The nurse should plan treatment with anti D immunoglobulin injection within 72 hours of birth.
Pregnancy :When a woman is pregnant, one or more gestations (offspring) grow inside her uterus. Multiple pregnancies result in multiple children, such twins. Although sexual activity is the most common way to become pregnant, assisted reproductive technology procedures are also an option.
The outcome of a pregnancy can be a live birth, miscarriage, forced abortion, or stillbirth. The gestational age is the period of time after the start of the last menstrual period (LMP) when childbirth normally occurs. It's been a little over nine months. According to the age of fertilisation, the duration is roughly 38 weeks. The definition of pregnancy is "the presence of a human embryo or foetus implanted in the uterus." Implantation happens typically 8 to 9 days following conception.
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when preparing a client for surgery to treat appendicitis, the nurse formulates a nursing diagnosis of risk for infection related to inflammation, perforation, and surgery. what is the rationale for choosing this nursing diagnosis?
Appendix obstruction reduces arterial flow, resulting in ischemia, inflammation, and appendix rupture.
What does the appendix do specifically?Unknown is the purpose of the appendix. One hypothesis holds that the appendix serves as a repository for beneficial bacteria that "reboots" the digestive system following diarrheal infections. The appendix, according to some specialists, is essentially a worthless holdover from our evolutionary history.
What occurs if the appendix is removed?There's a chance your belly will swell and hurt. Your shoulder may hurt for around 24 hours following laparoscopic surgery. A headache, diarrhea, constipation, gas, or an upset stomach may also be present. In a few days, this normally goes away.
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a nurse is caring for a client with a gastrostomy tube and observes that a large amount of drainage is leaking from the tube. on inspection the nurse finds a great deal of slack in the tube. which action should the nurse take next?
Press the exterior bumper closer towards the skin while applying little pressure to the tube.
What does skin mean?As an organ, the skin is the biggest. The integumentary system is made up of the skin, as well as its byproducts (hair, nails, perspiration, and oil glands). Protection is among the skin's primary purposes. It defends the body against elements like bacteria, chemicals, and temperature that are present outside.
What's the name of skin in scientific terms?Our skin tone is produced by the epidermis, which is the top layer of skin and acts as a waterproof barrier. Hair follicles, sweat glands, and hard connective tissue are all found in the dermis, which is located beneath the epidermis. Connective tissue and fat make up the deeper subcutaneous tissue (hypodermis).
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when caring for a client on extended bedrest, which intervention should the nurse implement to decrease the risk of contractures?
To avoid risk of contractures, the nurse should reposition the client every 2 hours.
What happens with contractures?A contracture occurs when there is a fixed tightening in the muscles, tendons, ligaments and or skin. It hinders specific body parts from normal movement. This can also be described as the body tissues loosing elasticity and becoming fiber-like.
When the body is immobile for a while it can cause contracture. Patients under admittance in hospitals can experience this condition and the nurses in charge will have to reposition them every two hours to avoid tightening of the muscles and also encourage bed stretches to loosen the joints.
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a client states that her newborn must be cold because the hands and feet are blue. the nurse explains that this is which common and temporary conditions?
When a client states that her newborn must be cold because the hands and feet are blue, then the nurse explains that this is common and temporary conditions called : Acrocyanosis.
What do you mean by acrocyanosis?Acrocyanosis is the bluish discoloration of the extremities due to reduced amount of oxygen delivered to the peripheral part. It is a persistent disorder without episodic triphasic color response but is usually painless.
Acrocyanosis is a functional peripheral vascular disorder that is characterized by dusky mottled discoloration of the hands, feet and sometimes the face. It is caused by vasospasm of the small vessels of the skin due to cold.
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the nurse is caring for a client with chronic myelogenous leukemia (cml) and notes that the client has splenomegaly and an increased basophil count as well as night sweats, bone pain, and a low grade fever. the nurse interprets the symptoms as indicating that the client is in which phase of the clinical course of cml?
The nurse interprets the symptoms as indicating that the client is in Accelerated phase of the clinical course of chronic myelogenous leukemia.
What is chronic myelogenous leukemia (cml)?Chronic myelogenous leukemia (cml) is defined as the disease condition that is characterized by excessive and uncontrolled proliferation and division of the bone marrow cells that is caused by a chromosome mutation that occurs spontaneously. It is also known as the blood-cell cancer.
The symptoms of Chronic myelogenous leukemia include the following:
Bone painEasy bleedingFeeling full after eating a small amount of foodFeeling run-down or tiredFeverWeight loss without tryingLoss of appetite.The stages of chronic myelogenous leukemia include the following:
chronic, accelerated, and blast stages.The accelerated phase of chronic myelogenous leukemia is characterized by the following:
splenomegaly,increased basophil count,night sweats, bone pain, and a low grade fever.Therefore, these symptoms that are observed by the nurse shows that the client is in Accelerated phase of chronic myelogenous leukemia.
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the fda panels that review otc drugs approve ingredients, not the actual products that often contain several ingredients. True or False
The FDA panels that review OTC drugs approve ingredients, not the actual products that often contain several ingredients.
The correct option is True.
What are OTC drugs?OTC drugs mean over-the-counter drugs in full.
OTC drugs are those drugs that can be bought over the counter without a need for a prior prescription from qualified medical personnel such as a doctor.
Some OTC drugs include:
acetaminophen,aspirin,antacids,decongestants,antihistamines,laxatives, etc.The FDA is a federal government agency that is tasked with protecting public health by ensuring the safety, efficacy, and security of human and veterinary drugs, as well as other biological products.
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the parent asks the nurse whether a child with hemiparesis due to spastic cerebral palsy will be able to walk normally because he can pull himself to a standing position. which response by the nurse would be most appropriate?
The Children with Autism Spectrum Disorder withdraws into their own world and struggles to communicate and interact with others.
Children with autism spectrum disorder (ASD) struggle to form social relationships. Children with separation anxiety exhibit the inability to detach. Children with Attention Deficit Disorder are more prone to becoming inattentive (ADD). Primary Children delays in cerebral palsy children must be recognized in order to prevent subsequent and tertiary delays. The stopped development is concerning and needs more research. The lack of growth can be an indication of hearing loss or suggest autism. Because of cerebral palsy, there is no gradual brain damage. A young child's brain is very malleable, provided that growth has not yet peaked at that age.
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after teaching a pregnant client about potential complications of amniocentesis that must be reported immediately, the nurse determines that the client understands the instruction when she says that she will report which problem?
vaginal bleed, Hemorrhage caused by placental penetration, amniotic fluid infection, and uterine discomfort resulting in early delivery are all potential side effects of amniocentesis.
What does it imply if your period is late but your genital area is bleeding?There are a number of reasons why you can be bleeding even when it is not your period. Your bleeding may be caused by an infection, an underlying medical condition, medicine, or a hormonal imbalance, among other things.
What triggers virulent bleeding?A uterine infection (pelvic inflammatory disease) recent uterine surgery or damage. noncancerous growths in the womb, such as adenomyosis, uterine fibroids, or cervical polyps. Cervical inflammation or infection (cervicitis)
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the nurse is caring for a client with multiple sclerosis (ms). the client tells the nurse the hardest thing to deal with is the fatigue. when teaching the client how to reduce fatigue, what action should the nurse suggest?
Answer: Resting in an air-conditioned room whenever possible
Explanation
the nurse is reviewing lab results from a client's blood draw earlier in the shift. which result for the calcium level would the nurse expect when this client has irregular blood pressure readings, muscle spasms, and recent dental caries?
Hypocalcemia is a curable illness that occurs when the calcium levels in your blood are too low. By including calcium in your diet on a daily basis, you may avoid calcium deficiency disease.
Hypocalcemia can be caused by a variety of medical disorders, but it is frequently caused by low amounts of parathyroid hormone (PTH) or vitamin D in your body. Hypocalcemia can induce numbness and tingling (particularly around the lips, hands, and feet), as well as muscular cramps. Your blood calcium level will be evaluated at your first post-operative appointment, and you may be weaned off the supplementary calcium prescription following your surgery. Keep in mind that calcium rich meals, such as dairy products, might include a lot of saturated and trans fat.
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the nurse has had a client place the backs of both her hands against each other while flexing her wrists 90 degrees with fingers pointed downward and wrists dangling. the presence of pain or tingling during this test suggests what health problem to the nurse?
Carpal tunnel syndrome is caused by stress on the median nerve. The carpal tunnel is a narrow tube on the palms side of the hand that is surrounded by bone structures.
Whenever the median nerve is crushed, it can cause weakness, burning, and paralysis in the hand and arm. The most prevalent warning indicators of Carpal tunnel syndrome are finger discomfort, tingling, and numbness (all but the pinky). Other signs and symptoms may include: A sensation that your fingers are stuffed or bloated.
Carpal tunnel syndrome might be caused to repetitive actions, such as typing, or other wrist movements that you undertake repeatedly. This is especially true for actions made with your hands lower than your wrists. Conditions such as hypothyroidism, obesity, rheumatoid arthritis, and diabetes are examples. Texting, drawing, and crocheting are all activities that can aggravate carpal tunnel syndrome. These tasks necessitate the regular usage of your wrists and hands. If you do not take adequate breaks from these activities, inflammation in your wrist can worsen, putting more pressure on the median nerve.
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with the increased risk of drug toxicity among chronically ill older adults, which statement by the nurse explains why the older adult's kidney is vulnerable to toxic injury?
A role of nitric oxide (NO) in the increased sensitivity of the aging kidney to injury has been established.
What is drug toxicity ?Drug toxicity is characterised as a wide range of negative effects brought on by the use of drugs at therapeutic or non-therapeutic dosages.
The rate of cellular apoptosis in the kidney increases with age, resulting in fewer functional nephrons and a decrease in GFR and creatinine clearance ratio. This decrease in renal functional reserve makes the kidney more vulnerable to AKI.The mechanisms-based (on-target) toxicity, immunological hypersensitivity, off-target toxicity, and bioactivation/covalent modification are a few of the causes of drug toxicity that can be grouped in different ways.Learn more about Drug toxicity here:
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a patient is admitted to the hospital through the ed with chf. after assessment, it was determined that she met criteria for ip admission. the nurse is writing her care plan based on established protocol. this protocol is called: group of answer choices
False; the nurse is basing her care plan on accepted procedure. Care pathway is the name of this approach.
What is a care pathway?Care plans are a technique to lay out the best practice procedure to be followed when undergoing treatment or consumer with a specific disease or set of needs. They should be evidence-based as they are a condensed version of the best expert analysis on the care procedure currently available.
How long do individuals remain here on end-of-life pathway?End-of-life care should start as soon as you want it and may continue a few days, months, or even longer on occasion. End-of-life care can help people in a variety of circumstances. a small number of months.
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a 32-year-old warehouse worker presents for evaluation of low back pain. he notes a sudden onset of pain after lifting a heavier-than-usual set of boxes. he also states that he has numbness and tingling in the left leg. what test should the nurse perform to assess for a herniated disc?
A straight leg raise test should the nurse perform to assess for a herniated disc.
The straight leg raise test, also known as the Lasegue test, is a basic procedure used during the physical examination of a patient suffering from lower back pain.
This test can be positive in various conditions, the most common of which is lumbar disc herniation. Facet joint cysts or hypertrophy are two other causes of a positive straight leg raise test. This activity explains the pathophysiology of low back pain and emphasizes the interprofessional team's role in managing patients with a positive straight leg raise test.
The patient must be in a specific position for the straight leg raise test. It also necessitates movement in specific joints. Some contraindications to performing the straight leg raise test include:
The patient does not consent to the test.
Due to underlying issues such as serious spinal disease, advanced scoliosis, and so on, the patient is unable to lie down straight.
The patient has advanced knee or hip joint disease, which makes the procedure extremely painful for the patient.
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which client most likely faces the highest risk of developing secondary pulmonary hypertension? a client with asthma who uses her inhaled bronchodilator more often than prescribed an older adult client who has been hospitalized for the treatment of community-acquired pneumonia a client who suffered a thermal injury to his lungs in a fire a client with copd and a 35 pack-year smoking history.
The client which is at the highest risk of developing secondary pulmonary hypertension is a client with COPD and a 35 pack-year smoking history.
Secondary pulmonary hypertension is an advanced, severe malady that considerably affects the standard of life and over time results in right coronary failure. A timely analysis, correct treatment, regular follow up and patient education will absolutely have an effect on the result of the malady.
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is a chronic inflammatory respiratory organ malady that causes obstructed flow of air from the lungs. Symptoms embody respiratory issue, cough, secretion (sputum) production and unhealthy. Smoking is that the main explanation for COPD and is believed to be answerable for around nine in each ten cases. The harmful chemicals in smoke will harm the liner of the lungs and airways.
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a resident of a nursing home has moderate-severe cognitive decline. the resident frequently wanders into the room of other residents and takes items from the closets and drawers. the facility staff has asked the cota for suggestions on how to reduce the occurrence of this behavior. which strategy would be most beneficial for the cota to recommend?
To reduce the occurrence of this behavior, the COTA to recommend strategy is identify the spaces within the facility that are appropriate for the resident of nursing home to rummage.
A nursing home is a facility for the residential care of senior or disabled folks. Nursing homes may additionally be mentioned as adept nursing facility, long care facilities, recent people's homes, aided living facilities care homes, rest homes, convalescent homes or convalescent care.
The Central Ohio Transit Authority (COTA) may be a transportation system agency serving the Columbus metropolitan space, headquartered in Columbus, Ohio. It operates fixed-route buses, bus mass rapid transit, microtransit, and paratransit services. COTA's headquarters are settled within the William J. Lhota Building in downtown Columbus.
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you respond to the home of a 59-year-old man who is unconscious with slow, shallow breathing and a weak pulse. the family states that the patient has terminal brain cancer and does not wish to be resuscitated. they further state that there is a dnr order for this patient, but they are unable to locate it. you should:
Answer: Begin life-saving measures.
Explanation: Though the family says he does not want to be saved, there is no proof of any DNR. If there is no DNR and no life-saving measures are taken, the result can be the termination of your licenses.
a nurse is teaching a client about the importance of checking the skin for changes that might suggest skin cancer. after describing the typical lesions associated with melanoma, the nurse determines that the teaching was successful when the client identifies which characteristic? select all that apply.
Edges with irregularities larger than a quarter-inch diameter
The molecular structure has shifted are the characteristics that show melanoma.
Melanoma, the worst form of skin cancer, grows in the cells (melanocytes) that create melanin, the pigment that gives your skin its color. Melanoma can also develop in the eyes and, in rare cases, within the body, such as the nose or throat.
Although the specific etiology of all melanomas is unknown, exposure to ultraviolet (UV) radiation from sunshine or tanning lights and beds raises your chance of acquiring melanoma. Limiting your exposure to UV light may help lower your chance of developing melanoma.
Melanoma risk appears to be rising in those under the age of 40, particularly among women.
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a patient who had a kidney transplant eight years ago is receiving the immunosuppressants tacrolimus (prograf), cyclosporine (sandimmune), and prednisone. which assessment data will be of most concern to the nurse?
Patient had a kidney transplant eight years ago and is receiving the immunosuppressants tacrolimus (prograf), cyclosporine (sandimmune), and prednisone so the nurse is concerned about a nontender axillary lump.
A nontender axillary lump suggests a malignancy like a cancer, that may occur as a results of chronic immunological disorder medical aid. The elevated aldohexose, skin modification, and high blood pressure are potential aspect effects of the Orasone and will be addressed , however they're not as nice a priority because the risk of a malignancy.
Tacrolimus (Prograf ®) is a medicinal drug drug accustomed forestall and treat organ rejection in kids who have had liver transplants. it's used for long immunological disorder.
Sandimmune (cyclosporine) is a cyclic peptide medicinal drug agent accustomed forestall organ rejection once a urinary organ, liver, or heart transplant.
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Prepare a companywide email informing employees that they will be required to have a new picture taken for their identification card.
A companywide email for informing employees that they will be required to have a new picture taken for their identification card can be written as below.
Why do you inform team about new process update?Clear communication is very essential for a smooth transition to new processes. As you introduce new processes, it is very important to explain why the change was necessary, what goals you hope to achieve with the changes and how these new processes will benefit the employees
Hello team,
As you all know we have made some changes in the identification card and they have to be renewed.
You all are advised to take a new picture for the identification card and submit it by tomorrow.
Team Manager
ABC
(company Name)
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a 45-year-old client is admitted to the facility with excruciating paroxysmal facial pain. he reports that the episodes occur most often after feeling cold drafts and drinking cold beverages. based on these findings, the nurse determines that the client is most likely suffering from which neurologic disorder?
Based on these findings, the nurse determines that the client is most likely suffering from Trigeminal neuralgia.
A persistent illness known as trigeminal neuralgia, sometimes known as tic douloureux, results in recurring episodes of excruciating facial agony. The capacity to operate and enjoy everyday activities can both be greatly impacted by this pain. A multispecialty team with extensive training in this challenging and frequently disabling ailment is assembled for the Stanford Health Care Trigeminal Neuralgia Program.
In order to relieve your symptoms and enhance your quality of life, we collaborate with you to create a specialized treatment plan. The trigeminal nerve is a member of one of the 12 pairs of cranial nerves that link the brain to the head, neck, and torso.
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in a synergistic drug interaction group of answer choices one drug blocks the action of another drug. two drugs multiply each other's effects. two or more drugs combine to produce extremely uncomfortable reactions. an individual develops a tolerance to one drug that increases his or her tolerance to another drug.
In a synergistic drug interaction two drugs multiply each other's effects
An impact on the body (or an organism) caused by the interaction of two or more separate chemicals that is larger than the effect that any molecule would have had acting alone.
When the combined impact of two medications is larger than the individual activity of each agent, this is known as a synergistic interaction. This is a potent remedy that has been applied to a number of illnesses. For instance, the often used drug combination of trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole for bacterial infections has a synergistic effect that acts to disrupt the bacterial folic acid biosynthesis pathway's sequential stages. Furthermore, Amphotericin B and 5-FC work in concert, and death rates substantially rise when one is not available. Drugs that are fungistatic may change to be fungicidal due to synergistic interactions, offering a more potent choice for therapy.
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the nurse is concerned that a client with a chronic illness is becoming more debilitated due to increasing body mass index. which health promotion education will the nurse provide to this client? select all that apply.
The nurse is concerned that a client with a chronic illness is becoming more debilitated due to increasing body mass index. Repeat back what the client states.
Continued chronic illness has a tendency to arise in older adults and may typically be controlled but not cured. The maximum common styles of persistent ailment are most cancers, coronary heart disorder, stroke, diabetes, and arthritis.
maximum persistent chronic illness resulting from key hazard behaviors: Tobacco use and exposure to secondhand smoke. negative vitamins, along with diets low in culmination and vegetables and high in sodium and saturated fats. the physical state of being inactive.
For a few human beings, their mental infection may also best be a couple of quick episodes. however, many human beings must control their mental health circumstance continually all through their whole existence. even though the severity of chronic illness conditions can fluctuate, they're frequently continual in nature which makes mental illness chronic.
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When planning a classical conditioning experiment, what is the goal of the researcher? a. to teach the subject to respond to a conditioned response b. to teach the subject to respond to the conditioned stimulus c. to teach the subject to respond to the unconditioned stimulus d. to teach the subject to respond to an unconditioned response
The purpose of the classical conditioning experiment is (B) to teach the subject to respond to the conditioned stimulus.
What is classical conditioning?Classical conditioning is a learning process in which a neutral stimulus can elicit a new response after being paired with a stimulus that usually follows the response. Classical conditioning was originally discovered by Ivan Pavlov, a physiologist from Russia while conducting experimental research on the process of saliva production in dogs.
Classical conditioning laid the foundation for behaviorism, one of the most important schools of psychology, and was born as a result of Pavlov, a research psychologist who was interested in the physiology of digestion, especially in the salivary reflex in dogs.
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a 4-day-old newborn is receiving phototherapy at home for a bilirubin level of 14 mg/dl (238 mcmol/l). the nurse should plan to include which instruction in the teaching plan of care during the home visit to the mother of the newborn?
During the home visit with the newborn's mother, the teaching plan of care includes instruction on evaluating the newborn's skin integrity and fluid status.
Good skin integrity: what is it?Skin integrity is the state of your skin's health. The skin performs a variety of essential tasks when it is in good health. Your body's core temperature is maintained optimally, vitamin D from the sun is absorbed and processed, and electrolyte balance is supported, among many other things.
How do you keep a patient's skin healthy?Promote and preserve skin integrity by moisturizing dry skin to enhance lipid barriers, and do so at least twice each day. Avoid using hot water when bathing because it will cause more dry, cracked skin. Use a barrier or moisture lotion to protect skin as needed.
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a medical assistant is measuring the circumference of an infant's head. which of the following actions should the assistant take
The action that the medical assistant should follow is to place the zero mark of the measuring tape against the infant's forehead.
Who is a medical assistant?A medical assistant is defined as the individual that is professionally trained and is licensed to offer assistance to physicians with the purpose of rendering an effective care to patients.
The roles and responsibilities of a medical assistant Include the following:
Taking medical histories.Explaining treatment procedures to patients.Preparing patients for examinations.Assisting the physician during examinations.Collecting and preparing laboratory specimens.Performing basic laboratory tests.Instructing patients about medication and special diets.The circumference of an infant's head is one of the physical assessments that is be carried out in infants that are suspected to have nutritional deficiencies.
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Is it true that if a patient is injured through no fault of yours, you could still be sued for negligence?
Answer:
No
Explanation:
you cannot be sued if the patient is injured for no fault of yours. The only person who has not followed standard procedure can be sued
a patient comes to the office for an annual physical and at the end of the examination the patient complains of low back pain that has been bothering him for a few weeks. which modifier should be used with the e/m code for the low back pain to explain the need for two e/m codes at the same visit?
25 modifier should be used with the e/m code for the low back pain to explain the need for two e/m codes at the same visit.
There are some back pain sources that are not connected to underlying illnesses. Examples include excessive use, such as working out or lifting too much, sitting and lying down for an extended period of time, sleeping in an uncomfortable position, or donning a backpack that is too small. When discs, muscles, ligaments, tendons, or the spine experience mechanical or structural issues, back pain may result. Sprain: An injury to the ligaments supporting the spine that frequently results from twisting or lifting incorrectly. a muscular or tendon injury known as a strain. The following list of back pain symptoms may be present: Shooting, burning, or aching pain that doesn't go away or comes back despite the use of over-the-counter medications, ligaments ,icing, massage, or physical therapies. recurring tightness or stiffness, particularly after lying, sitting, or standing for an extended period of time
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the client who had a total hip replacement was discharged home and developed acute groin pain in the affected leg, shortening of the leg, and limited movement of the fractured leg. the nurse interprets these findings as indicating which complication?
The nurse interprets these findings as indicating which complication is caused by hip dislocation.
What is the most effective therapy for a hip dislocation?
Your health professional will physically move your dislocated hip back into place to correct it. This is known as a reduction. If there are no supplementary injuries, the correction can be performed externally.
Hip dislocation is a painful condition wherein the ball joint of your hip pops out of its socket. It is usually caused by significant severe trauma. (Artificial hip replacement parts are a little easier to dislocate.) A dislocated hip is a medical emergency. It causes severe pain and disables your leg until it has been corrected.
Therefore, hip dislocation causes acute groin pain in the affected leg, shortening of the leg, and limited movement of the fractured leg.
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a client is admitted to the facility after experiencing uncontrolled diarrhea for the past several days. the client is exhibiting signs of a fluid volume deficit. when reviewing the client's laboratory test results, which electrolyte imbalance would the nurse likely to find?
Answer:
i think hypokalemia
Explanation:
