The response of a cell to the presence of insulin depends on if it has insulin receptors at the plasma membrane.
Insulin is a peptide hormone that is produced by beta cells of the pancreas gland. Insulin helps in the regulation of glucose metabolism. It signals the body cells to take up glucose from the bloodstream. The glucose is then used as an energy source or stored in the liver and muscle cells for later use.The insulin receptor is a tyrosine kinase receptor. It is a transmembrane receptor that is made up of two alpha subunits and two beta subunits.
The alpha subunit is the extracellular part of the receptor while the beta subunit is the intracellular part.The response of a cell to insulin depends on if it has insulin receptors at the plasma membrane. If the cell does not have insulin receptors at the plasma membrane, then it cannot respond to the presence of insulin. Hence, option (D) it has insulin receptors at the plasma membrane is the correct answer.
Learn more about plasma membrane:
https://brainly.com/question/19360972
#SPJ11
When Janet came to, she was in a hospital bed in CCU of the local hospital. The doctors advised her that she likely had a disease called Marfan's syndrome. As a result of that disease she had experience cardiac arrest and that she had a mitral valve prolapse Deliverables Answer the following questions and save your responses in a Microsoft Word document provide a scholarly resource to support your answers. 1. What are the four valves found in the heart and where are they located? Give all names for each valve 2. What is a mitral valve prolapse and what causes this in Marfan's syndrome specifically 3. What happens to blood flow (specifically) with a mitral valve prolapse (where would the blood back up to and why? 4. If a person were to have a prolapse of the tricuspid valve, what specifically would happen to the flow of blood in that case? 5. Do you think Janet will ever play basketball again? Why or why not?
1. The four valves in the heart are the mitral valve, tricuspid valve, aortic valve, and pulmonary valve.
2. Marfan's syndrome can contribute to mitral valve prolapse due to weakened connective tissue.
3. Mitral valve prolapse causes blood regurgitation from the left ventricle to the left atrium.
4. Tricuspid valve prolapse leads to blood regurgitation on the right side of the heart.
5. Janet's ability to play basketball depends on her specific condition and recommendations from her medical team.
1. The four valves found in the heart and their locations are as follows:
- Mitral valve (also known as the bicuspid valve): Located between the left atrium and left ventricle.
- Tricuspid valve: Located between the right atrium and right ventricle.
- Aortic valve: Located between the left ventricle and the aorta.
- Pulmonary valve: Located between the right ventricle and the pulmonary artery.
2. Mitral valve prolapse (MVP) is a condition where the mitral valve does not close properly during the contraction of the left ventricle. In Marfan's syndrome, MVP can be caused by the weakening of the connective tissue in the mitral valve due to the underlying genetic abnormalities associated with the syndrome.
3. With a mitral valve prolapse, the blood flow can be affected in the following way: During ventricular contraction, the mitral valve may not close tightly, leading to a backward flow of blood from the left ventricle into the left atrium. This results in a regurgitation of blood, causing it to back up into the left atrium and potentially leading to volume overload and other associated complications.
4. If a person were to have a prolapse of the tricuspid valve, it would lead to a similar outcome as in mitral valve prolapse, but in the right side of the heart. The tricuspid valve is responsible for preventing the backward flow of blood from the right ventricle into the right atrium. With a tricuspid valve prolapse, the valve may not close properly during ventricular contraction, resulting in blood regurgitation and backward flow into the right atrium.
5. The ability for Janet to play basketball again would depend on various factors, including the severity of her Marfan's syndrome, the extent of cardiac involvement, and the recommendations of her medical team. Marfan's syndrome can lead to cardiovascular complications, including the risk of aortic dissection or other potentially life-threatening events. Engaging in high-intensity physical activities such as basketball may carry risks for individuals with significant cardiac involvement. It is crucial for Janet to consult with her healthcare providers to determine the appropriate level of physical activity she can safely engage in.
learn more about "blood ":- https://brainly.com/question/920424
#SPJ11
18 3 points The filtering unit of the nephron is: A renal corpuscle B.renal tubules C. Nephron D. Bowman's capsule. O E. endothelial-capsular membrane. Ёооооо 19 3 points Urine is derived from filtering blood plasma, and is formed by which of the following functions of the nephron(s)? O A. Glomerular filtration, B. Tubular reabsorption. C. Tubular secretion D. All of the above. E. Two of the above.
a. The filtering unit of the nephron is: A. Renal corpuscle.
b. Option A is correct. Urine is derived from filtering blood plasma and is formed by Glomerular filtration of the nephron(s).
The renal corpuscle is the part of the nephron responsible for the initial filtration of blood. It consists of the glomerulus and Bowman's capsule.
Urine is formed through the process of glomerular filtration, which occurs in the renal corpuscle. Subsequently, the filtrate undergoes tubular reabsorption and tubular secretion in the renal tubules, which further modify the composition of urine.
Glomerular filtration involves the filtration of blood plasma through the glomerular filtration barrier, composed of the endothelial cells, basement membrane, and podocytes, into the Bowman's capsule.
Learn more about Nephron
https://brainly.com/question/12307837
#SPJ11
Complete question
a. The filtering unit of the nephron is:
A renal corpuscle
B. renal tubules
C. Nephron
D. Bowman's capsule.
E. endothelial-capsular membrane.
b. Urine is derived from filtering blood plasma, and is formed by which of the following functions of the nephron(s)?
A. Glomerular filtration
B. Tubular reabsorption.
C. Tubular secretion
D. All of the above.
E. Two of the above.
1) 13- Regarding active transport, which of the following is not TRUE: a Primary active transport is a movement of substances against concentration electric" gradient. b- Co-transport is the movement of two substances in one direction. c. In Secondary active transport the two substances are moved actively. d- In Secondary active transport one substance is moved actively & the other substance is moved passively.
Active transport is a biological process in which solutes are moved across a cell membrane, against a concentration gradient, by a molecular pump.
This process requires energy in the form of ATP, which is used by the pump to move molecules from low concentration to high concentration. Regarding active transport, the following statements are true except:In Secondary active transport the two substances are moved actively. The correct statement is "In Secondary active transport one substance is moved actively and the other substance is moved passively.
In secondary active transport, one substance moves against its concentration gradient, which is powered by the concentration gradient of another substance that moves with its concentration gradient. In co-transport, both solutes move in the same direction across the membrane. On the other hand, in primary active transport, ATP is used directly to move a solute against its concentration gradient.
To learn more about Cell membrane visit here:
brainly.com/question/13524386
#SPJ11
Each division of the PNS has specific functions. Sorteach function into the bin that correctly matches it with the division of the PNS.
(View Available Hintis) 1. Taste 2. Kidney pain 3. Innervation of smooth muscle 4. Skeletal muscle innervation 5. Temperature of skin 6. Innervation of heart 7. Autonomic nervous system 8. Chemical change of blood 9. Stretch of stornach 10. Proprioception of limbs 11. Touch and pressure 12. Hearing a) Somatic sensory b) Visceral sensong c) Somatic motor d) Visceral motor
Functions of the different divisions of the Peripheral Nervous System (PNS) are given below:
Somatic sensory
1. Touch and pressure
2. Proprioception of limbs
3. Taste
4. Temperature of skin
Somatic motor
1. Skeletal muscle innervation
Visceral sensory
1. Chemical change of blood
2. Kidney pain
3. Stretch of the stomach
Visceral motor
1. Innervation of smooth muscle
2. Innervation of the heart
3. Autonomic nervous system
The PNS has two divisions, namely the somatic nervous system and the autonomic nervous system.
Somatic Nervous System includes the somatic sensory and somatic motor.
Somatic Sensory nerves carry information from the skin, joints, skeletal muscles, and special senses like sight and hearing.
Somatic Motor nerves, on the other hand, innervate skeletal muscles that are responsible for voluntary muscle contractions, that enable the body to move as per the instructions of the brain.
Learn more about the somatic sensory system:
https://brainly.com/question/27237487
#SPJ11
Nick follows a low protein/low calcium diet as his grandma insists this diet is the key to a long life. He plans on living this lifestyle for the rest of his life.Considering his current lifestyle, what modifications could Nick make for the rest of his life to ensure he ages successfully?
Nick follows a low protein/low calcium diet as his grandma insists this diet is the key to a long life. Modifications Nick could make for the rest of his life to ensure he ages successfully are as follows: Nick could incorporate some foods that are high in protein but low in calcium in his diet, to ensure that his body is receiving the required amount of protein for growth and repair of tissues.
It is essential that the protein that Nick consumes is of high quality; therefore, he could include lean meats, eggs, poultry, beans, peas, soy products, and unsalted nuts in his diet. These foods are excellent sources of high-quality protein. Nick could also consider taking calcium supplements, as calcium is crucial for healthy bones and teeth. Calcium supplements should be taken under the guidance of a doctor to ensure that the appropriate amount is taken. It is vital to eat a balanced and nutritious diet to ensure a healthy and long life, and Nick should consider making some modifications to his diet to improve his overall health.
Learn more about calcium
https://brainly.com/question/30954368
#SPJ11
Provide detailed scientific data to support your argument. Propose two mechanisms to explain how patients with GLUT1 deficiency (G1D) syndrome develop disorders such as seizures, movement disorders, speech disorders, and developmental delays.
GLUT1 (Glucose Transporter Type 1) deficiency syndrome (G1D) is a rare genetic disorder caused by mutations in the SLC2A1 gene. This gene encodes a protein called GLUT1, which helps transport glucose across the blood-brain barrier and into the brain.
This process is critical for the brain's energy needs, and a shortage of glucose in the brain can lead to seizures, movement disorders, speech disorders, and developmental delays. Here are two mechanisms that explain how patients with G1D develop these symptoms:
1. Reduced glucose transport into the brain:Glucose is the primary source of energy for the brain. GLUT1 transports glucose across the blood-brain barrier, which is essential for glucose uptake by the brain. G1D syndrome results in reduced glucose transport into the brain, leading to low glucose levels in the brain (hypoglycemia). Hypoglycemia can cause seizures, movement disorders, speech disorders, and developmental delays.
2. Decreased ATP production:Glucose is metabolized by the brain to produce ATP (Adenosine Triphosphate), which is the energy currency of the body. Decreased glucose uptake in G1D syndrome results in decreased ATP production in the brain. Low ATP levels can cause seizures, movement disorders, speech disorders, and developmental delays. Therefore, the two mechanisms that explain how patients with G1D develop seizures, movement disorders, speech disorders, and developmental delays are reduced glucose transport into the brain and decreased ATP production.
To learn more about blood-brain
https://brainly.com/question/28901625
#SPJ11
• Explain the difference between Excitatory and Inhibitory Synapses • Give an example of an Excitatory and Inhibitory neurotransmitter
The main difference between excitatory and inhibitory synapses is the response they elicit in the postsynaptic neuron. An excitatory synapse increases the probability of an action potential occurring in the postsynaptic neuron, whereas an inhibitory synapse decreases it.
Excitatory neurotransmitters: These neurotransmitters activate or excite the neurons by increasing the chances of an action potential being generated. Glutamate is an example of an excitatory neurotransmitter.Inhibitory neurotransmitters: These neurotransmitters inhibit or decrease the chances of an action potential being generated. GABA (Gamma-Aminobutyric Acid) is an example of an inhibitory neurotransmitter.Example:If a neuron is under the influence of an excitatory neurotransmitter, like glutamate, more positively charged sodium ions will flow into the neuron than negatively charged potassium ions flow out. If enough sodium ions enter the cell to depolarize it past a certain threshold, an action potential will be generated and the message will be transmitted to the next neuron in the chain.
If a neuron is under the influence of an inhibitory neurotransmitter, like GABA, more negatively charged chloride ions will flow into the cell than positively charged sodium ions will flow out, hyperpolarizing the cell and making it more difficult to generate an action potential. So, The main difference between excitatory and inhibitory synapses is the response they elicit in the postsynaptic neuron.
Learn more about inhibitory
https://brainly.com/question/30052085
#SPJ11
Give a general overview for one cycle of the
Na+/K+ pump: what is used, what is moved, and
where.
The Na+/K+ pump is a type of active transport protein that moves Na+ and K+ ions across the cell membrane against their concentration gradients. It is used to maintain the ion balance inside and outside the cell.
For every cycle of the Na+/K+ pump, ATP (adenosine triphosphate) is used to provide energy for the pump's movement. For every cycle of the Na+/K+ pump, three Na+ ions are moved out of the cell and two K+ ions are moved into the cell. The Na+/K+ pump is moved across the cell membrane against the concentration gradient of both ions. Three Na+ ions are moved from the intracellular space to the extracellular space while two K+ ions are moved from the extracellular space to the intracellular space.
In conclusion, the Na+/K+ pump moves three sodium ions out of the cell and two potassium ions into the cell for every cycle. ATP is used to provide the energy needed for the pump to move the ions across the cell membrane against their concentration gradient.
Learn more about transport protein
https://brainly.com/question/30627641
#SPJ11
What property does collagen provide, as a component of bone? Select one: a. elasticity b. hardness c. flexibility d. brittleness e. resistance to compression
The property that collagen provides as a component of bone is resistance to compression. The correct answer is (E).
Collagen is a protein that is located in various parts of our body, including our skin, bones, and tendons. It makes up around 30% of the proteins in our body. Collagen is responsible for maintaining the integrity of the skin and other body tissues, as well as providing them with structure.
Collagen makes up roughly 90% of the organic bone matrix, which is the portion of bone that is not mineralized. The matrix of bones is made up of a combination of collagen fibers and various proteins that aid in mineralization, as well as glycosaminoglycans and proteoglycans that aid in hydration and other functions.
Collagen fibers are the primary source of strength and stability in the bone, providing resistance to compression and tension. Bone mineralization, on the other hand, provides hardness to the bone matrix. In other words, collagen and mineralization work together to give bones their unique mechanical properties.
To learn more about collagen here
https://brainly.com/question/30244632
#SPJ11
Question one correct answer The esophagus is presented on a histological specimen. What is the type of the mucous tunic relief? O Smooth O Crypts O Fields and folds Villi and crypts O Pits and fields
The type of the mucous tunic relief of the esophagus in a histological specimen is Pits and fields. Option d is correct.
What is a histological specimen?Histology is a medical specialty that studies cells and tissues at a microscopic level. The histological examination of tissue is carried out on tissue samples. These samples may come from biopsies, surgical excisions, and autopsies. A histological specimen is a sample of tissue or a biopsy that is taken from a human or an animal and used for medical and pathological examination.
The esophagus is a muscular tube that runs from the pharynx to the stomach. The food bolus passes from the pharynx to the esophagus and is transported to the stomach by peristalsis, which is a series of coordinated muscle contractions.
The mucosa of the esophagus is lined by a stratified squamous epithelium. The mucous tunic contains a network of pits and fields that aid in lubricating the food bolus as it passes down the esophagus. The pits and fields help to trap food particles, and the lubricating mucus aids in the passage of food down the esophagus. Therefore option d is correct answer.
Learn more about pathological
https://brainly.com/question/574840
#SPJ11
What are the antagonist(s) to the muscles that control the
concentric action seen below at the shoulder girdle
(scapulothoracic joint)? for a shrug
A concentric action was observed beneath the shoulder girdle (scapulothoracic joint) for shrugging. The antagonist to the muscles that control the concentric action seen below at the shoulder girdle is the Rhomboid Major and Minor, Levator Scapulae, and Pectoralis Minor muscles.
The Scapulothoracic joint is a pseudo-joint, a practical concept where movement occurs, but no articulation exists between the surfaces of the scapula and the thorax. The scapula, or shoulder blade, is a flat, triangular bone that lies on the posterior thoracic cage's superior region. Its mobility is due to the number of joints and muscles surrounding it. This joint, in combination with the glenohumeral joint, creates the shoulder complex, which is essential for arm and shoulder mobility.
Learn more about scapulothoracic joint: https://brainly.com/question/29403367
#SPJ11
31. before the horomone PTH (parathyroid hormone) is released blood calcium levels are ___, which stimulates PTH release. The target cells for PTH are osteoclasts.
A. decrease
B. constant level
C. increase
41. At the beginning spermatogenesis, the spermatogoniun undergoes a type of all division that produces a second spermatogonium as well as a(an).
A. spermatogoniun
B. Spermatid
C. secondary spermatocyte
D. primary spermatocyte
42. which of the following hormones will help the mother retain water?
A. aldosterone
B. patathyroid hormone
C. oxytocin
D. progesterone
A. decrease
Before the hormone PTH (parathyroid hormone) is released, blood calcium levels decrease, which stimulates PTH release. The target cells for PTH are osteoclasts.
The release of parathyroid hormone (PTH) is regulated by blood calcium levels. When blood calcium levels decrease, it triggers the release of PTH. PTH acts on its target cells, which are osteoclasts, specialized cells responsible for breaking down bone tissue. By targeting osteoclasts, PTH helps to increase blood calcium levels.
PTH plays a crucial role in maintaining calcium homeostasis in the body. It acts on the bones, kidneys, and intestines to regulate calcium levels. In the case of low blood calcium levels, PTH stimulates osteoclast activity, leading to increased bone resorption. Osteoclasts break down bone tissue, releasing calcium into the bloodstream.
Additionally, PTH enhances calcium reabsorption in the kidneys, reducing calcium loss through urine. It also promotes the production of active vitamin D, which increases calcium absorption in the intestines. These actions collectively work to elevate blood calcium levels, restoring them to the optimal range.
Learn more about hormone PTH
brainly.com/question/6335321
#SPJ11
1. Histiocytes, Kupffer cells, and microglial cells are all examples of: _________________________
2. Disease-producing microbes like bacteria and viruses are collectively known as: _____________
3. What often happens to the S-T segment in a person with a heart attack? __________________
4. Failure of a heart valve to close completely is called?___________________________
5. Low levels of which white blood cell may be seen with pregnancy? _________________
6. If an area of the lungs is hypoxic, what would happen to blood flow to that area?_____________
1. The three examples of phagocytic cells are histiocytes, Kupffer cells, and microglial cells.Histiocytes, Kupffer cells, and microglial cells are all phagocytic cells that destroy invading microorganisms and foreign particles.
These are cells that engulf and destroy bacteria and other harmful organisms in the bloodstream, as well as other foreign substances such as cellular debris and dead cells.2. Pathogens are known as disease-causing microbes.Pathogens are disease-causing organisms that include bacteria.
Viruses, fungi, protozoa, and parasites. These microbes may be responsible for a wide range of diseases, such as infections, illnesses, and other health problems.3. In a person with a heart attack, the S-T segment may be elevated or depressed.The S-T segment in a person with a heart attack is often elevated or depressed.
To know more about phagocytic visit:
https://brainly.com/question/30802935
#SPJ11
Interpret the results of the blood typing test. This person has_____blood No agglutination agglutination Anti-A Anti-B Anti-Rh Choose all that apply: Which receptors are found on helper T cells? O CD8 receptors O CD4 receptors O a piece of viral protein O T-cell receptors O an antigen from the microbe A virus is injected into a rabbit and the rabbit is allowed to make antibodies against the viral antigen. These antibodies are then removed from the rabbit plasma and injected into a human to combat an infection by the same virus. This would be an example of O innate immunity O artificially induced passive immunity O artificially induced active immunity O naturally acquired passive immunity, O naturally acquired active immunity Choose all that apply: Which of the following statements are true? O the primary response occurs during the first exposure to a pathogen O the secondary response is usually much more rapid than the primary response O during the primary response, IgG antibodies are most commonly formed O during the secondary response, IgG antibodies are more commonly formed O the primary response to a pathogen usually creates enough antibodies to destroy it Calculate Heart Rate. HR = b/min. Only count complete boxes. Do not count 1/2 boxes. You will need to round your answer. Do not include decimal points.
CD4 receptors are found on helper T cells. CD8 receptors are found on cytotoxic T cells.
This would be an example of:
Artificially induced passive immunity. This is because the antibodies obtained from the rabbit plasma are directly injected into the human to combat the infection, providing immediate protection without the human's immune system actively producing the antibodies.
The secondary response is usually much more rapid than the primary response.
During the primary response, IgG antibodies are not commonly formed. IgM antibodies are typically the first antibodies produced.
During the secondary response, IgG antibodies are more commonly formed.
The blood typing test results indicate that this person has no agglutination, which suggests that they have type O blood and do not have the A or B antigens present on their red blood cells. Additionally, there is no agglutination of the Rh factor, indicating that the person is Rh-negative.
The receptors found on helper T cells are CD4 receptors. These receptors play a crucial role in the immune response by recognizing antigens presented by antigen-presenting cells and activating the immune system.
The scenario described, where antibodies generated in a rabbit against a viral antigen are transferred to a human to combat an infection by the same virus, represents artificially induced passive immunity. The pre-formed antibodies provide immediate protection to the human, but the immune response is temporary since the transferred antibodies will eventually degrade.
The following statements are true:
The primary response occurs during the first exposure to a pathogen.
The secondary response is usually much more rapid and stronger than the primary response.
During the primary response, IgM antibodies are commonly formed.
During the secondary response, IgG antibodies are more commonly formed. The secondary response is characterized by the production of memory B cells, which can quickly differentiate into plasma cells and produce large amounts of IgG antibodies upon re-exposure to the same pathogen.
To learn more about blood typing test, here
https://brainly.com/question/30368244
#SPJ4
What composes the upper and lower respiratory tract?
How can infection in the oral cavity spread to the paranasal sinuses?
The upper respiratory tract (URT) consists of the nasal cavity, paranasal sinuses, nasopharynx, larynx, and oropharynx.
On the other hand, the lower respiratory tract (LRT) comprises the trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, alveoli, and lungs. Respiratory infection is a common and easily transmitted infectious disease that has the potential to spread from the oral cavity to the paranasal sinuses. An infection in the oral cavity can spread to the paranasal sinuses through the nasal cavity. This is because the nasal cavity, paranasal sinuses, and oral cavity are all interconnected.
Respiratory infections may spread from the oral cavity to the paranasal sinuses via the oropharynx. The oropharynx is the part of the throat that lies behind the mouth and contains the tonsils, which are often involved in respiratory infections. As a result, the tonsils may become infected and inflamed, leading to paranasal sinus infections. Hence, it's crucial to maintain good oral hygiene and take preventative measures against respiratory infections to avoid the spread of infectious diseases.
To learn more about the nasopharynx here
https://brainly.com/question/31862275
#SPJ11
2. What molecule(s) make bones flexible? 3. What molecule(s) make bones hard? 4. What are the similarities and differences between osteocytes, osteoblasts and osteoclasts? How do these cells function in bone remodeling?
Collagen molecules make bones flexible. Collagen is a protein fiber that accounts for roughly one-third of bone tissue and is responsible for its pliability.
Collagen, in particular, gives bone its tensile strength, which is essential for its ability to withstand tensile and torsion stress. Collagen, on the other hand, isn't very stiff, and it has little resistance to compression, bending, or shear. Calcium phosphate (Hydroxyapatite) molecules make bones hard. Calcium phosphate and hydroxyapatite crystals are found in bones and give them their hardness. Hydroxyapatite is a mineral that accounts for 70% of bone volume and is primarily responsible for bone hardness.
Osteocytes, osteoblasts, and osteoclasts are all important bone cells that are crucial for bone remodeling. Osteocytes are cells that are surrounded by bone tissue and are derived from osteoblasts. They are responsible for maintaining bone density and strength by signaling the bone-forming osteoblasts to begin bone deposition and the bone-dissolving osteoclasts to stop bone resorption.
Osteoblasts are bone-building cells that synthesize and secrete collagen and other proteins, which they deposit in the bone matrix. They play an important role in bone development, repair, and remodeling by forming new bone tissue.
Osteoclasts, on the other hand, are bone-resorbing cells that dissolve bone tissue. They are involved in the breakdown of bone tissue during bone remodeling and are critical for calcium and phosphate homeostasis. They secrete hydrogen ions and proteolytic enzymes, which dissolve the bone matrix.
The three cell types work together to maintain healthy bones by maintaining a balance between bone deposition and resorption. Osteoblasts form new bone tissue, while osteoclasts resorb or remove old bone tissue. Osteocytes maintain bone density by regulating the activity of osteoblasts and osteoclasts.
Learn more about Collagen:
https://brainly.com/question/28187728
#SPJ11
a. Please select one answer from the parenthesis to complete the sentence.
When a photoreceptor is in the dark, the the on-center bipolar cells will (depolarize or hyperpolarize) , which will lead to (increase or decrease) firing in the on-center ganglion cell.
When a photoreceptor is in the dark, the off-center bipolar cell will (depolarize or hyperpolarize), which will lead to (increase or decrease) firing in the off-center ganglion cell.
When a photoreceptor is in the dark, the on-center bipolar cells will hyperpolarize, which will lead to a decrease in firing in the on-center ganglion cell. When a photoreceptor is in the dark, the off-center bipolar cell will depolarize, which will lead to an increase in firing in the off-center ganglion cell.
In the dark, photoreceptors are not stimulated by light. When a photoreceptor is in the dark, the on-center bipolar cells, which receive input from the photoreceptor, will hyperpolarize. Hyperpolarization means that the bipolar cell's membrane potential becomes more negative, reducing its activity. This hyperpolarization is due to the inhibitory neurotransmitter released by the photoreceptor, which decreases the release of excitatory neurotransmitters onto the bipolar cell. As a result, the on-center ganglion cell, which receives input from the bipolar cell, will also have a decrease in firing rate.
On the other hand, the off-center bipolar cell, which also receives input from the photoreceptor, will depolarize in the dark. Depolarization means that the bipolar cell's membrane potential becomes more positive, increasing its activity. This depolarization is due to the lack of inhibitory neurotransmitter released by the photoreceptor onto the off-center bipolar cell. Consequently, the off-center ganglion cell, which receives input from the depolarized bipolar cell, will experience an increase in firing rate.
Overall, when a photoreceptor is in the dark, the signaling pathway involving on-center bipolar cells and on-center ganglion cells is inhibitory, leading to a decrease in firing. In contrast, the pathway involving off-center bipolar cells and off-center ganglion cells is excitatory, resulting in an increase in firing.
Learn more about bipolar cells
brainly.com/question/30155089
#SPJ11
Question 11 2 pts Based on the baroreceptor reflex, state how the following would respond due to a decrease in blood pressure: [ Select] Stretch of Baroreceptors [ Select] Firing of Action potentials [ Select] Vasomotor Center [ Select] Cardio Acceleratory Center [ Select] Blood vessel diameter [ Select] Heart Rate [ Select] Stroke Volume
[ Select]Cardiac Output [ Select] Blood Pressure [ Select] : increase/decrease
Based on the baroreceptor reflex, stretch of baroreceptors would respond due to a decrease in blood pressure.
What is the baroreceptor reflex?
The baroreceptor reflex is a feedback loop that assists in the maintenance of blood pressure. It is a negative feedback system that operates in response to changes in blood pressure.
The baroreceptor reflex's primary goal is to maintain a steady blood pressure despite fluctuations in vascular resistance and cardiac output.
In the event of a decrease in blood pressure:
Stretch of Baroreceptors: It decreases the firing of action potentials. This is caused by reduced stretching of the carotid arteries' and aortic arches' baroreceptors, which detect changes in arterial pressure. The stimulation frequency of the afferent fibers reduces as baroreceptor activity decreases.
Vasomotor Center: It will respond by increasing sympathetic activity. When the baroreceptors detect a decrease in blood pressure, they generate less action potential activity, leading to a decrease in the frequency of inhibitory signals transmitted to the vasomotor center. This, in turn, increases sympathetic activity.
Cardio Acceleratory Center: It will be activated to increase cardiac output. A decrease in cardiac output activates the cardiac accelerator center in the medulla, which raises sympathetic activity and increases heart rate, contractility, and peripheral vascular resistance.
Blood Vessel Diameter: It decreases, as the sympathetic nervous system is activated, and vasoconstriction occurs, causing a decrease in vessel diameter.
Heart Rate: It increases due to sympathetic nervous system stimulation, leading to a rise in heart rate.
Stroke Volume: It increases because the increase in heart rate causes the heart to pump more blood.
Cardiac Output: It increases due to the increased heart rate and stroke volume.
Blood Pressure: It increases as a result of the increase in cardiac output and peripheral vascular resistance.
Learn more about Baroreceptor Reflex:
https://brainly.com/question/31650055
#SPJ11
Compare a normal EKG with an abnormal one that indicates
tachycardia and explain how it can be used to diagnose the
condition. Explain the symptoms and treatment for that
condition.
A normal electrocardiogram (EKG) represents the electrical activity of the heart and typically shows a regular rhythm and specific waveforms. In contrast, an abnormal EKG indicating tachycardia would show a faster heart rate than the normal range (generally defined as a heart rate greater than 100 beats per minute).
To diagnose tachycardia based on an abnormal EKG, healthcare professionals look for specific EKG characteristics. These include a shortened PR interval (the time it takes for the electrical signal to travel from the atria to the ventricles), narrow QRS complexes (indicating that the electrical signal is originating from the normal conduction pathway), and a fast and regular rhythm.
Symptoms of tachycardia may include palpitations (rapid or irregular heartbeat sensations), shortness of breath, lightheadedness, dizziness, chest discomfort, and in severe cases, loss of consciousness or fainting. However, the symptoms can vary depending on the underlying cause and the individual's overall health.
Learn more about electrocardiogram
https://brainly.com/question/28163596
#SPJ11
Muscle fibers, their organelles and the functions of each in muscle contraction.
1. Myofibrils
2. Sarcoplasmic reticulum (and terminal cisternae)
3. T-tubules
4. Sarcolemma
5. Neuromuscular junction (synaptic cleft, stnaptic vesicles)
6. Calcium ions
7. Sodium ions
8. ATP
9. Acetylcholine, acetylcholinesterase
10. Action potential
11. Thick filaments (What proteins make up thick filaments? What is the role of that protein in muscle contraction?)
12. Thin filaments (What proteins make up thin filaments? What are the toles of those proteins in muscle contraction?)
Muscle fibers consist of organelles that aid in the function of muscle contraction.
1. Myofibrils: Myofibrils are long, cylindrical structures within muscle fibers composed of contractile units called sarcomeres. They contain thick and thin filaments arranged in a repeating pattern, which are responsible for muscle contraction.
2. Sarcoplasmic reticulum (and terminal cisternae): The sarcoplasmic reticulum is a specialized form of endoplasmic reticulum found in muscle cells. It plays a crucial role in regulating calcium ion levels. Terminal cisternae are expanded regions of the sarcoplasmic reticulum located near the T-tubules.
3. T-tubules: T-tubules are invaginations of the sarcolemma (muscle cell membrane) that penetrate deep into the muscle fiber. They allow for the transmission of action potentials into the interior of the muscle fiber, coordinating the contraction of sarcomeres.
4. Sarcolemma: The sarcolemma is the cell membrane of a muscle fiber. It encloses the sarcoplasm (cytoplasm of the muscle cell) and is responsible for maintaining the integrity and electrical properties of the muscle fiber.
5. Neuromuscular junction (synaptic cleft, synaptic vesicles): The neuromuscular junction is the site where a motor neuron connects with a muscle fiber. The synaptic cleft is the narrow space between the motor neuron and the muscle fiber. Synaptic vesicles within the motor neuron store and release the neurotransmitter acetylcholine.
6. Calcium ions: Calcium ions play a crucial role in muscle contraction. They are released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum into the sarcoplasm in response to an action potential. Calcium ions bind to proteins on the thin filaments, initiating the contraction process.
7. Sodium ions: Sodium ions play a role in generating action potentials. They enter the muscle cell through voltage-gated channels during depolarization, leading to the propagation of the action potential along the sarcolemma.
8. ATP: ATP (adenosine triphosphate) is the energy currency of cells. It provides the energy required for muscle contraction by fueling the cross-bridge cycling between thick and thin filaments.
9. Acetylcholine, acetylcholinesterase: Acetylcholine is a neurotransmitter released from the motor neuron at the neuromuscular junction. It binds to receptors on the muscle fiber, initiating an action potential. Acetylcholinesterase is an enzyme that breaks down acetylcholine, terminating its action.
10. Action potential: An action potential is a brief electrical signal that travels along the sarcolemma of a muscle fiber. It is generated in response to the binding of acetylcholine to receptors at the neuromuscular junction, initiating muscle contraction.
11. Thick filaments: Thick filaments are composed mainly of the protein myosin. Myosin has a globular head region that interacts with the thin filaments during muscle contraction, producing force and movement.
12. Thin filaments: Thin filaments are primarily composed of the proteins actin, troponin, and tropomyosin. Actin provides the binding sites for myosin heads, while troponin and tropomyosin regulate the interaction between myosin and actin, controlling muscle contraction.
To know more about Muscle fibers here: https://brainly.com/question/1495929
#SPJ11
Let the person look for articles on firing temperatures of porous materials
If a person is looking for articles on firing temperatures of porous materials, they can start their search with keywords like "porous materials," "firing temperatures," and "ceramics."
Some potential resources for finding such articles could include academic databases like JSTOR or ScienceDirect, as well as industry publications such as Ceramics Monthly or the Journal of the American Ceramic Society. By using these resources, the person may be able to find articles that discuss the various factors that can affect firing temperatures of porous materials, such as the type of material being fired, the shape and size of the object, and the desired final outcome.
Additionally, they may be able to find information on specific techniques or processes that can be used to achieve optimal firing results.
Learn more about porous materials
https://brainly.com/question/13605385
#SPJ11
Do
muscles have different shapes? If so what are they and how do they
differ in function and use? And can they change shape and lever
arms when moved through other joints(how)?
Yes, muscles can have different shapes, including parallel, convergent, pennate, and circular. Each shape has unique structural and functional characteristics.
Parallel muscles have fibers that run parallel to the long axis of the muscle, providing a greater range of motion but less force production. Convergent muscles have fibers that converge toward a common attachment point, allowing for strength and versatility. Pennate muscles have fibers that attach obliquely to a central tendon, maximizing force production but reducing range of motion. Circular muscles form rings around body openings and function in constriction or dilation.
Muscles can change shape and lever arms when moved through other joints. This is achieved through the interaction of muscles, tendons, and bones. When a muscle contracts, it pulls on its attachment points, causing movement around a joint. The lever arm, or moment arm, of a muscle changes depending on the position and angle of the joint, affecting the mechanical advantage and force production. Muscles adapt to changes in joint angles by adjusting their fiber length and orientation, allowing for optimal leverage and force generation during movement.
In conclusion, muscles can have different shapes, which impact their function and use. They can change shape and lever arms to accommodate movement through various joints, enabling efficient force generation and motion.
You can learn more about muscles at
https://brainly.com/question/25066770
#SPJ11
7. What is the source of maltose? a. Small intestine brush border (microvilli) b. Pancreas C. Gallbladder d. Liver e. Salivary glands
The source of maltose is Small intestine brush border (microvilli). The correct option is a.
Maltose is a disaccharide composed of two glucose molecules linked together. It is commonly found in foods such as grains and starchy vegetables. The digestion of starch, a complex carbohydrate, begins in the mouth with the action of salivary amylase secreted by the salivary glands. However, the salivary amylase only partially breaks down starch into smaller polysaccharides.
The complete breakdown of starch into maltose occurs primarily in the small intestine. When partially digested starch reaches the small intestine, pancreatic amylase, secreted by the pancreas, continues the breakdown process, converting the remaining starch into maltose and other disaccharides.
Therefore, the small intestine brush border (microvilli) is the source of maltose digestion and conversion into glucose for absorption. So, the correct option is a.
Learn more about amylase
https://brainly.com/question/31534644
#SPJ11
Hypertonicity within an agonist decreases the neural drive to the antagonist or opposing muscle, thereby weakening that said (opposing) muscle which then relies upon a synergistic muscle to help generate adequate force at that body segment.
T/F
The statement Hypertonicity within an agonist decreases the neural drive to the antagonist or opposing muscle, thereby weakening that said (opposing) muscle which then relies upon a synergistic muscle to help generate adequate force at that body segment is true.
Muscle hypertonicity is a medical condition in which muscles become excessively stiff and challenging to stretch. Hypertonicity within an agonist can decrease the neural drive to the antagonist or opposing muscle.
As a result, the opposing muscle is weakened, which then depends on a synergistic muscle to generate sufficient force at that body segment. This is why muscle strength testing is so crucial in the evaluation of patients.
Additionally, it is critical to understand that not all hypertonicity is the same. Different types of hypertonicity have varying effects on muscle function.
To learn more about Hypertonicity
https://brainly.com/question/4237735
#SPJ11
5. 2 pt. Do animals always respond as desired to a GnRH injection? Why or why not? 6. 2 pt. What is a key hallmark of a dominant follicle compared to follicles that are not dominant? Why does this allow for the dominant follicle's continued growth while subordinate follicles fail to continue growing/undergo atresia as the follicular wave progresses?
Animals do not always respond as desired to a GnRH injection due to various factors such as individual variation, hormonal imbalance, and underlying reproductive disorders.
Animals, like humans, have complex physiological systems that regulate their reproductive processes. While GnRH (Gonadotropin-releasing hormone) injections are commonly used to induce ovulation or synchronize estrus in animals, the response to these injections can vary. There are several reasons why animals may not always respond as desired:
Individual Variation: Just like humans, animals exhibit individual variation in their response to hormonal treatments. Factors such as age, breed, health status, and genetics can influence how an animal's reproductive system reacts to GnRH injections. Some animals may be more sensitive to the hormone, while others may require higher doses to achieve the desired effect.
Hormonal Imbalance: Animals with pre-existing hormonal imbalances may not respond as expected to GnRH injections. Hormonal disorders, such as polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) in cattle or mares, can disrupt the normal feedback mechanisms involved in ovulation. In such cases, additional treatments or adjustments in the hormone regimen may be necessary to achieve the desired response.
Underlying Reproductive Disorders: Animals with underlying reproductive disorders, such as ovarian cysts or uterine infections, may have compromised reproductive function. These conditions can interfere with the normal development and maturation of follicles, affecting their response to GnRH injections. In such cases, veterinary intervention and targeted treatment may be required to address the underlying disorder before the animal can respond as desired.
Learn more about injection
brainly.com/question/31717574
#SPJ11
What part of the 20 different amino acids are actually different from each other? what parts are the same?
All amino acids have the same basic structure consisting of a central carbon atom, an amino group, a carboxyl group, and a side chain attached to the central carbon atom. However, the side chain, which is also referred to as the R-group, is the part of the amino acid that is different from one amino acid to the next.
There are 20 different amino acids found in proteins and each one has a unique side chain that gives the amino acid its own chemical properties. The side chains of the amino acids can be classified into different groups based on their chemical properties. For example, some side chains are nonpolar and hydrophobic, while others are polar and hydrophilic. Some side chains are positively charged, some are negatively charged, and others are neutral. The differences in the side chains of the 20 different amino acids are what give proteins their unique three-dimensional structure and their diverse range of functions in the body.
To know more about amino visit-
https://brainly.com/question/30586602
#SPJ11
The neuromuscular junction
The sarcomere and the 4 proteins within it
All 5 cell types within the epidermis
All 5 layers within the thick skin of the epidermis
a short clear explanation. thank you
The neuromuscular junction is a specialized synapse between the axon of a motor neuron and a skeletal muscle fiber.
The junctions contain numerous neurotransmitter receptors and are critical to the function of skeletal muscles.The sarcomere and the 4 proteins within itThe sarcomere is the fundamental functional unit of muscle contraction. Actin, myosin, troponin, and tropomyosin are the four major proteins involved in sarcomere action.All 5 cell types within the epidermisThe five cell types in the epidermis are keratinocytes, melanocytes, Langerhans cells, Merkel cells, and Intraepidermal lymphocytes.All 5 layers within the thick skin of the epidermisThe five layers within the thick skin of the epidermis are the stratum basale, stratum spinosum, stratum granulosum, stratum lucidum, and stratum corneum.
Learn more about neuromuscular junction;
https://brainly.com/question/31428725
#SPJ11
1. Classify neurons on the basis of function. Be sure to discuss each type.
Neurons are the nerve cells that transmit information in the nervous system. There are three types of neurons based on their functions. They are Sensory neurons, Motor neurons, and Interneurons.
Sensory neurons: These neurons are responsible for conveying sensory information from sensory organs such as eyes, ears, nose, and skin to the spinal cord and brain. These neurons are also known as afferent neurons.
Motor neurons: These neurons are responsible for transmitting information from the central nervous system to the effectors, i.e., muscles and glands. These neurons are also known as efferent neurons.
Interneurons: These neurons are found in the central nervous system and are responsible for transmitting signals between sensory and motor neurons. They are located in the spinal cord and the brain. They act as a link between sensory and motor neurons.
To learn more about Neurons here
https://brainly.com/question/10706320
#SPJ11
Between which fingers should the thread be held for a square knot? a. Thumb and ring finger b. Index finger and thumb c. Index and middle finger d. Thumb and middle finger e. it does not matter which fingers are used
To tie a square knot, the thread should be held between the index finger and the thumb. The correct answer is b. Index finger and thumb.
A square knot is a type of knot used to tie two ropes of equal diameter or thickness. It is also referred to as a reef knot or Hercules knot. A square knot is formed by crossing the two ends of the rope, tying an overhand knot, and then tying another overhand knot in the opposite direction. When tied correctly, the square knot will not slip or loosen.Below are the instructions on how to tie a square knot:Hold the two ends of the rope in each hand.
Cross the right end over the left end of the rope.Bring the right end back and under the left end of the rope.Tie an overhand knot by passing the right end of the rope over the left end, then under and back through the loop formed. Bring the left end over the right end of the rope.Tie another overhand knot by passing the left end of the rope over the right end, then under and back through the loop formed.
Learn more about index finger:
https://brainly.com/question/10871009
#SPJ11
Match the event to the correct part of the EKG. ◯ Contraction of ventricles 1. P Wave
◯ Contraction of atria 2. QRS Segment
◯ Ventricles repolarize 3. T Wave and ◯ Blood forcefully expelled from ventricles ◯ Depolarization of ventricle
◯ Contraction of ventricles: 2. QRS Segment
◯ Contraction of atria: 1. P Wave
◯ Ventricles repolarize 3. T Wave
◯ Blood forcefully expelled from ventricles: 2. QRS Segment
◯ Depolarization of ventricle: 2. QRS Segment
1. Contraction of ventricles: QRS Segment
When the ventricles contract, it signifies the main pumping action of the heart, where blood is forcefully expelled from the ventricles into the arteries. This event is represented by the QRS complex on the EKG. The QRS complex consists of three distinct deflections: Q, R, and S waves. It represents the depolarization (electrical activation) and subsequent contraction of the ventricles.
2. Contraction of atria: P Wave and QRS Segment
The contraction of the atria occurs before the ventricular contraction. It is represented by the P wave on the EKG. The P wave reflects the depolarization and subsequent contraction of the atria as they push blood into the ventricles. The QRS complex also shows a small deflection known as atrial repolarization, which represents the recovery of the atria after contraction.
3. Ventricles repolarize: T Wave
After the ventricular contraction, the ventricles need to repolarize to prepare for the next cycle. This repolarization of the ventricles is represented by the T wave on the EKG. The T wave shows the electrical recovery and relaxation of the ventricles.
4. Blood forcefully expelled from ventricles: QRS Segment
During the ventricular contraction, blood is forcefully expelled from the ventricles into the arteries. This action generates pressure and creates a characteristic spike in the QRS complex on the EKG. The QRS complex represents the electrical activation and subsequent contraction of the ventricles, leading to the forceful ejection of blood.
5. Depolarization of ventricle: QRS Segment
The depolarization of the ventricles is also represented by the QRS complex. It signifies the electrical activation of the ventricles, initiating their contraction. The QRS complex consists of the Q, R, and S waves, reflecting the electrical activity associated with ventricular depolarization.
Learn more about Depolarization at https://brainly.com/question/14692094
#SPJ11