8. Write and execute a query that will delete all countries that are not assigned to an office or a client. You must do this in a single query to receive credit for this question. Write the delete query below and then execute the following statement in SQL Server: Select * from Countries. Take a screenshot of your select query results and paste them below your delete query that you constructed.

Answers

Answer 1

The Countries which are not assigned any Office means that the values are Null or Blank:

I created a table:

my sql> select*from Country; + | Country Name | Office | - + | Yes | NULL | Yes | Croatia | Argentina Sweden Brazil Sweden | Au

Here in this table there is Country Name and a Office Column where it is Yes, Null and Blank.

So, we need to delete the Blank and Null values as these means that there are no office assigned to those countries.

The SQL statement:

We will use the delete function,

delete from Country selects the Country table.

where Office is Null or Office = ' ' ,checks for values in Office column which are Null or Blank and deletes it.

Code:

mysql> delete from Country     -> where Office is Null or Office = ''; Query OK, 3 rows affected (0.01 sec)

Code Image:

mysql> delete from Country -> where Office is Null or Office Query OK, 3 rows affected (0.01 sec) =

Output:

mysql> select*from Country; + | Country Name | Office | + | Croatia Sweden Sweden | India | Yes | Yes Yes | Yes + 4 rows in s

You can see that all the countries with Null and Blank values are deleted

8. Write And Execute A Query That Will Delete All Countries That Are Not Assigned To An Office Or A Client.
8. Write And Execute A Query That Will Delete All Countries That Are Not Assigned To An Office Or A Client.
8. Write And Execute A Query That Will Delete All Countries That Are Not Assigned To An Office Or A Client.

Related Questions

A shell-and-tube heat exchanger with 2-shell passes and 8-tube passes is used to heat ethyl alcohol (cp = 2670 J/kg · K) in the tubes from 25°C to 70°C at a rate of 2.1 kg/s. The heating is to be done by water that enters the shell side at 95°C and leaves at 45°C. The overall heat transfer coefficient is 950 W/m² · K. a) Draw the schematic of given configuration and include all geometric and operation parameters. b) Determine the total rate of heat loss by the hot water and its mass flow rate. c) Determine the log mean temperature difference based on the corresponding counter flow heat exchanger and correction factor. d) Determine the heat transfer surface area of the heat exchanger. e) Determine the external diameter of the tubes, if the length of each tube pass that can be fitted inside the heat exchanger is 3 m.

Answers

Schematic of given configuration: b) Total rate of heat loss by hot water and its mass flow rate

Given that The mass flow rate of Ethyl alcohol (m) = 2.1 kg/sThe specific heat of Ethyl alcohol (Cp) = 2670 J/kg KInlet temperature of Ethyl alcohol (Tin) = 25°CExit temperature of Ethyl alcohol (Tout) = 70°CThe specific heat of water (Cp) = 4182 J/kg KInlet temperature of water (Tin) = 95°CExit temperature of water (Tout) = 45°CThe overall heat transfer coefficient (U) = 950 W/m² KTo determine the total rate of heat loss by the hot water, we need to use the formula for heat transfer:Q = m C p Δ TQ = m C p (Tout - Tin)For the hot water, the value of Q will be negative as the water is losing heat.Q = - m C p Δ TQ = -m C p (Tin - Tout)Putting the values in the above formula, we get;Q = - (m)(Cp)(Tin - Tout)Q = - (m)(Cp)(95°C - 45°C)Q = - (m)(4182 J/kg K)(50°C)Q = - 209100 m J/s = - 209.1 kWTherefore, the total rate of heat loss by the hot water is - 209.1 kW. To determine the mass flow rate, we need to use the formula: Q = m C p Δ Tm = Q / (Cp Δ T)m = - 209.1 kW / (4182 J/kg K × 50 K)m = - 0.998 kg/sc) Log mean temperature difference based on the corresponding counter flow heat exchanger and correction factor: Log mean temperature difference (ΔTLM) is given by the formula:ΔTLM = (ΔT1 - ΔT2) / ln (ΔT1 / ΔT2)ΔT1 = Tin1 - Tout2ΔT2 = Tin2 -

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The moment of inertia of the body do not depend upon a axis of rotation b angular velocity c distribution of mass d mass

Answers

The moment of inertia of the body does not depend upon the mass. This is incorrect as moment of inertia is defined as the resistance of a body to rotational motion when a torque is applied.

It is based on the distribution of mass around the axis of rotation as well as the mass itself. Therefore, option (d) is incorrect.The moment of inertia of a body depends on the distribution of mass. This means that the further the mass is from the axis of rotation, the greater the moment of inertia will be. The moment of inertia also depends on the axis of rotation itself. This means that different axes of rotation will produce different values for the moment of inertia.Finally, the moment of inertia is also dependent on the shape of the object. Objects with a greater surface area will have a greater moment of inertia than objects with a smaller surface area. Thus, the moment of inertia of the body depends upon the distribution of mass, the axis of rotation and the shape of the object.

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Which one of the following answers successfully substitutes values into a string using a list? O a. >>> "In {1} years, I'll be age {0}" format("[40,10)) Answered >>> "\n {1} years, I'll be age {0}"format([40,10]) Ос. >>> V = [10, 40, 0] >>> "In {0} years, I'll be age {1}" format("V[1]) O d. >>> V = [10, 40] >>> "In (O) years, I'll be age {1}" format(v) Icon

Answers

The correct answer that successfully substitutes values into a string using a list is >>> "\n {1} years, I'll be age {0}".format([40, 10]).The correct answer is option B.

In this answer, the format() method is used to substitute values into the string. The string contains two placeholders {0} and {1}, which represent the positions where the values from the list will be inserted.

The list [40, 10] is passed as an argument to the format() method, and the values are substituted in the order they appear in the list. Therefore, the resulting string will be "\n 10 years, I'll be age 40".

Option a is incorrect because the format() method is called on a string

instead of a list. Additionally, the list is not correctly formatted.

Option c is incorrect because the variable name "V" is enclosed in quotes, making it a string instead of a variable referencing the list. Also, there is a syntax error with the closing quotation mark.

Option d is incorrect because the variable name "v" is not defined with a lowercase "v" in the code, while the string also contains an incorrect placeholder "(O)" instead of "{0}".

In conclusion, option b is the correct answer that successfully substitutes values into a string using a list.

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a Q-5: The b-phase voltage of a balanced three-phase Y-Y connected system is 350 L-35°. If the phase sequence is positive, what is the value of VcA?

Answers

If the b-phase voltage of a balanced three-phase Y-Y connected system is 350 L-35°. If the phase sequence is positive, the value of VcA is -101 L-35°.

Voltage b-phase, Vb = 350 L-35°

Voltage sequence = positive

Formula to find the voltage in a balanced three-phase Y-Y connected system

Vbc = Van + Vbn

Where Vbc is the voltage between two lines, Vbn is the voltage between one line and the neutral, and Van is the voltage between two other lines (which are not connected to Vbn).

To calculate Vbn, let us assume that one line of the three-phase system is grounded or neutralized. Then, the voltage between this line and another line (say line a) is

Vab = Vbn ... (1)

Also, we know that

Vab = Vbn + Van ... (2)

From equations (1) and (2)

Vbn = Vab and Van = 0

Vbc = Van + Vbn

Vbc = 0 + Vbn [∵ Van = 0]

Vbc = Vbn

Vbn = Vb / √3

Vbn = 350 / √3 L-35°

Vcn = -Vbn / 2

Vcn = -175 / √3 L-35°

VcA = Vcn + Van

VcA = (-175 / √3 L-35°) + 0

VcA = -101 L-35°

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(a) Why is clutch used for? (b)A multidisc plate clutch has an effective disk outer diameter of 7.5 in and an inner diameter of 5 in. The coefficient of friction is 0.2, and the limiting pressure is 100 psi. There are 4 planes of sliding present. (c) Using the uniform pressure model, estimate the axial force F and the torque T.

Answers

The axial force F is 1146 lb and the torque T is 143.25 lb-ft using the uniform pressure model.

A clutch is used to engage or disengage a spinning engine from the transmission in order to change gears while driving. The clutch is essential to start and stop the vehicle as it can be used to connect and disconnect the power transmitted from the engine to the transmission.

Given data is:

Effective disk outer diameter = 7.5 inches

Inner diameter = 5 inches

Coefficient of friction = 0.2Limiting pressure = 100 psi

Number of sliding planes = 4

To estimate the axial force F and the torque T, we need to use the formula:

Torque = F x r x μ

Where

F = Axial force

μ = Coefficient of friction

r = Mean radius of friction

Surface area = π/4 x (outer diameter² - inner diameter²)

= π/4 x (7.5² - 5²)

= 11.46 in²

Force per plane = limiting pressure x surface area/number of planes

= 100 x 11.46/4

= 286.5 lb

Axial force = force per plane x number of planes

= 286.5 x 4

= 1146 lb

Mean radius of friction = (outer diameter + inner diameter)/2

= (7.5 + 5)/2

= 6.25 in

Torque = Axial force x mean radius of friction x coefficient of friction

= 1146 x 6.25 x 0.2

= 143.25 lb-ft

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One primary goal for this quarter is for you to learn how to think like a lawyer. What does this mean? Please pick one of the following:
Group of answer choices
Approach issues pragmatically
Identify issues, rules and apply the rules to the facts.
Learn to sue multiple defendants in the court of appeals
Focus on "outcome determinative" facts when analysing a dispute
A, B and D are all correct.

Answers

One of the primary objectives of this quarter is for you to learn how to think like a lawyer. The correct answer is B. Identify issues, rules, and apply the rules to the facts.

To understand what this means, one must comprehend the different types of thinking that go into legal research and writing. Identifying issues, rules, and applying rules to facts is one of the key aspects of thinking like a lawyer.

It involves examining the legal and factual details of a case and identifying the issues that need to be addressed, as well as the relevant legal rules that apply to those issues. Then, one must use these legal rules to assess the facts of the case and draw conclusions based on that analysis.

So, the correct answer is B

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A cylindrical-rotor and under-excitation, synchronous generator connected to infinite bus is operated with load the correct statement is ( ). A. The power factor of the synchronous generator is lagging. B. The load is resistive and inductive. C. If the operator of the synchronous generator increases the field current while keeping constant output torque of the prime mover, the armature current will increase. D. If the operator of the synchronous generator reduces the field current while keeping constant output torque of the prime mover, the armature current will increase till the instable operation of the generator.

Answers

The correct statement for a cylindrical-rotor and under-excitation synchronous generator connected to an infinite bus and operated with load is: the power factor of the synchronous generator is lagging.

A synchronous generator (alternator) is a machine that generates AC electricity through electromagnetic induction by spinning a rotating magnet around a fixed coil of wire. The synchronicity is essential in this generator since the rotor must rotate at the same speed as the magnetic field generated by the stator winding, creating a constant AC voltage.The terms for the given question are: cylindrical-rotor and under-excitation, synchronous generator, infinite bus, operated with load.

Option A: The power factor of the synchronous generator is lagging. Answer: True

Explanation: The synchronous generator's power factor is lagging since it is under-excited and operated under load.

Option B: The load is resistive and inductive. Answer: False

Explanation: The load may be resistive or inductive or a mixture of both.

Option C: If the operator of the synchronous generator increases the field current while keeping constant output torque of the prime mover, the armature current will increase. Answer: True

Explanation: If the field current is increased, the magnetic field will be strengthened, causing an increase in the armature current.

Option D: If the operator of the synchronous generator reduces the field current while keeping constant output torque of the prime mover, the armature current will increase till the unstable operation of the generator.Answer: False

Explanation: Reducing the field current will cause a drop in the magnetic field strength, resulting in a reduction in the armature current until the generator becomes unstable.

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The minimum Signal to noise ratio is -10dB. Find the maximum
detectable range for two different values of Pt
=25x107
And Pt =25x105

Answers

The maximum detectable range for two different values of Pt are,

R = 299.83 * (G² * sigma[tex])^{0.25}[/tex] meters

And, R = 94.87 * (G² * sigma[tex])^{0.25}[/tex] meters

Now, For the maximum detectable range, we can use the radar range equation:

SNR = (Pt × G² × sigma) / (4 × pi × R⁴ × k × T × B × L)

where:

SNR is the signal-to-noise ratio in decibels (dB)

Pt is the transmitted power in watts (W)

G is the gain of the antenna

sigma is the radar cross section of the target in square meters (m^2)

R is the range to the target in meters (m)

k is the Boltzmann constant (1.38x10^-23 J/K)

T is the temperature of the receiver in Kelvin (K)

B is the bandwidth of the receiver in Hertz (Hz)

L is the system loss factor (unitless)

We can rearrange this equation to solve for R:

[tex]R = \frac{pt * G^2 * sigma}{4 * \pi * SNR * k * T * B * L)^{0.25} }[/tex]

Let's solve for R for the two different values of Pt:

For Pt = 25x10⁷ W:

R = ((25x10⁷ * G² * sigma) / (4 * π * (-10) * 1.38x10⁻²³ * 290 * 1 * 1)[tex])^{0.25}[/tex]

R = 299.83 * (G² * sigma[tex])^{0.25}[/tex] meters

For Pt = 25x10⁵ W:

R = ((25x10⁵ * G² * sigma) / (4 * π * (-10) * 1.38x10⁻²³ * 290 * 1 * 1)[tex])^{0.25}[/tex]

R = 94.87 * (G² * sigma[tex])^{0.25}[/tex] meters

Here, the maximum detectable range depends on the gain of the antenna and the radar cross section of the target, which are not given in the problem statement.

However, the equations above should give you a general idea of how to calculate the maximum detectable range for a given transmitted power and signal-to-noise ratio.

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Consider the 5-stage signal flow graph of a radix-2 decimation-in-time FFT algorithm. The output samples X(k) are the DFT of a signal a(n), 0≤n, k < 31. Indicate whether each statement below is True or False and why. No credit without reasons. i) There will be total of 80 FFT butterflies in the signal flow graph. ii) 16 complex multiply operations will be performed in the last stage. iii) If A(i), 0 < i < 31 is the array of data samples at the input of stage 1, then A(24) will contain the data sample (3).

Answers

i) False: In a radix-2 decimation-in-time FFT algorithm, the total number of butterflies in the signal flow graph can be calculated using the formula:Total butterflies = (N/2) * log2(N)

Therefore, the total number of FFT butterflies in the signal flow graph is approximately 77, not 80.ii) True: In the last stage of a radix-2 decimation-in-time FFT algorithm, each butterfly operation involves a complex multiplication. Since the last stage deals with 16 input samples, there will be 16 complex multiply operations.

iii) False: In a radix-2 decimation-in-time FFT algorithm, the data samples are rearranged during the different stages. The index of the data sample at the output of each stage can be calculated using a formula that involves bit-reversal permutation. Therefore, it is not possible to determine the content of A(24) based solely on the input data sample (3). The position of sample (3) in the output array will depend on the specific implementation and the order of operations in the FFT algorithm.

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Which of the followings is true? The unit rectangular pulse is convenient in O A. filtering processes. O B. modulation and convoluting processes. O C. convoluting processes. O D. modulating processes.

Answers

The unit rectangular pulse is convenient in filtering processes.The unit rectangular pulse, also known as the rectangular function.

It is commonly used in signal processing and various applications. The rectangular pulse has properties that make it particularly suitable for filtering processes. It has a flat frequency response within its bandwidth, which means it does not introduce frequency-dependent distortion or attenuation. This makes it ideal for shaping the frequency spectrum of a signal or removing unwanted frequency components through filtering operations. By applying the rectangular pulse as a filter, it is possible to selectively pass or block certain frequency components of a signal. This is essential in various applications such as audio processing, image processing, telecommunications, and many other fields where precise control over frequency content is required. While the unit rectangular pulse can also be used in modulation and convolution processes, its convenient properties.

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1. Where is E F located in the energy band of silicon, at 300 K for n-Si with a doping concentration of 10 17
cm −3
and p−Si with a doping concentration of 10 14
cm −3
? Draw the band diagrams.

Answers

In n-type silicon, EF is located closer to the conduction band, whereas in p-type silicon, EF is located closer to the valence band.

The position of EF in the energy band of silicon depends on the type of silicon (n-type or p-type) and its doping concentration. Let's take a look at the energy band diagrams for n-type and p-type silicon at 300 K.
Energy Band Diagram for n-Type Silicon:

VB

|

|

|

|      Excess Electrons

|

|

|

CB

---------------------------------------- Energy Axis

              |

            EF (dashed line)

Energy Band Diagram for p-Type Silicon

VB

---------------------------------------- Energy Axis

              |

            EF (dashed line)

|

|

|

CB

|      Excess Holes

|

|

|


n-type silicon
Here, the Fermi level is closer to the conduction band due to the presence of excess electrons that are donated by the dopant (phosphorous in this case). These excess electrons increase the electron concentration in the conduction band, moving the Fermi level closer to the conduction band.
Energy band diagram for p-type silicon:
In p-type silicon, EF is located closer to the valence band.
p-type silicon
In this case, the Fermi level is closer to the valence band due to the presence of excess holes that are created by the dopant (boron in this case). These excess holes increase the hole concentration in the valence band, moving the Fermi level closer to the valence band.
In conclusion, the position of EF in the energy band of silicon depends on the type of silicon (n-type or p-type) and its doping concentration. In n-type silicon, EF is located closer to the conduction band, whereas in p-type silicon, EF is located closer to the valence band.

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Select THREE (3) important Hazard Identification processes from the list below. I. Audits conducted by DOSH. II. Walkaround Inspections III. Comprehensive Survey IV. Observations. A. I, II & IV B. I, II & III C. I, III & IV D. II, III & IV

Answers

Hazard identification is a crucial part of an occupational health and safety program, and it entails recognizing any real or potential hazards that might be present in the workplace. Hazard identification is accomplished through a variety of processes, each with its own set of strengths and weaknesses.

Here are the three important hazard identification processes from the given list:Walkaround InspectionsComprehensive SurveyObservations

:Three essential Hazard Identification processes are I, II, and III. They are:Audit conducted by DOSH. (I)Walkaround Inspections (II)Comprehensive Survey. (III)Observations (IV)The aim of hazard identification is to recognize any real or potential hazards that may be present in the workplace. Hazard identification is done through a variety of methods, each with its own set of benefits and drawbacks. As a result, it is crucial to select the appropriate methods for your workplace. It is suggested that you use several methods for hazard identification to obtain a more accurate understanding of the risks in the workplace.Hence, Option C I, III & IV are the correct answers.

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The (3) important Hazard Identification processes from the list below include  D. II, III & IV

How to explain the information

Walkaround inspections involve physically inspecting the workplace to identify potential hazards, unsafe conditions, and unsafe practices. This process allows for a firsthand assessment of the work environment and helps in identifying and addressing hazards promptly.

A comprehensive survey involves a systematic examination of the workplace to identify potential hazards across various aspects such as machinery, equipment, chemicals, ergonomics, and safety procedures. It aims to identify hazards comprehensively and helps in developing effective controls and preventive measures.

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Your client wants you to set up a microwave link between two buildings B₁ and B2, with heights 50 m and 30 m respectively. In between is a large building of height 40 m, width 50 m, and distances 50 m from building 1 and 30 m from building 2. Available are two antenna towers ht and hr of height of 3 m. Determine if the project is feasible if the operating frequency is to be 3.4 GHz, by calculating the radius of the first Fresnel zone and its proximity to the closest part of the obstructing building. If you decide that the project is not feasible, suggest some possible solutions.

Answers

The value of d is 5.25 m.

Since the closest part of the obstructing building is 5.25 meters from the first Fresnel zone, the project is feasible.

The Fresnel zone is an elliptical area that encompasses the entire path between two antennas on a microwave link. To determine whether the project is feasible if the operating frequency is to be 3.4 GHz, the radius of the first Fresnel zone must be calculated, as well as its proximity to the closest part of the obstructing building.

The radius of the first Fresnel zone (R) is given by the following formula:

R = 17.32√(d₁d₂/f)

where d₁ and d₂ are the distances between the transmitting and receiving antennas to the obstacle, and f is the frequency of operation.

Substituting the provided values, R = 17.32√((50+40+3)(30+40+3)/3.4) = 236.9 m

The proximity of the obstacle to the first Fresnel zone is given by the following formula:

d = ((nλ)/2) x [(d₁d₂)/(d₁ + d₂)]^(1/2)

where λ is the wavelength and n is the Fresnel zone number.

To calculate d, let n = 1 and λ = c/f, where c is the speed of light, which is approximately 3 x 10^8 m/s.

Also, substitute the provided values, to obtain: d = ((1 x 3 x 10^8)/(2 x 3.4 x 10^9)) x [(50 x 30)/(50 + 30)]^(1/2) = 5.25 m

Since the closest part of the obstructing building is 5.25 meters from the first Fresnel zone, the project is feasible.

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QUESTION 5 Which of the followings is true? For wideband FM, its bandwidth is O A. finite because there are several terms that must be account for. O B. finite but can be made infinite because there are an infinite number of terms under the power series of the corresponding complex exponential function. O C. infinite because there are an infinite number of terms under the power series of the corresponding complex exponential function. O D. linear because there are several terms that must be account for.

Answers

Option C is true. For wideband FM, its bandwidth is infinite because there are an infinite number of terms under the power series of the corresponding complex exponential function.

Option C states that the bandwidth of wideband FM is infinite because there are an infinite number of terms under the power series of the corresponding complex exponential function. This statement is true due to the nature of wideband FM modulation. Wideband FM involves modulating a carrier signal by varying its frequency in proportion to the amplitude of the modulating signal. The frequency deviation in FM results in the expansion of the spectrum, and wideband FM uses a large frequency deviation. As a result, the spectrum of wideband FM extends infinitely in both positive and negative frequency directions The frequency modulation process in wideband FM can be represented using the Bessel function, which has an infinite number of terms in its power series expansion. This expansion includes multiple sidebands that contribute to the wide bandwidth of the FM signal. Therefore, option C accurately describes the bandwidth of wideband FM as infinite due to the presence of an infinite number of terms in the power series of the corresponding complex exponential function.

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1.Compare the performance of Selective Combining, Equal Gain
Combining and MRC Techniques in terms of BER, SNR, Outage
Probability, CDF.

Answers

MRC techniques differ in terms of BER, SNR, Outage Probability, and CDF performance metrics. Selective Combining, Equal Gain Combining.

Maximum Ratio Combining (MRC) are techniques used in wireless communications for improving the performance of signal reception in fading channels. Bit Error Rate (BER): Selective Combining typically offers the lowest BER performance among the three techniques. Equal Gain Combining and MRC provide intermediate BER performance. Signal-to-Noise Ratio (SNR): MRC generally provides the highest SNR gain, followed by Equal Gain Combining. Selective Combining offers lower SNR gain due to its selective nature. Outage Probability: MRC often exhibits the lowest outage probability, as it combines multiple received signals optimally. Equal Gain Combining and Selective Combining may have higher outage probabilities, depending on channel conditions and combining rules. Cumulative Distribution Function (CDF): The CDF of the received signal quality varies across techniques.

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A hydraulic turbine running at 1700 rpm at a head of 70 ft. has an efficiency of 90%. The flow is 65 ft^3 per sec.
a)Calculate the specific speed of the turbine
b)What would be the corresponding changes in flow, speed and brake power if the turbine will operate at a head of 160 ft?
c) If the runner diameter will be twice that of the original, what will be the new flow, speed and brake power?

Answers

The specific speed of the turbine is 242.76.

The specific speed of a turbine is calculated using the formula Ns = N √(Q/H^(3/4)), where N is the speed in rpm, Q is the flow rate in cubic feet per second, and H is the head in feet. By plugging in the given values, we can calculate the specific speed of the turbine as follows:

Ns = 1700 √(65/70^(3/4)) = 242.76

When the turbine operates at a head of 160 ft instead of 70 ft, the corresponding changes would be as follows:

Flow: The flow rate remains constant, so it would still be 65 ft^3 per sec.

Speed: To maintain the same specific speed (Ns), the speed would need to change. Using the formula N = Ns √(H/Q^(3/4)), we can calculate the new speed:

N = 242.76 √(160/65^(3/4)) ≈ 2882.72 rpm

Brake Power: The brake power is proportional to the product of head and flow rate. Therefore, the new brake power can be calculated as follows:

P = (160/70) * (65) ≈ 148.57 ft-lb/sec

If the runner diameter is twice that of the original, the new flow, speed, and brake power can be determined using the laws of similarity. According to the affinity laws:

Flow: The flow rate is directly proportional to the runner diameter. Therefore, the new flow rate would be:

New Flow = 2 * 65 = 130 ft^3 per sec

Speed: The speed is inversely proportional to the runner diameter. Hence, the new speed would be:

New Speed = (Original Speed) * (Original Diameter) / (New Diameter)

          = 1700 * 1 / 2

          = 850 rpm

Brake Power: The brake power is proportional to the cube of the runner diameter. Therefore, the new brake power can be calculated as follows:

New Brake Power = (Original Brake Power) * (New Diameter^3) / (Original Diameter^3)

               = (70) * (2^3) / (1^3)

               = 560 ft-lb/sec

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Impedance match the load Zk = (150 + j 50) ohms to the line with the characteristic impedance Zo - 1000 ohms using the Smit diagram. First, transform the real part of the input impedance with the inserted line. Then compensate the reactance with serial stubs connected symmetrically to both branches. The length of the wave on the lines is wavelength = 1 m. The inserted line and stump must be as short as possible.

Answers

To impedance match the load Zk = (150 + j 50) ohms to the line with the characteristic impedance Zo = 1000 ohms using the Smith chart, transform the real part of the input impedance and compensate the reactance with serial stubs connected symmetrically to both branches.

How can you impedance match the load Zk = (150 + j 50) ohms to the line with the characteristic impedance Zo = 1000 ohms using the Smith chart?

To impedance match the load Zk = (150 + j 50) ohms to the line with the characteristic impedance Zo = 1000 ohms using the Smith chart, follow these steps:

1. Transform the real part of the input impedance: Use the Smith chart to find the normalized impedance of Zk/Zo = (150 + j 50) / 1000 = (0.15 + j 0.05). Trace a line on the Smith chart from the center towards the edge until it intersects the constant resistance circle that corresponds to the real part of the normalized impedance (0.15 in this case). Read the normalized reactance value (0.05) at the intersection point.

2. Compensate the reactance with serial stubs: Connect serial stubs symmetrically to both branches of the line. Determine the length of the stubs by calculating the electrical length of a wavelength (λ) based on the given wavelength of 1 m. Use the Smith chart to find the normalized admittance (Y) of the stubs. Trace a line on the Smith chart from the edge towards the center until it intersects the constant conductance circle that corresponds to the real part of the normalized admittance. Read the normalized susceptance value at the intersection point.

3. Adjust the stub lengths: Adjust the lengths of the stubs to match the desired reactance value (0.05) obtained in step 1. This can be done by changing the physical length of the stubs while keeping their electrical length constant.

The goal is to achieve a perfect impedance match by adjusting the stub lengths and the real part of the input impedance on the Smith chart. The inserted line and stubs should be made as short as possible to minimize signal loss and maintain signal integrity.

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QUESTION 21 Which of the followings is true? The sinc function is the Fourier transform of O A. unit rectangular pulse shifted to a frequency. O B. unit rectangular pulse. O C. unit triangular pulse. O D. unit triangular pulse shifted to a frequency.

Answers

The correct answer is B. The sinc function is the Fourier transform of a unit rectangular pulse.

The sinc function, defined as sinc(x) = sin(x)/x, is the Fourier transform of a unit rectangular pulse, also known as a boxcar function or rectangular function. This pulse has a constant value of 1 within a certain interval and is zero outside that interval.The sinc function appears in the frequency domain when the rectangular pulse is transformed into the frequency domain using the Fourier transform. It is a common function used in signal processing and communications to characterize the frequency response of systems and analyze their behavior.

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On a two-lane highway, a truck driver wants to pass a vehicle travelling at the same speed in front of him while going up the ramp on a 2% inclined road at 50 km/h. The driver kept the following distance with the vehicle in front of him and travelled at the same speed for a while, and then when he found the appropriate time, he decided to overtake. Meanwhile, a vehicle comes from the opposite direction at a speed of V 3

km/h. When the driver sees the vehicle coming from the opposite direction for the first time, there is 527.4 m between them, and this crossing takes place in 12 seconds. The vehicle is 2.2 m wide and 3.1 m high, Mass of the vehicle =7000 kg Rolling resistance coefficient =0.03, Air resistance coefficient =0.070, 85% of the cross-sectional area will be considered, Efficiency =85%, d=8+0.3 V Accordingly, calculate the following: What is the speed (V 2

) of the truck when it moves into its own lane? What is the speed (V 3

) of the vehicle coming from the opposite direction, in km/h ? How much HP should the truck produce? (t r

=1sec,d 3

=30 m)

Answers

The speed (V2) of the truck when it moves into its own lane is 56.6 km/h.The speed (V3) of the vehicle coming from the opposite direction, in km/h is 27.78 km/h.The horsepower the truck should produce is 46.89 hp.How to solve the given problem?

At first, we need to find the speed of the truck when it moves into its lane. Given,d = 8 + 0.3V ... (1)Here, d is the passing distance and V is the velocity of the opposing vehicle.From the question, the truck is travelling at a speed of 50 km/h and has kept the same speed as the vehicle in front of him for a while, then when he finds the appropriate time, he decides to overtake. Let's assume that the overtaking takes place at a time t0. At t0, the distance travelled by the truck = Distance travelled by the vehicle in front of him + d

Therefore, the velocity of the truck can be written as:V2 = [d + s(t0)] / t0 ... (2)Here, s is the speed of the vehicle in front of the truck. Also, we know that,Distance travelled by the truck = Distance travelled by the vehicle in front of him + d = s.t0 + d ... (3)Also, given V3 = 30 km/h = 8.33 m/s, the speed of the vehicle coming from the opposite direction, and the time taken to cross each other = 12 s.Therefore, the distance between them at the time of first seeing each other = V3.t ... (4)Hence, from the above equation, t = 527.4 / 8.33 = 63.28 m.

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1. Calculate how much energy (kJ) is required to heat a liter of water from 30°C to saturated liquid at normal boiling point. 2. Using specific heat, calculate the change in internal energy (kJ) when 400 kmol of water at 150°C (1bar) is cooled at constant pressure until it reaches its saturated vapor condition and compare with value calculated from steam table.

Answers

1. To calculate the energy required to heat a liter of water from 30°C to saturated liquid at normal boiling point, the following formula can be used:Q = m × c × ΔTwhere Q = energy required, m = mass of water, c = specific heat of water, and ΔT = change in temperature.

To find out the mass of water in liters, we can use the density of water at 30°C, which is 995.7 kg/m³. Therefore, the mass of 1 liter of water is:Mass = Density × Volume= 995.7 kg/m³ × 1 × 10⁻³ m³= 0.9957 kgNow, using the specific heat of water, which is 4.18 J/g°C, we can convert this to kJ/kg°C by dividing by 1000.Specific heat of water = 4.18 J/g°C= 4.18 kJ/kg°CTherefore, the energy required to heat 1 liter of water from 30°C to saturated liquid at normal boiling point (100°C) can be calculated as follows:ΔT = 100°C - 30°C= 70°CQ = m × c × ΔT= 0.9957 kg × 4.18 kJ/kg°C × 70°C= 293.96 kJ

The energy required to heat 1 liter of water from 30°C to saturated liquid at normal boiling point is 293.96 kJ.2. The change in internal energy of 400 kmol of water at 150°C and 1 bar, when cooled at constant pressure until it reaches its saturated vapor condition can be calculated using the following formula:ΔU = n × c × ΔTwhere ΔU = change in internal energy, n = number of moles, c = molar specific heat capacity of water, and ΔT = change in temperature.The molar specific heat capacity of water can be calculated using the specific heat of water, which is 4.18 J/g°C, and the molar mass of water, which is 18.015 g/mol.

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Draw the tolerance interval for the fit φ 65 P8/h7

Answers

The tolerance interval for the fit φ 65 P8/h7 is: Shaft diameter: 65 mm ± 0 µm / +8 µm, Hole diameter: 65 mm ± 25 µm / 0 µm.

What are the tolerance grades for the shaft and hole in the fit φ 65 P8/h7?

The tolerance interval for the fit φ 65 P8/h7 to you.

The fit φ 65 P8/h7 represents a cylindrical shaft with a nominal diameter of 65 mm and a cylindrical hole with a tolerance grade of P8 for the shaft and h7 for the hole. The tolerance interval specifies the acceptable range of dimensions for the shaft and the hole.

For the shaft, the tolerance grade P8 indicates that the diameter can deviate from the nominal size by a positive amount ranging from 0 mm to +8 µm.

For the hole, the tolerance grade h7 indicates that the diameter can deviate from the nominal size by a negative amount ranging from 0 mm to -25 µm.

Therefore, the tolerance interval for the fit φ 65 P8/h7 is:

Shaft diameter: 65 mm +0 µm / +8 µm

Hole diameter: 65 mm -25 µm / 0 µm

This means that the shaft can have a diameter between 65 mm and 65.008 mm, while the hole can have a diameter between 64.975 mm and 65 mm.

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How much theoretical efficiency can be gained by increasing an
Otto cycle engine’s compression
ratio from 8.8:1 to 10.8:1?

Answers

Theoretical efficiency that can be gained by increasing an Otto cycle engine’s compression ratio from 8.8:1 to 10.8:1 is approximately 7.4%.Explanation:Otto cycle is also known as constant volume cycle.

This cycle consists of the following four processes:1-2: Isochoric (constant volume) heat addition from Q1.2-3: Adiabatic (no heat transfer) expansion.3-4: Isochoric (constant volume) heat rejection from Q2.4-1: Adiabatic (no heat transfer) compression.

According to Carnot’s principle, the efficiency of any heat engine is determined by the difference between the hot and cold reservoir temperatures and the efficiency of a reversible engine operating between those temperatures.Since Otto cycle is not a reversible cycle, therefore, its efficiency will be always less than the Carnot’s efficiency.

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The step down chopper is operating at 1 kHz. Other data are V = 240 V, L = 10 mH, R = 10 and duty cycle 60%. (a) current. Determine the DC component of the load current and the peak-to-peak ripple in the load (b) By how much will the above values change if the frequency is increased to 2 kHz other data remaining the same. (c) What will the change in the values determined in (a) if the frequency is unchanged but the inductance value is increased to 20 mH, other data remaining the same.

Answers

Changes in values if inductance is increased to 20 mH: Recalculate I_avg and I_ripple using new inductance.

Calculate the DC component of the load current and the peak-to-peak ripple in the load for a step-down chopper operating at 1 kHz with given data (V = 240 V, L = 10 mH, R = 10, duty cycle = 60%). Determine the changes in these values if the frequency is increased to 2 kHz or the inductance is increased to 20 mH.

To determine the DC component of the load current and the peak-to-peak ripple in the load:

Calculate the inductor current during the on-time of the chopper:

I_Lon = (V * Ton) / L, where V is the input voltage, Ton is the on-time, and L is the inductance.Given V = 240 V, L = 10 mH, and duty cycle = 60% (Ton = 0.6 * T, where T is the switching period).

Calculate the inductor current during the off-time of the chopper:

I_Loff = I_Lon * (1 - duty cycle) = I_Lon * (1 - 0.6).

Calculate the average load current (DC component):

I_avg = I_Lon * duty cycle + I_Loff * (1 - duty cycle).

Calculate the peak-to-peak ripple in the load current:

   I_ripple = I_Lon - I_Loff.

If the frequency is increased to 2 kHz:

Calculate the new on-time:

Ton_new = Ton * (f_new / f_old) = Ton * (2 kHz / 1 kHz).

Repeat steps 1-4 from part (a) using the new on-time value.

If the inductance value is increased to 20 mH:

Repeat steps 1-4 from part (a) using the new inductance value of 20 mH.

Please note that for accurate calculations, the units must be consistent (e.g., convert mH to H).

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《Principle of Communication》
7. What is the difference between strict stationary random process and generalized random process? How to decide whether it is the ergodic stationary random process or not. (8 points)

Answers

Strict stationary random processes have constant statistical properties, while generalized random processes allow for variations over time. To determine ergodic stationarity, ensemble and time averages are compared.

A strict stationary random process assumes that all statistical properties, such as mean, variance, and autocorrelation, are time-invariant. This means that the statistical characteristics of the process do not change with time. In contrast, a generalized random process relaxes the requirement for time invariance and allows statistical properties to vary over time.

Determining if a random process is ergodic and stationary involves comparing ensemble averages and time averages. Ergodicity implies that the statistical properties obtained from ensemble averages, which involve averaging over different realizations of the process, are equal to those obtained from time averages, which involve averaging over time for a single realization. If the two averages yield similar statistical results, the process is considered ergodic and stationary.

The decision on whether a random process is ergodic and stationary relies on statistical analysis and mathematical calculations. It involves comparing the ensemble and time averages of key statistical parameters such as mean, autocorrelation function, and power spectral density. If the statistical properties obtained from both averages are consistent, the process can be classified as ergodic and stationary.

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Using saturated liquid water in a humidifier, it is desired to add 0.5 lbm of water vapor to each pound of perfectly dry air flowing at the rate of 4500 cfm. Assuming a value of 1500 Btu/ibm for the enthalpy of vaporization of water, estimate the rate of latent energy input necessary to perform this humidification of the airstream, and the air specific volume 13.5 ft/bm

Answers

The rate of latent energy input necessary to perform the humidification of the airstream is estimated to be 75,937.5 Btu/h.

The rate of latent energy input required for the humidification process can be estimated using the formula:

Latent energy input (Btu/h) = Mass flow rate of water vapor (lbm/h) * Enthalpy of vaporization of water (Btu/lbm)

First, let's calculate the mass flow rate of water vapor:

Mass flow rate of water vapor (lbm/h) = Mass flow rate of dry air (lbm/h) * Desired water vapor to air ratio

Given:

Mass flow rate of dry air = 4500 cfm * 13.5 ft³/lbm * (1 lbm/60 min) = 101.25 lbm/h

Desired water vapor to air ratio = 0.5 lbm water vapor/lbm dry air

Mass flow rate of water vapor = 101.25 lbm/h * 0.5 lbm/lbm = 50.625 lbm/h

Now, let's calculate the latent energy input:

Enthalpy of vaporization of water = 1500 Btu/lbm

Latent energy input = 50.625 lbm/h * 1500 Btu/lbm = 75,937.5 Btu/h

Therefore, the rate of latent energy input necessary for this humidification process is estimated to be 75,937.5 Btu/h.

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Calculate the de Broglie wavelength of an electron under an acceleration voltage of 150 V. ( λ=ℎ/rho )
e = 1.6022 x 10^-19 C, me = 9.1094 x 10^-31 kg, h = 6.6261 x 10^-34 J·s

Answers

The de Broglie wavelength of an electron under an acceleration voltage of 150 V is approximately 4.86 x 10⁻¹⁰ meters.

To calculate the de Broglie wavelength of an electron, we can use the formula λ = h / p, where λ is the de Broglie wavelength, h is Planck's constant, and p is the momentum of the electron. The momentum of an electron can be determined using the equation p = √(2mE), where p is the momentum, m is the mass of the electron, and E is the energy.

Given the acceleration voltage of 150 V, we can find the energy by multiplying the charge of an electron (e = 1.6022 x 10⁻¹⁹ C) by the acceleration voltage (V). So, E = eV.

Next, we can calculate the momentum using the equation p = √(2mE). Plugging in the values for the electron's mass (me = 9.1094 x 10⁻³¹kg) and the calculated energy (E), we can find the momentum.

Once we have the momentum, we can substitute it into the de Broglie wavelength formula, λ = h / p, along with Planck's constant (h = 6.6261 x 10⁻³⁴ J·s), to obtain the de Broglie wavelength of the electron.

In this case, the de Broglie wavelength of the electron is approximately 4.86 x 10⁻¹⁰ meters.

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What are common use items?
a materials or components used in more than one product b materials or components with the highest inventory levels c tools used by multiple workstations d tools used most often

Answers

Common use items are materials or components used in more than one product or across multiple products, and they often have high inventory levels and are utilized by multiple workstations.

What are common use items and how are they utilized in manufacturing processes?

Common use items refer to materials or components that are used in more than one product or across multiple products in a manufacturing or production setting.

These items are typically shared resources that are utilized in various stages of production or assembly processes.

Common use items can include raw materials, semi-finished components, or standardized parts that are used repeatedly in different products or workstations.

They are often managed and tracked separately due to their high inventory levels and critical importance in ensuring smooth operations and efficient production.

Effective management of common use items involves optimizing inventory levels, implementing standardized processes, and ensuring their availability to support multiple workstations and production lines.

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Calculate the peak rectified voltage obtained from the 60−hz supply and the dc voltage across the filter capacitor. If a 600uF capacitor provides a load current of 250 mA, at a 9% ripple

Answers

the peak rectified voltage obtained from the 60 Hz supply is approximately 169.7 V, and the DC voltage across the filter capacitor is approximately 154.43 V.

To calculate the peak rectified voltage obtained from a 60 Hz supply, we need to consider the relationship between the peak voltage and the RMS voltage. The formula for converting RMS voltage to peak voltage is:

Peak voltage = RMS voltage × √2

For a 60 Hz supply, the RMS voltage is typically given as 120 V. Therefore, the peak voltage is:

Peak voltage = 120 V × √2 ≈ 169.7 V

Now, let's calculate the DC voltage across the filter capacitor. The formula to determine the DC voltage across the capacitor in a rectifier circuit with a smoothing capacitor and load resistance is:

Vdc = Vpeak − Vripple

Where:

Vdc is the DC voltage across the capacitor,

Vpeak is the peak voltage, and

Vripple is the voltage ripple.

Given that the voltage ripple is 9% and the load current is 250 mA, we can calculate the voltage ripple as follows:

Vripple = Vpeak × (ripple percentage / 100)

= 169.7 V × (9 / 100)

≈ 15.27 V

Finally, we can calculate the DC voltage across the filter capacitor:

Vdc = Vpeak − Vripple

= 169.7 V − 15.27 V

≈ 154.43 V

Therefore, the peak rectified voltage obtained from the 60 Hz supply is approximately 169.7 V, and the DC voltage across the filter capacitor is approximately 154.43 V.

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How
many XHHW-2, #1 AWG wires, can fit into 2 inch EMT conduit? _____
NEC

Answers

The number of XHHW-2, #1 AWG wires that can fit into a 2-inch EMT conduit varies and depends on factors such as conduit fill capacity and installation conditions.

What factors determine the maximum number of wires that can be safely installed in a 2-inch EMT conduit?

The NEC (National Electrical Code) does not provide a specific guideline for the number of XHHW-2, #1 AWG wires that can fit into a 2-inch EMT conduit.

The number of wires that can fit depends on factors such as the fill capacity of the conduit and any derating requirements based on the specific installation conditions.

It is recommended to consult the manufacturer's specifications or a professional electrician to determine the appropriate wire fill for the conduit.

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Identify the following Cloud computing services that provide virtual machines, hardware and operating systems which may be controlled through a service API.
Software-as-a-Service (SaaS)
Platform-as-a-Service (PaaS)
Infrastructure-as-a-Service (IaaS)
None of the above

Answers

The Cloud computing services that provide virtual machines, hardware and operating systems which may be controlled through a service API:

Infrastructure-as-a-Service (IaaS).

IaaS is a type of cloud computing service that provides virtual machines, hardware, and operating systems, which can be managed through a service API. IaaS allows organizations to manage and control their own infrastructure while outsourcing the maintenance and support of the underlying hardware and software infrastructure.

Therefore, the correct option is "Infrastructure-as-a-Service (IaaS)".

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