When a 6-bit D/A converter is given a binary input of 100100, which is the decimal equivalent of 51, it will output a voltage circuit of 1.8 volts.
When the binary input is 100100, a 6-bit D/A converter will generate an output voltage of 1.8 volts. This binary input consists of six binary digits, each of which denotes a 0 or a 1. Each digit to the right after the first is one less significant, making the leftmost digit the most important bit. In this instance, the leftmost 1 represents a value of 32, followed by the next 1 representing 16, the subsequent 0 representing 8, the subsequent 0 representing 4, the subsequent 1 representing 2, and the last 1 representing 1. These values add up to 51, which is the decimal representation of the binary number 100100. Consequently, the decimal number of 1.8 volts corresponds to the output voltage.
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what is the interval distance between cleanouts along a lateral line
The correct answer is There must be cleanouts every 100 feet along the sewer lateral run.
Every 100 feet along large sections of pipe, a cleanout is necessary. This measurement is made from the point where the horizontal drainage pipe connects to the building sewer to its highest point. Except for cleanouts for pipe bigger than 4 inches (102 mm), which need not be greater than 4 inches, cleanouts must be the same size as the piping they service (102 mm). It will probably emerge from the earth outside of your house, somewhere between the foundation and the street. The area closest to the bathroom on the side of the house may also be where the cleanout is. Although these are uncommon for most homes, cleanout access ports might potentially be concealed by drywall or positioned in the basement.
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A complex airborne navigating system incorporates a subassembly which unrolls a map of the flight plan synchronously with the movement of the aeroplane. This assembly is bought on very good terms from a subcontractor, but is not always in perfect adjustment
on delivery. The subassemblies can be readjusted on delivery to guarantee accuracy at a cost of Rs. 50 per subassembly. It is not, however, possible to distinguish visually those subassemblies that need adjustment.
Alternatively, the subassemblies can each be tested electronically at a cost of Rs. 10 per subassembly tested. Past experience shows that about 30% of those supplied are defective; the probability of the test indicating a bad adjustment when the subassembly is faulty is 0.8, while the probability that the test indicates a good adjustment when the subassembly is properly adjusted is 0.7. If the adjustment is not made and the subassembly is found to be faulty when the system has its final check, the cost of subsequent rectification will be Rs. 140.
Draw up an appropriate decision tree to show the alternatives open to the purchaser and use it to determine his course of action.
To minimize cost, purchaser should choose to test each subassembly electronically and only readjust the faulty ones, as the expected cost of this option is less than readjusting all or readjusting none.
The problem is to decide whether to readjust all the subassemblies at a cost of Rs. 50 per subassembly or to test each subassembly electronically at a cost of Rs. 10 per subassembly tested. The past experience shows that 30% of the subassemblies are faulty. The probability of the test indicating a bad adjustment when the subassembly is faulty is 0.8, while the probability of the test indicating a good adjustment when the subassembly is properly adjusted is 0.7. If the adjustment is not made and the subassembly is found to be faulty when the system has its final check, the cost of subsequent rectification will be Rs. 140.
The decision tree for this problem can be drawn as follows:
Level 1: Readjust all subassemblies (cost = 50 * number of subassemblies) or test each subassembly (cost = 10 * number of subassemblies)
Level 2 (if readjust all): Final check is passed (no cost) or Final check is failed (cost = 140 * number of failed subassemblies)
Level 2 (if test each): Test result is good (no cost) or Test result is bad (cost = 140 * number of failed subassemblies)
Level 3 (if test result is bad): Subassembly is faulty (cost = 140) or Subassembly is properly adjusted (no cost)
By using the probabilities and costs mentioned in the problem statement, the expected costs for each of the alternatives can be calculated and compared. The alternative with the lower expected cost will be the preferred option.
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compare and contrast the following instruments self operated and power operated
Answer:
Self-operated instruments are tools or devices that are manually operated by the user. They are powered by the user's own physical movement or energy, such as turning a hand crank or pushing a lever. Examples of self-operated instruments include hand-crank drills, hand-held saws, and manual lawn mowers.
Power-operated instruments, on the other hand, are tools or devices that are powered by an external source, such as electricity or gasoline. They are operated by turning on a switch or pressing a button, and the power source does the work. Examples of power-operated instruments include electric drills, power saws, and gas-powered lawn mowers.
One major difference between self-operated and power-operated instruments is the amount of effort required to use them. Self-operated instruments require more physical exertion from the user, while power-operated instruments require less. Additionally, power-operated instruments may be more efficient and able to complete tasks more quickly than self-operated instruments. However, power-operated instruments often require more maintenance and may be more expensive to purchase and operate
Explanation:
give a truth table for each expression. (a) (¬p ∧ q) → p (b) (p → q) → (q → p) (c) (p ∨ q) ↔ (q → ¬p) (d) (p ↔ q) ⊕ (p ↔ ¬q) (e) (p ∨ q) ↔ (q ∧ p)
We would need to go through the statement step-by-step, dealing with each logical quantifier individually, in order to determine the truth value of it when p=T and q=F.
~p∧q We start by determining the truth value of p because negations are always executed first. We need to have p=F if p=T. Since we have already completed p, we can now combine p's truth value with q's truth value to determine p's and q's truth values. (Remember that a "and" statement can only be true if both of the statements on each side are true.)The truth value of p is T if we look at the first row. As a result, F must be the true value of p in this row. Simply recall the negation's definition to understand why this is the case. Consider it this way: Let's say that p stands for the sentence "It's pouring." Then, p stands for the claim that it is not raining. When it is true that it is raining (p=T), it must always be untrue (p=F) when it is not raining.
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a 4 pole, lap-wound dc armature, the back pitch is 17. if the winding is progressive what is the front pitch?
The front pitch is determined by subtracting one from the rear pitch and multiplying it by the number of poles in the armature energy The front pitch in this instance is 17 x 4 - 1 = 67.
The rear pitch is calculated by dividing the number of armature slots by the armature's number of poles. The back pitch in this instance is 17. Calculating the front pitch involves dividing the rear pitch by the armature's pole count, minus one. This is so because the armature coils are coiled in a specified order and the winding is progressive. Always one less than the front pitch is the rear pitch. If the back pitch is 10, for instance, the front pitch is 10 x 4 - 1 = 39. The front pitch in this instance is 17 x 4 - 1 = 67. This is due to the progressive winding and the armature's four poles. By dividing the number by the back pitch
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Brinell hardness tests were made on a random sample of 10 steel parts during processing. The results were H_B values of 252 (2), 260, 254, 257 (2), 249 (3), and 251. Estimate the mean and standard deviation of the ultimate strength in kpsi.
The Rockwell, Vicker's Diamond, and Brinell tests are the three that are most frequently employed. Each of the three techniques involves indenting the material.
Calculating the hardness involves measuring the applied force and comparing it to an element of the indentation's geometry, such as its surface area or depth. The Brinell hardness test method is described in ASTM E10 and is used to determine Brinell hardness. Most frequently, it is used to test materials whose structure or surface is too coarse or rough to be evaluated using another test method, such as castings and forgings.
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for a particle with curvilinear motion, its acceleration is always tangential or parallel to which of the following :
a. path motion
b. velocity vector
c. hodograph
d. none of the above
e. position vector
An always moves in the direction of the path's concave side. The vector's velocity is altered by normal acceleration. (A=-0.2ti+2j+1.5k)m/s2, where t is in s, is the acceleration of an object moving curvilinearly.
Find the magnitude of the object's velocity at time t=3 seconds if the starting velocity is vo = 8i m/s and the initial position is at the origin. The velocity's temporal rate of change in magnitude is represented by the tangential component. 2) The particle goes steadily in a straight line. The rate at which the velocity is changing over time is represented by the normal component. and at time t = 0 are the particle's starting position and speed.
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Using Figure 16.14, select the minimum-length boom required to
hoist a load of 80,000 lbs from a truck at ground level and place it
on a platform 76 ft above the ground. The minimum allowable
vertical distance from the bottom of the load to the boom point of
the crane is 42 ft. The maximum horizontal distance from the center
of rotation of the crane to the hoist line of the crane when lifting the
load is 40 ft.
By dividing the applied force by the sine of the angle and multiplying the result by the horizontal component of the tension force.
What is tension force?The physical object that has in contact with another one can apply forces to that object. Depending on the types of objects in contact, we name these contact forces differently.
The process of pulling water from a well is one of the clearest examples of tension forces. It makes use of a rope that is attached to the pulley with one end and the bucket handle with the other.
Therefore, By dividing the applied force by the sine of the angle and multiplying the result by the horizontal component of the tension force.
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Asynchronous communications does not happen in real time.a. True
b. False
Answer:
Asynchronous communication is communication between teammates that do not occur in real-time. To be sure, async communication is nothing new. If you've ever sent an email, replied to a Slack message sent earlier in the day, or simply received and responded to a voicemail, you've engaged in asynchronous communication.
Explanation:
Brainliest pls
design a 32k 8 memory subsystem with high-order interleaving using 16k 4 eprom memory chips for a computer system with a 16-bit address bus.
A machine with 32k memory can store 32,768 bytes of data. The abbreviation "k" is frequently used to indicate "kilobyte," which is a unit of data storage equal to 1,024 bytes.
As a result, a 32k RAM represents 32 * 1,024 = 32,768 bytes of data. 16GB: Excellent for Windows and MacOS systems, as well as gaming, especially if it has fast RAM. 32GB: This is the sweet spot for pros. Gamers might also get a minor performance boost in some demanding games. 64GB and above: Only for enthusiasts and purpose-built workstations. 8-bit CPUs employ an 8-bit data bus and may thus access 8 bits of data in a single machine command. Due to practical and theoretical considerations, the address bus is normally a double octet (16-bit) wide.
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What are considered the primary advantages of fpgas?
The primary advantages of FPGAs include:
Low power consumptionHigh performanceFlexibilityLow costRapid prototypingExplanation of the main advantages of fpgas:
Low power consumption: FPGAs can significantly reduce power consumption compared to traditional processors and ASICs.High performance: FPGAs are able to perform computations at very high speeds and can be customized for specific tasks, making them very efficient for certain applications.Flexibility: FPGAs are highly configurable and can be easily reprogrammed for different tasks, allowing for greater flexibility in development.Low cost: FPGAs are relatively inexpensive, making them a cost-effective option for many applications.Rapid prototyping: FPGAs can be quickly programmed, allowing for rapid prototyping and development.Learn more about fpgas:
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Determine the value of Thevenin voltage.
Answer:
Vth = 48V
Explanation:
Explanation can be found in attached image
a capacitor has a capacitance of 55.0 μf. if you want to store 155 j of electric energy in this capacitor, what potential difference do you need to apply to the plates?
Potential difference need to be apply to plates of capacitors is 5.63.
The capacitor is a two-terminal electrical device that stores energy in the form of electric charges.
C=55.0μf
E=155j
E=1/2cv^2
E=1/2*55.0*v^2=155
v=155*2/55.0=5.63v
potential difference is 5.63v.
The energy stored in a capacitor is nothing but the electric potential energy and is related to the voltage and charge on the capacitor. If the capacitance of a conductor is C, then it is initially uncharged and it acquires a potential difference V when connected to a battery.
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a 4.5 μc charge is 23 cm to the right of a – 8.2 μc charge. at the midpoint between the two charges, a) what are the potential and b) the electric field?
Potential and electric field from the given information is 16 and 64 of the two capacitor.
The capacitor is a two-terminal electrical device that stores energy in the form of electric charges.
O=23cm
AO=23/2=11.5cm
BO=11.5cm
V=KQ/AO + KQ/BO
V=9*10^9(4.5/11.5 + -8.2/11.5)
V=64V
1/C=1/C1+1/C2
1/C=1/4.5 + 1/-8.2
1/C=0.100
C=1μc
Q=CV=1*64=64
In a simple parallel-plate capacitor, a voltage applied between two conductive plates creates a uniform electric field between those plates.
The electric potential, like the electric field, exists at all points inside the capacitor.
The electric potential is created by the source charges on the capacitor plates and exists whether or not charge q is inside the capacitor.
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Which of the following occurs in a file system or list when we remove 1 record/row but lose data about two or more subjects? deletion anomaly.
Deletion anomaly is a type of data anomaly that occurs in a file system or list when we remove one record/row but lose data about two or more subjects.
This type of anomaly can occur in a variety of situations, such as when deleting a customer record from a customer list, or a student record from a student list.
When this happens, important data about the deleted record is lost, and the file or list may become inconsistent or inaccurate. To avoid deletion anomalies, it is important to ensure that all relevant data is included in any records/rows that are deleted, and that the integrity of the file or list is maintained.
Complete question:
Which of the following occurs in a file system or list when we remove 1 record/row but lose data about two or more subjects?
Deletion anomalyData independenceAuthenticationLearn more about Deletion anomaly:
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calculate the thermal conductivity of air, hydrogen, and carbon dioxide at 300 k, assuming ideal gas behavior. compare your calculated values to values from table a.4.
The thermal conductivity of air, hydrogen and carbon dioxide at 300 k is is 0.024 w/mk., 0.173w/mk. and 0.0159 w/mk.
The thermal conductivity of ideal gas is given by,
k = [tex]\frac{9r-5}{4}[/tex] * [tex]\frac{Cv}{\pi d^{2} }[/tex] [tex]\sqrt{} \frac{MKeT}{N\pi }[/tex] ....................... equation (1)
r = specific hear ratio
N = Avogodro's Number = 6.022 × [tex]10^{23}[/tex]
Ke = Boltzman constant = 1.381 ×[tex]10^{-23}[/tex] J/K
From properties of air from the table properties of gases,
r = 4/3 = 1.33
Cv = Cp/r = 1.007/1.33
= 0.755 KJ/kg
The value of molecular weight of air and diameter of gases from the graph "the temperature dependence of thermal conductivity"
d = 0.372 nm
M = 28.97 kg/kmol
Using equation 1 ,
k = [tex]\frac{9(1.33)-5}{4}[/tex] * [tex]\frac{0.755*10^{3} }{\pi (0.372 * 10^{-9})^{2} }[/tex] [tex]\sqrt{} \frac{28.97}{1000}[/tex]
= 0.024 w/mk.
The thermal conductivity of air is 0.024 w/mk.
For hydrogen,
The properties of hydrogen from the table "properties of gases"
r = 1.4
Cv = 14.31/1.4
= 10.22 KJ/kg
The value of molecular weight of hydrogen and diameter of the gases from the graph " The temperature dependence of thermal conductivity of selected gases"
d = 0.274 nm
M = 2.016 kg/kmol.
Using equation 1 we get
k = 0.173w/mk. for hydrogen
For carbon dioxide,
The properties of carbon dioxide from the table "properties of gases"
r = 1.3
Cv = Cp/r
= 0.851/1.3
= 0.6546 KJ/kg
d = 0.464 nm
M = 44.01 kg/kmol
Using equation 1 ,
k = 0.0159 w/mk.
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in heat mode, which check valve will be in the closed position when operating correctly
Check valves in heat pumps are utilized to turn off or turn on expansion devices for the heating and cooling modes. The expansion device may have an internal or external check valve integrated into it.
On a heating system, where is the check valve located?There are two of what I believe to be check valves above the boiler where the piping turns horizontal on both loops. They contain arrows that indicate the direction of the flow and a lever that may be moved to indicate either "Open," "Winter," or "Closed."
How do heating valves work?In central heating systems, motorized valves use electricity to send water from the boiler to the appropriate location, which may be the heating circuit for your home's radiators or the cylinder coil for the hot water.
What kinds of heating valves are there?Radiator valves can be divided into three categories based on how they function: Smart, Thermostatic, and Manual.
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1. Consider an air-standard Diesel cycle. At the beginning of compression, p; = 14.0 Ibf/in? and T, = 520°R. The mass of air is 0.145 Ib and the compression ratio is 17. The maximum temperature in the cycle is 4000°R. Determine (a) the heat addition, in Btu. (b) the thermal efficiency. (c) the cutoff ratio. 2. Solve Problem 1 on a cold air-standard basis with specific heats evaluated at 520°R.
The heat addition is 102.527 Btu, the thermal efficiency is 0.5295 and the cutoff ratio is 2.607.
We have an air-standard Diesel cycle. The initial pressure and temperature are equal to:
p1 = 14 lbf/in²
T1 = 520°R
The mass of working air, the compression ratio and the maximum cycle temperature are equal to:
m = 0.145 lbm
r = 17
T3 = 4000°R
Cross-referencing in table A-22E against temperature T1 we find the the internal energy and relative volume at point 1:
u1 = 88.62 Btu/ lbm
vr1 = 158.58
We find the relative volume at point 2 from the compression ratio:
r = V1/V2 = vr1/vr2
= vr2 = vr1/r
= 158.58/17
vr2 = 9.328
Cross-referencing in table A-22E against vr2 we can find the enthalpy and temperature at point 2, we see that we need to interpolate between the values from the next table:
vr ℎ(Btu/lbm) T(°R)
9.578 374.47 1520
8.89 385.08 1560
After interpolation we find:
ℎ2 = 381.22 Btu/lbm
T2 =1534.53°R
c) We find the cutoff ratio from the fact that we have a constant pressure process between points 2 and 3 and using the ideal gas eq. :
V2/T2 = m.R/p2 = V3/T3
re = V3/V2 = T3/T2
= 4000°R/1534.53°R
= 2.607
a) We can find the enthalpy and relative volume at point 4 by cross-referencing in table A-22E against temperature Tr33:
ℎ3 = 1088.3Btu/lbm
vr3 = 0.4518
The amount of absorbed heat is equal to:
Qin = m.(h3 - h2)
= 0.145lbm⋅(1088.3Btu/lbm−381.22Btu/lbm)
= 102.527 Btu
b) We will need the next relationship that we derive from the fact the the volume at point 1 and point 4 is the same:
V4/V3 = V1/V3 = V1/V2 . V2/V3 = r/re
Using the previous expression we can find the relative volume at point 4:
V4/V3 = vr4/vr3 = r/rc
vr4 = vr3 . r/rc
= 0.4518 . 17/2.607
= 2.946
Cross-referencing in table A-22E against vr4 we find the internal energy at point 4, we see that we need to interpolate between the values from the next table:
vr u(Btu/lbm)
2.961 420.46
2.765 431.16
After interpolation we find:
u4 = 421.28Btu/lbm
The amount of rejected heat is equal to:
Qout = m.(u4 - u1)
= 0.145lbm⋅(421.28Btu/lbm−88.62Btu/lbm)
The net work output is equal to then:
Wnet = Qin − Qout
=102.527Btu−48.236Btu
= 54.291
The coefficient of thermal efficiency we find from the definition:
n = Wnet/Qin
= 54.291Btu/102.527Btu
= 0.5295
Qin = 102.527 Btu
η=0.5295
re = 2.607
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to examine the relationship between zip code and household income, we can use a. counts, percentages and corresponding charts of the counts b. scatterplots c. correlations d. box-whisker plots
Scatterplots can be used to examine the relationship between zip code and household income. Data visualization that depicts the relationship between two numerical variables is known as a scatterplot.
The values of the two variables for each member of the dataset are represented by a point whose coordinates are left parenthesis, x, comma, y, and right parenthesis.
Scatter plots are primarily used to analyze and present correlations between two numerical variables. When the data are viewed as a whole, the patterns shown by the dots in a scatter plot are in addition to the values of the individual data points.
With scatter plots, correlational correlations are frequently identified. In these situations, we want to know what a decent vertical value prediction would be given a specific horizontal value. The variable on the vertical axis is frequently referred to as the dependent variable and the variable on the horizontal axis is an independent variable. Positive or negative, strong or weak, linear or nonlinear, are just a few of the different categories that can be used to classify variable relationships.
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A Triangular gutter, whose side include an angle of 60° conveys water at a uniform depth of 4m. If the slope of the bed is 1 in 1000. Find the the rate of water. Take Chezys constant,C=55.
Let x = depth of the gutter
then
18 - 2x = width of the gutter
Cross section area
A = depth x width
= x(18 - 2x)
A = 18x - 2x^2
Axis of symmetry will give x value for max area:
x = -b/(2a)
x = -18/(2x(-2))
x = 4.5 inches is the depth for max area
Max area: 4.5 * 9 = 40.5 sq/in
What is rectangle?It has been defined as two-dimensional geometry in which the angle between the adjacent sides has 90 degrees. It has the type of quadrilateral.
The perimeter of the rectangle is defined as the length of the circumference or outline of the geometry. It is the sum of all side measures.
Therefore, Axis of symmetry will give x value for max area:
x = -b/(2a)
x = -18/(2x(-2))
x = 4.5 inches is the depth for max area
Max area: 4.5 * 9 = 40.5 sq/in
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Which one of the following rules, laws, or principles describes how the net electric charge of an isolated system undergoing any process remains constant?
The Law of Conservation of Charge is a fundamental principle in electromagnetism that states that the net electric charge of an isolated system undergoing any process remains constant.
This means that the total electric charge present in a system before a process begins is equal to the total electric charge present in the system after the process has ended. This law applies to all physical processes, regardless of whether they are electrical, chemical, or mechanical in nature.The conservation of charge is a fundamental concept in electrical engineering and is used to analyze and design a wide range of electrical and electronic systems. It helps engineers understand the behavior of charged particles and their interactions with other charged particles, allowing them to make predictions about the behavior of electrical systems and design circuits that meet specific requirements. The law of conservation of charge is a cornerstone of the field of electromagnetism and is essential for understanding a wide range of physical phenomena.
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In its natural state, a moist soil has a volume of 0.33 ft3 and weights 39.93 lb. The oven-dried weight of the soil is 34.54 lb. If Gs = 2.67, calculate (6 points): a. Moisture content (%) b. Moist unit weight (lb/ft3) c. Dry unit weight (lb/ft3) d. Void ratio e. Porosity f. Degree of saturation (%)
The volume and weight of moist soil in its natural form are 0.33 ft3 and 39.93 lb, respectively. 34.54 lb is the soil's oven-dry weight.
Calculate the moisture content, moist unit weight, dry unit weight, void ratio, porosity, and level of saturation in the event that Gs = 2.67. A soil that is 0.2 ft3 in size weighs 23 lb when it is moist. The soil solids' specific gravity is found in the lab to be 2.7 and their moisture content is found to be 11%. By deducting the weight of the dry soil from the weight of the moist soil and dividing the result by the weight of the dry soil, you can determine the moisture content of the soil. The measurement is straightforward, but it's crucial to know the moisture content of the soil because it's necessary.
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oshould the tools that edabi develops be flexible or structured? what does an empowered managerial class mean for data scientists and engineers building tools?
To enable the empowerment of data scientists and engineers, tools should be adaptable. An empowered management class means more control over information and resources, which promotes innovation and development.
It's crucial to make sure tools are adaptable enough to suit the changing requirements of data scientists and engineers while creating them. This entails developing a system that enables data scientists and engineers to customise tools and data in order to make the necessary adjustments to stay current with emerging trends and technology. An empowered managerial class can foster a more creative and collaborative atmosphere by having more influence over how data and tools are used. This can make sure that data engineers and scientists have the resources and assistance they need to create products that are functional for their company. Data scientists and engineers are also empowered by an empowered managerial class to make educated judgements.
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when events or conditions have been identified to cast significant doubt on the entity’s ability to continue as a going concern, the auditor should-
Perform additional audit procedures and decide whether any disclosures about the going concern uncertainty amount should be disclosed in the financial statements.
The auditor has a duty to assess the risks related to the entity's capacity to continue when circumstances have been uncovered that raise serious concerns about the ability of the business to continue as a going concern. To gather enough relevant evidence about the entity's ability to function as a going concern, the auditor should broaden the scope of their audit methods. In order to show that the entity will be able to pay its debts, this entails analysing the entity's financial plans and sources of support. The auditor should think about whether any disclosures need to be made in the financial statements if they conclude that there is a going concern doubt. These disclosures must detail the occasions or circumstances .
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show that every graph with two or more nodes and no self-loops contains two nodes that have equal degrees.
Answer:he complete graph with k+1 vertices has degree k, for all vertices, so it is k-regular. Assume the graph G has n vertices. The possibilities for the degree.
Explanation:
The entire network has degree k for all vertices, making it k-regular since it has k+1 vertices. Consider a graph with n vertices, called G. potential options for the degree.
The degrees that can exist in a network with n vertices are 0, 1, 2,..., n 1. There are only n1 possible degrees for n vertices because no graph with n vertices can contain both a vertex of degree 0 and a vertex of degree n1.
A graph's nodes (or animals, groups, cities, nations, etc.) stand in for people, while its lines signify the connections between them. According to mathematics, the line connecting people a and b looks like this: (a,b).
Vertices (also known as nodes or points) make up a graph in this sense, which is connected by edges (also called links or lines). Undirected graphs, in which edges connect two vertices symmetrically, are distinguished from directed graphs, in which edges connect two vertices asymmetrically.
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why are reciprocating engines preferred over other types for small aircraft.
Due to the physical similarities between diesel & kerosene or single cycle efficiency, efficiency part loading, and a quick starter performance, rotary engines are favored above other kinds for tiny aircraft.
What do engines do?An engine is a device that transforms fuel energy into mechanical energy, hence generating motion. In the case of cars, the most common fuels utilized by engines, such as the ones that power them, are gasoline and diesel.
How come it's called an engine?The word "engine" derives from the Latin ingenium, which also refers to mental aptitude or cunning. The term acquired the meanings of inventiveness, contrivance, deception, and malice throughout its transition from French to English.
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how many numbers exist from 1 to 100 that are divisible by both 5 and 2
Answer:10
Explanation:10,20,30,40,50,60,70,80,90,100
Discribe an experiment to determine the frequency, amplitude and period of flywheel in motion
To determine the frequency, amplitude, and period of a flywheel in motion, you can perform the following experiment.
What is the procedure of the experiment?
The following experiment can be used to determine the frequency, amplitude, and period of a moving flywheel:
1. Prepare the apparatus:
Obtain a flywheel and mount it on a stand so it can rotate freely.Connect a motion sensor, such as an accelerometer, to the flywheel and record the data using a computer or data acquisition system.2. Start the flywheel:
Use a motor or other means to start the flywheel rotating.3. Collect data:
Record the motion of the flywheel for a set period of time, typically several seconds.4. Analyze the data:
Use software or manual calculations to determine the frequency, amplitude, and period of the flywheel's motion.The frequency is the number of complete cycles of motion that occur in a given period of time, typically measured in Hertz (Hz).The amplitude is the maximum displacement of the flywheel from its rest position, typically measured in meters.The period is the time it takes for one complete cycle of motion to occur, typically measured in seconds.5. Repeat the experiment:
Repeat the experiment with different initial conditions, such as different speeds or masses, to see how these factors affect the frequency, amplitude, and period.To learn more about flywheel, visit: https://brainly.com/question/12907378
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using a diameter of 0.505 in. and a gage length of 2.000 in., determine the following: a. the modulus of elasticity. b. the proportional limit. c. the ultimate strength. d. the yield strength (0.05-percent offset). e. the yield strength (0.20-percent offset). f. the fracture stress. g. the true fracture stress for a final diameter of 0.425 in. at the location of fracture.
The various mechanical properties as obtained based on the load-deformation behaviour is estimated as follows:
a. the modulus of elasticity - 57.8 kPsi
b. the proportional limit - 67 kPsi
c. the ultimate strength - 97 kPsi
d. the yield strength (0.05% offset) - 15 kPsi
e. the yield strength (0.20% offset) - 61 kPsi
f. the fracture stress - 81 kPsi
g. the true fracture stress if the final diameter of the specimen at the location of the fracture was 0.387 in - 104 kPsi.
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true | false: system board contains sockets, chips, slots, bus lines, and others.
It is true that the system board contains sockets, chips, slots, bus lines, and others. The system board regulates computer system connectivity. The term "system board" refers to the motherboard, the main component of the server that houses the CPU, expansion ports, and the system's RAM (RAM).
The motherboard connects all of the components of the computer and allows for communication between them, acting as the computer's backbone. Without it, none of the computer's parts, including the hard drive, GPU, and CPU, could communicate. The motherboard of a computer must be in perfect working order for it to operate properly.
Chips can be connected to sockets. On a tiny wafer made of layers of silicon and other materials, chips have multiple circuits etched into them. The chip is put on chip carriers. Specialized cards or circuit boards can connect to slots. Specialized cards or circuit boards connect at bus lines.
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