy-rich resources they require. Additionally, feeding on plankton allows them to take advantage of a relatively abundant and widely distributed food source.

In conclusion, baleen whales eat plankton primarily because they occupy the herbivorous or primary consumer trophic level and rely on consuming large quantities of plankton to meet their energy requirements. Their feeding behavior not only sustains their massive size but also plays a vital role in the transfer of energy and nutrients within marine ecosystems.

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a urine specimen is obtained by a client cleaning the exterior meatus, then beginning to void, then collecting the urine sample midstream. which type of specimen does this describe?

Answers

A midstream urine specimen collection involves urine specimen obtained by a client cleaning the exterior meatus, then beginning to void, then collecting the urine sample midstream.

Thus, to prevent the sample from being contaminated by outside microorganisms, the client in this approach cleans the outer meatus, which is the entrance of the urethra. The customer then starts to pee and obtains a urine sample in the middle of the procedure.

To avoid include the first section of the stream, which can contain germs or urethral debris, in the sample, the midstream urine must be collected. The sample is more likely to give an accurate depiction of the urinary system and reduce external contamination by being taken midstream.

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is stored isolated from the atmosphere in a container richly seeded with a variety of bacteria.

Answers

No, storing something isolated from the atmosphere in a container richly seeded with bacteria would not be an effective way to preserve it.

Storing something isolated from the atmosphere means keeping it away from the surrounding air. This is often done to protect the item from environmental factors or to maintain its integrity.

However, storing it in a container that is richly seeded with bacteria would not be an appropriate method for isolation or preservation. Bacteria require oxygen and nutrients to survive and multiply. By placing the item in a container with abundant bacteria, there is a high likelihood of contamination and potential deterioration of the stored material.

To effectively preserve or isolate something, alternative methods are typically used. Vacuum sealing is a common technique where air is removed from the container, creating a vacuum and preventing the entry of atmospheric elements. Using sterile containers or controlled environments, such as refrigeration or specialized storage conditions, can also help maintain the quality and integrity of the stored item by minimizing exposure to contaminants.

In summary, storing something isolated from the atmosphere involves protecting it from the surrounding air, but it is crucial to choose appropriate methods that prevent contamination and maintain the desired quality of the stored material.

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what has been the trend in infant mortality rates in the united states in the last 15 years? what is the current rate? how does this rate compare with that of other industrial countries?

Answers

Infant mortality rates in the United States have generally declined over the last 15 years.

What is the trend in infant mortality rates in the United States? The current rate stands at [current rate]. How does this rate compare to other industrial countries?

Over the past 15 years, the United States has seen a general trend of decreasing infant mortality rates. Advances in medical technology, improved prenatal care, and increased awareness of infant health and safety have contributed to this positive trend.

However, it is important to note that disparities in healthcare access and socioeconomic factors can still impact infant mortality rates within certain communities. As for the current rate, specific data would be required to provide an accurate figure.

However, it is essential to monitor and evaluate ongoing efforts to reduce infant mortality rates and address any persistent challenges.  When comparing the current rate of infant mortality in the United States to that of other industrial countries, it is worth noting that the United States does not fare as well as some of its counterparts.

Several industrialized nations, such as those in Western Europe and Canada, have consistently lower infant mortality rates. Factors such as healthcare systems, social policies, and public health initiatives may contribute to the disparities observed between countries.

Infant mortality rates serve as crucial indicators of the overall health and well-being of a nation's population. Studying trends in infant mortality provides insights into the effectiveness of healthcare systems, access to quality prenatal care, and social determinants of health.

Understanding the variations between countries helps identify areas for improvement and supports the development of policies and interventions to reduce infant mortality. Further research in this field contributes to efforts aimed at ensuring healthier outcomes for infants and addressing disparities in healthcare.

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40 points easy 1 question

Which statement best explains the overall function of Molecule 2 in the diagram?
Responses

It contains the instructions for building proteins.

It translates instructions to build proteins.

It supplies sugars to be broken down for energy.

It serves as short term storage for energy

Answers

It contains the instructions for building proteins

which if these is not one of the aquatic effects from ammonia sourcing from fertilizer runoff? question 3 options: anoxic water conditions. plants die off. abundant nutrient enrichment. aquatic plant overgrowth.

Answers

"Abundant nutrient enrichment" is a choice that does not involve any of the aquatic consequences of ammonia sourced from fertilizer runoff. Let's go through each of the other possibilities in more detail:

Ammonia in fertilizer runoff can lead to anoxic (low oxygen) conditions in aquatic habitats. Anoxic water conditions. In a process known as eutrophication, extra nutrients, particularly ammonia, that enter the water encourage the growth of algae.

The algae population gradually dwindles and dies as it blooms. Microorganisms absorb oxygen during decomposition, causing the amount of dissolved oxygen in the water to decrease. Aquatic species may struggle to survive in anoxic circumstances, which can be caused by this reduction in oxygen.

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which of the following would not be a response of the endocrine system

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The endocrine system is a complex network of glands that produce and secrete hormones into the bloodstream. The hormones then travel to various organs and tissues, where they bind to specific receptors and initiate physiological responses.

One function of the endocrine system is to help the body maintain homeostasis by regulating various functions such as metabolism, growth and development, and reproduction. In contrast, the nervous system is responsible for coordinating the body's response to internal and external stimuli. Therefore, the following would not be a response of the endocrine system: Rapidly increasing heart rate during a high-intensity workout. T

his response would be triggered by the sympathetic nervous system, which prepares the body for physical activity by increasing heart rate, respiration, and blood pressure. The endocrine system may contribute to some of the long-term adaptations that occur with exercise, such as increased muscle mass and bone density, but it does not play a direct role in the acute response to exercise.

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Which of the following statements about electron microscopes is true?
a. Transmission electron microscopes are mainly used to study cell surfaces.
b. Specimens must be sectioned to be viewed under a scanning electron microscope.
c. Scanning electron microscopes are used to study the details of internal cell structure.
d. Electron microscopes focus electron beams to create a magnified image of an object.

Answers

Electron microscopes focus electron beams to create a magnified image of an object. The correct option is D) Electron microscopes focus electron beams to create a magnified image of an object.

.

An electron microscope is a microscope that uses a beam of electrons to produce an enlarged image of a small object. In contrast to a light microscope, which uses visible light to produce its image, an electron microscope employs electrons to create an image.

Electrons interact with a sample to produce a range of signals that contain information about the sample's surface and internal structure. Electron microscopes can magnify objects up to two million times, allowing the observation of the detailed structure of biological and chemical samples. As a result, they are important tools in studying microorganisms and in producing computer microchips.

In contrast to optical microscopes, electron microscopes cannot be used to view live samples since the electron beam will destroy biological matter. Hence, the specimens must be preserved, and electrons have to pass through the sample before they are magnified. These processes are important for researchers to consider in sample preparation before using an electron microscope.

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Which one of the following statement is NOT a potential application of CRISPR:
a. Revive extinct species by genome editing
b. Exon skipping by deleting the DNA sequence of splicing sites
c. Correct DNA mutations to cure inherited human diseases
d. Mediate DNA recombination to alter the chromosome structures

Answers

The potential application of CRISPR that is NOT correct is mediating DNA recombination to alter the chromosome structures.

CRISPR (Clustered Regularly Interspaced Short Palindromic Repeats) is a genome editing system that enables scientists to change an organism's DNA. Scientists can quickly edit and adjust genetic material using CRISPR. CRISPR technology has transformed the field of genetic engineering and has become an important tool in medical research and biotechnology. CRISPR's applications include gene therapy and disease treatment, the creation of genetically modified crops, and the development of industrial bacteria that produce high-value chemicals and pharmaceuticals.

CRISPR's potential applications involve the treatment of diseases such as genetic disorders, cancer, and HIV/AIDS. Other possible applications include the genetic engineering of agricultural crops, the production of renewable biofuels, and the elimination of invasive species and pathogens from ecosystems.CRISPR has the potential to be used in gene drives and gene editing for military and defense purposes. Gene drives can, for example, be used to cause a decline in the population of pests or to inhibit the spread of diseases. CRISPR is not, however, used to mediate DNA recombination to alter the chromosome structures.

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soil air supplies plants and microorganisms with what gases needed for life processes?

Answers

Soil air supplies plants and microorganisms with two vital gases for life processes: oxygen (O2) and carbon dioxide (CO2).

Plants and microorganisms require oxygen (O2) for respiration, the process by which cells generate energy. During respiration, organic molecules are broken down in the presence of oxygen to release energy. Oxygen is obtained from the soil air through tiny air pockets or air-filled spaces in the soil. The roots of plants and the surrounding soil microorganisms extract oxygen from the soil air, enabling them to carry out aerobic respiration and sustain their metabolic activities.

On the other hand, carbon dioxide (CO2) is essential for photosynthesis in plants. During photosynthesis, plants use carbon dioxide, along with sunlight and water, to produce glucose and oxygen. The carbon dioxide needed for photosynthesis is obtained by plants through the stomata in their leaves, which open up to allow gas exchange with the atmosphere. In the soil, microorganisms also require carbon dioxide for various metabolic processes.

Therefore, soil air plays a critical role in providing plants and microorganisms with the necessary oxygen for respiration and carbon dioxide for photosynthesis and other life processes.

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to what part of the tibia does the patellar ligament attach?

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The patellar ligament attaches to the tibial tuberosity, which is a prominence located at the front of the tibia bone, just below the kneecap.

The patellar ligament is a strong, fibrous band that connects the patella (kneecap) to the tibia bone. It plays a crucial role in the stability and function of the knee joint. Specifically, the patellar ligament attaches to the tibial tuberosity, which is a bony prominence found on the anterior (front) surface of the tibia bone. The tibial tuberosity is a slightly elevated area located just below the patella. When the quadriceps muscles contract, the force is transmitted through the patellar ligament to the tibial tuberosity, allowing for movements such as knee extension and facilitating activities like walking, running, and jumping.

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If you crossed two mice with white fur, what distribution of fur color would you expect in the offspring?

about 50% black and 50% white

about 75% black and 50% white

100% white

100% black

Answers

If you crossed two mice with white fur, all of the offspring would be white. This is because white fur is a dominant trait C, 100% white.

What occurs in gene crossing?

In mice, fur color is determined by two genes, one from each parent. The gene for black fur is dominant, while the gene for white fur is recessive. This means that if a mouse has one gene for black fur and one gene for white fur, the mouse will have black fur.

If both parents have white fur, this means that they both have two genes for white fur. When these mice mate, all of their offspring will inherit two genes for white fur, and therefore will have white fur.

Therefore, it is 100% white.

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which of the following statements best characterizes femoral vessel anatomy?

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The best characterization of femoral vessel anatomy is that the femoral artery is a large blood vessel located in the upper thigh, responsible for supplying blood to the lower extremities.

The femoral artery is a major blood vessel that originates from the external iliac artery in the pelvis and continues down the front of the thigh. It is the main artery supplying blood to the lower extremities. Along its course, the femoral artery gives off various branches that provide blood to different regions of the thigh and leg. The femoral vein runs parallel to the femoral artery and carries deoxygenated blood back to the heart. The femoral vessels are commonly accessed for medical procedures such as arterial catheterization or for obtaining blood samples.

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Which three cellular components are present in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes? a. RNA, DNA ribosomes b. ribosomes, chloroplasts, mitochondria c. nucleus, ribosomes, RNA d. mitochondria, DNA, RNA

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Answer:

The Answer is C.

Explanation:

The three cellular components that are present in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes are the nucleus, ribosomes, and RNA.

In prokaryotes, such as bacteria, there is no distinct nucleus. However, they still have a region called the nucleoid where their DNA is located. Prokaryotes also have ribosomes, which are responsible for protein synthesis, and they contain RNA, including messenger RNA (mRNA) and transfer RNA (tRNA).

In eukaryotes, such as plants, animals, fungi, and protists, the nucleus is a well-defined organelle that contains the DNA. Eukaryotic cells also have ribosomes, which play a role in protein synthesis, and they possess various types of RNA, including mRNA, tRNA, and ribosomal RNA (rRNA).

Therefore, the presence of the nucleus, ribosomes, and RNA is a shared characteristic of both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.

The three cellular components that are present in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes are ribosomes, DNA, and RNA. Therefore, option (A) is correct.

A single-celled organism known as a prokaryote does not have a cell nucleus or any other membrane-bound organelles. Eukaryotes are multicellular organisms with a distinct nucleus and organelles in their cells that are bound by a membrane.

Ribosomes are answerable for protein union and are available in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells. Both types of cells contain DNA and RNA, which are essential components of genetic information.

All of an organism's genetic information is stored in the hereditary material known as DNA, and it is RNA's job to translate this information into the proteins that make up the structure and functions of the organism. The three components of a cell that are found in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes are ribosomes, DNA, and RNA.

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If you treat both strands with an enzyme that recognizes the sequence GAATTC, record the number and size (invade pairs) of fragments from each sample of DNA

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The number and size of DNA fragments after treating them with GAATTC enzyme can be determined based on the specific DNA sequences.

The GAATTC enzyme is a type of restriction enzyme which recognizes the specific DNA sequence of GAATTC and cuts the DNA strands at this sequence. Restriction enzymes are used for cutting the DNA into fragments to be used in genetic engineering and cloning procedures.Once the DNA strands are treated with this enzyme, they can be separated by size using a technique known as gel electrophoresis. Gel electrophoresis works by separating the DNA fragments based on their size through an electric field.

This allows the fragments to migrate through the gel and become separated into distinct bands.The number of fragments produced from each sample of DNA will depend on the specific sequence of DNA that is being cut. Each cut in the DNA sequence will produce a fragment, so longer DNA molecules will produce fewer fragments while shorter DNA molecules will produce more fragments. The size of each fragment can be determined by comparing the migration distance of the fragment on the gel to a DNA ladder with known fragment sizes.

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t/f primitive traits weren’t present in a lineage before the appearance of a specific group.

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Before a particular group emerged, a lineage may have exhibited primal features. Primitive rates are traits that have persisted in certain lineages across time and are inherited from a common ancestor. The answer is false.

These characteristics could have existed before a certain population or an evolutionary adaption. They give a foundation for comprehending evolutionary links and can provide light on a group's or lineage's ancestors' traits.

New qualities, referred to as derived traits, which are particular to certain groups or species, may emerge when lineages evolve and diverge. As long as they continue to be inherited from the same common ancestor, primitive features can continue to exist in a lineage even after the introduction of derived traits.

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(T/F)
The ANS stimulates smooth muscles, skeletal muscles and glands, whereas the somatic nervous system innervated skeletal muscles only.

Answers

The statement is TRUE. The autonomic nervous system (ANS) is a subdivision of the peripheral nervous system that regulates various organs and tissues' involuntary functions, including smooth muscles, cardiac muscles, and glandular tissues.

The somatic nervous system innervates the body's voluntary skeletal muscles exclusively, allowing for conscious voluntary movements. The ANS is composed of two divisions: the sympathetic and the parasympathetic divisions. The ANS's sympathetic division prepares the body for physical activity by increasing heart rate and blood pressure, dilating bronchioles, and causing sweating.

The parasympathetic division restores the body to a resting state after physical activity by decreasing heart rate and blood pressure, constricting bronchioles, and reducing sweating. Therefore, it is correct to state that the ANS stimulates smooth muscles, skeletal muscles, and glands, while the somatic nervous system innervates skeletal muscles only.

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