The nurse observes on the arterial blood gas that metabolic alkalosis results in an acid-base imbalance due to the loss of stomach acid.
Why do vomiting and metabolic alkalosis occur?
As a result of the loss of hydrochloric acid-rich stomach secretions, vomiting and nasogastric (NG) suction cause metabolic alkalosis (HCl). When an expelled hydrogen ion occurs, the extracellular space gains a bicarbonate ion.
Vomiting, which causes the body to lose H+-rich gastric contents, is the most frequent cause of metabolic alkalosis. As a result of H+ ions being trapped in the abomasum in cases of right-sided displacement or volvulus of the abomasum in ruminants, metabolic alkalosis results.
Therefore, The nurse notes an acid-base imbalance in the arterial blood gas that is caused by the loss of stomach acid.
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anesthesia start time is reported as 7:14 am, and the surgery began at 7:26 am. the surgery finished at 8:18 am and the patient was turned over to pacu at 8:29 am, which was reported as the ending anesthesia time. what is the anesthesia time reported?
The recorded anesthetic time ranged from 7:14 to 8:29 am (75 minutes)
What time is utilized to indicate the beginning of anesthesia?
Anesthesia time is defined by the CPT as starting when the anesthesiologist starts preparing the patient for the induction of anesthesia in the operating room or in a location that is comparable.
Your body can retain anesthetic medications for up to 24 hours. It is not advisable to drive or go back to work after receiving sedation, regional anesthesia, or general anesthesia.
Therefore, As long as your doctor clears it with you, you should be able to resume your regular activities after local anesthesia.
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john, the compliance officer at abc internal medicine, explained to the new employees at the new hire orientation that emtala refers to what? a. emergency medical treatment and active labor act b. emergency medical treatment act long area c. emergency medical treatment abandonment leave act d. emergency medical treatment abandonment labor act
John, the compliance officer at ABC internal medication Emergency medical treatment and active abandonment Act.
choice d. emergency medical remedy abandonment hard work act.
Job abandonment is an employee who does no longer touch his/her supervisor for three or more operating days and who isn't always on legal go-away both cases are crimes, passives and punishments, and even imprisonment.
Job abandonment An employee who's absent from work for 5 or greater consecutive work days and who without correct cause fails to inform the organization of the reasons for his or her absence will be considered to have deserted his or her employment.
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the nurse is caring for a client with suspected chronic pancreatitis. which diagnostic test or imaging does the nurse recognize as the most useful in diagnosing this condition?
The diagnostic test or imaging that would be the most useful in diagnosing chronic pancreatitis is ERCP.
ERCP, short for Endoscopic Retrograde Cholangiopancreatogram, is a procedure used to diagnose problems in the gallbladder, liver, bile ducts, and pancreas. Several things that may be found using ECRP are:
TumorsBlockages or narrowing in the pancreatic ductsBlockages or stones in the bile ductsFluid leakageInfectionSince the client in the case above is suspected of chronic pancreatitis, which is a problem with the pancreas, it would make sense if the nurse finds ECRP as the most useful test to diagnose whether the client really does have chronic pancreatitis or not.
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a client in an acute manic phase is pacing the halls and talking in a loud voice with pressured speech. the client is overly involved with coclients and frequently threatens and disrupts others on the unit. after administering lithium treatment for the client, the nurse can expect the plan of care to include which additional intervention?
A client in an acute manic phase is pacing the halls and talking in a loud voice with pressured speech. the client is overly involved with clients and frequently threatens and disrupts others in the unit intervention.
Acute mania is the manic phase of bipolar I disease. it's far defined as a very volatile euphoric or irritable temper in conjunction with excess hobby or power level manic segment of bipolar I sickness (see bipolar ailment), characterized by a really risky euphoric or irritable temper with hyperactivity, excessively fast ideas, and speech, uninhibited and reckless behavior, grandiosity, and flight of thoughts.
Excessively fast notions and speech in the manic segment of Acute mania disorder, it's not unusual to revel in feelings of heightened energy, creativity, and euphoria. in case you're experiencing a manic episode, you can talk a mile a minute, sleep little or no, and be hyperactive. you may also experience like you're all-powerful, invincible, or destined for greatness.
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the nurse is caring for a client with a nanda-i diagnosis of imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements, related to difficulty breathing. the nurse would implement which measures to maintain an adequate nutritional status for this client? select all that apply.
Give dental care frequently, especially before meals, and serve six small meals throughout the day.
What is a 3 part NANDA diagnosis?Then, based on evidence-based research from the North American Nursing Diagnosis Association (NANDA), a care plan is developed for that nursing diagnosis. Three components make up the nursing diagnosis: the issue, the genesis, the features, and the risk factors.
What does a NANDA-I nursing diagnosis mean?NANDA-I provides the foundation for selecting nursing treatments in order to achieve result of positive and requires a clinical judgment how an individual, family, or community responds to actual or potential health problems/life processes. a clinical assessment of the desire and desire to improve wellbeing and realize the potential of human health. These responses, which can be applied in any health status, are characterized by a willingness to improve particular health practices.
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the mother of an 8-year-old child being treated for right lower lobe pneumonia at home calls the clinic nurse. the mother tells the nurse that the child complains of discomfort on the right side and that ibuprofen is not effective. which instruction should the nurse provide to the mother?
Using the theories of discomfort, we got that nurse should Encourage the child to lie on the right side who is complaining of discomfort on the right side of his body after the treatment of right lower lobe pneumonia.
Splinting of the affected side by lying on that side may be decrease discomfort. Lying on left side would not be helpful in alleviating discomfort.
The signs and symptoms of pneumonia vary from mild to the severe, depending on factors such as type of germ causing the infection, and your age and overall health. Mild signs and symptoms often are actually similar to those of a cold or flu, but they last longer also.
Hence, the mother who tells the nurse that the her child complains of discomfort on the right side and that ibuprofen is not effective nurse should encourage the child to lie on the right side.
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a client at 39 weeks' gestation presents to the labor and birth unit reporting abdominal pain. what should the nurse do first?
When a client at 39 weeks' gestation presents to the labor and birth unit reporting abdominal pain, then the nurse should determine if the client is in true or false labor.
What should be the action taken when client of 39 weeks' gestation has abdominal pain?When a nurse first comes in contact with a pregnant client who is complaining of abdominal pain, it is important to first ascertain whether the woman is in true or false labor.
Information of the number of pregnancies or history of drug allergy is not an important criteria for admitting the client. The healthcare provider should be notified when the nurse knows the current status of client.
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which health professional diagnoses visual abnormalities and prescribes lenses or visual aids? a. cna b. podiatrist c. pa d. optometrist e. neurologist
Health professional that diagnoses visual abnormalities and prescribes lenses or visual aids d)optometrist
Who are optometrist?Optometrists examine the eyes to detect any defects in vision, signs of injury, ocular diseases or abnormality.
A doctor of optometry completes a Bachelor of Science degree, followed by four year Doctor of Optometry degree from an accredited university's school of optometry.
An optometrist is an eye doctor that can examine, diagnose and treat eyes whereas ophthalmologist is a medical doctor who can perform medical and surgical interventions for eye conditions.
Optometrists are qualified to: diagnose eye disorders and diseases , diagnose health disorders involving the eyes, examine eyes for vision disorders, then prescribe, fit and supply glasses and contact lenses.
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there is little consensus on the management of premenstrual dysphoric disorder (pmdd). however, nurses can advise women on several self-help modalities that often improve symptoms. the nurse knows that health teaching has been effective when the client reports that she has adopted a number of lifestyle changes, including (select all that apply):
There is little consensus on the control of premenstrual dysphoric disease (PMDD). however, nurses can recommend girls on several self-help modalities that regularly improve signs and symptoms. the nurse knows ordinary exercise., improved nutrition., Smoking cessation.
Premenstrual dysphoric disorder (PMDD) is a totally extreme shape of premenstrual syndrome (PMS). It reasons a number of emotional and bodily symptoms each month in the course of the week or earlier than your length. it's miles now and again known as 'intense PMS'
Premenstrual dysphoric ailment (PMDD) is intense, the time-to-time disabling extension of premenstrual syndrome (PMS). even though PMS and PMDD each have physical and emotional signs.
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a 29-year-old woman had an obstetrical ultrasound at 33 weeks to follow-up a previous finding of a low-lying placenta. although the placental location was now acceptable, the amniotic fluid index (afi) was noted to be 8.9 cm. subsequent monitoring remained reassuring until 38.5 weeks, when the afi was 6 cm. the patient declined the recommendation to induce labor, and also refused to present for any further monitoring. she stated that she did not believe in medical interventions. nevertheless, she continued with her prenatal visits. at 41 weeks, she submitted to a further afi, which was found to be 1.8 cm. she and her husband continued to decline the recommendation for induced labor. what would you not do in this situation?
An intervention with proven effectiveness, induction of labor after term entails little danger to the mother. In this instance, it might shield a viable fetus from severe harm. Educated debate and persuasion efforts
What does fetal imply literally?"The bearing, giving forth, the hatching of young" is what the Latin word "fetus" refers to. Even though the Latin refers to a fetus "hatching," only viviparous vertebrates are thought to have fetuses in modern research. To put it another way, if an animal does have a backbone and was born alive, it used to be a fetus.
Could a fetus become pregnant?A recent account of a baby's case describes how she was carrying her own siblings when she was born in Hong Kong. Fetus-in-fetu is a disease that affects relatively few newborns—about 1 in every 500,000—and is extremely unusual. The precise reason why it occurs is unclear.
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the most significant precipitating event leading to otitis media with effusion is: group of answer choices viral upper respiratory infection (uri) pharyngitis perforation of the eardrum allergies
The most significant precipitating event leading to otitis media with effusion is known as Viral upper respiratory infection (URI).
Viral upper respiratory infection is the disease that causes infection in the upper portion that is in the throat and sinus infection. It is caused by a variety of viruses and its actual effect may be visible in a week in the infected person. This disease can be cured with proper medication and rest, drinking a lot of water, nasal washing etc. Otitis media is the infection caused in the middle ear which causes inflammation inside the ear and can cause pain. It is caused due to cold, sore throat, or respiratory infection. It can be treated using some antibiotic ear drops and prescribed medication by an ENT Specialist.
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To refer to the complete question, see below:
The most significant precipitating event leading to otitis media with effusion is:
a. Pharyngitis.
b. Allergies.
c. Viral upper respiratory infection (URI).
d. Perforation of the eardrum.
a nurse is caring for a client who is recovering in the hospital following orthopedic surgery. the nurse is performing frequent assessments for signs and symptoms of infection in the knowledge that the client faces a high risk of what infectious complication?
The most suitable nursing assessment is Risk of Central Neurovascular Dysfunction, because the hematoma may prevent tissue perfusion.
The most typical kind of dislocation is a head that is positioned posteriorly. nursing members will keep an eye on your breathing, temperature, pulse, and blood pressure while you are in the recovery room. To test the health of your lungs, they can request that you take several deep breaths. They could look for symptoms of bleeding or tissue perfusion at the location of your surgery. They'll keep an eye out for indications of an allergic response. As a tissue perfusion, you should avoid bending forward again than 90° and lifting your knees on the side of the operation higher than the hip. Avoid crossing your legs, turning your foot outward, and twisting or pivoting your hip that has had surgery. nursing members To prevent a hip dislocation, you must maintain safety measures. Not bending the hips past 90 degrees is one of these measures, as is sleeping.
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a client who was admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of thrombophlebitis 1 day ago suddenly reports chest pain and shortness of breath and is visibly anxious. the nurse immediately assesses the client for other signs and symptoms of
The nurse needs to assess the client right afterwards to look for any other Rationale symptoms or indicators.
Pulmonary embolism is a potentially lethal consequence of deep vein thrombosis and thrombophlebitis. The most common symptom is sudden onset, excruciating chest discomfort that gets worse as you breathe. Additional warning signs and symptoms include anxiety, diaphoresis, coughing, and dyspnea. When one of the pulmonary arteries in your lungs is clogged, it might result in a pulmonary embolism. Deep leg vein blood clots or, less frequently, veins in other parts of the body most frequently cause Rationale by making its way to the lungs (deep vein thrombosis).
Due to the clots' ability to prevent blood from getting to the lungs, pneumoembolism is a potentially fatal condition. But receiving prompt medical care greatly reduces the likelihood of dying.
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other countries follow brazil and change their dietary guidelines. what would prompt this? other countries follow brazil and change their dietary guidelines. what would prompt this? the increasing cost of food an increase in standard of living the increasing rate of obesity an increasing population
Following Brazil's lead, other nations modify their dietary recommendations. Then there is the rising obesity rate.
More calories consumed than are expended via exercise and daily exercise frequently leads to obesity. If a person Body mass index is 31 or over, they are told as obese. The primary sign of this condition is excessive body fat, which raises the possibility of major health issues. Lifestyle adjustments, such as nutrition and exercise, are the cornerstone of treatment. As an abnormal or excessive buildup of fat that poses a risk to health, overweight and obesity are both recognized terms. Overweight and obesity are defined by body mass index (BMI), which ranges from 25 to 30. Children and adults are also impacted by obesity. The amount of physical activity, eating habits, and sleep patterns are just a few of the variables that might cause excessive weight gain. A part is also played by genetics, social determinants of health, and using specific medications.
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in north america, specific population groups at increased risk of vitamin a deficiency include all of the following except
In north America, specific population groups at increased risk of vitamin deficiency except college-aged diabetics.
What is vitamin deficiency?Vitamin deficiency is a condition of long-term vitamin deficiency. If it is caused by inadequate vitamin intake, it is classified as a primary deficiency, while due to an underlying disorder such as malabsorption, it
The most common symptoms of vitamin deficiency are:
Fatigue, low energy. Loss of bone density2. Dry skin and hair. Depression.Iron deficiency is the most common nutritional deficiency in the world and one of the main factors affecting the global burden of disease. Iron deficiency can also cause anemia, a blood disorder that causes fatigue, weakness, dizziness and a weak immune system.
Vitamin deficiency anemia is a condition in which your body does not produce enough healthy red blood cells. This mainly happens if you have low levels of vitamin B12 or B9 (folic acid or folic acid).
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the nurse is monitoring the woman who is 1 hour postpartum and notes on assessment the uterine fundus is boggy, to the right, and approximately 2 cm above the umbilicus. the nurse would conclude this is most likely related to which potential complication?
The nurse would conclude that Bladder distention is most likely related to potential complication.
The stretching of the bladder with water is known as bladder distention. The surgery may be repeated if you show long-term improvement. During bladder distention, botulinum toxin A (Botox) may be injected into the bladder wall.
An infection in the bladder, urinary tract, or tissues surrounding it is the most common cause of a distended bladder. Infections can increase the desire to urinate, which can affect bladder muscle strength and capacity over time.
Bladder pressure is more like a dull discomfort than a muscle contraction. Interstitial cystitis is commonly blamed for bladder pressure, according to doctors (IC). IC is also referred to as bladder pain syndrome. Here's more information about this syndrome, its causes, and how to relieve the pressure.
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the nurse is caring for a client who, because of cultural beliefs, attributes their anxiety to a supernatural cause. when developing a plan of care for this client, which information would be most important for the nurse to keep in mind?
Nurses should accommodate each client's cultural beliefs and values whenever possible, unless there is direct conflict with essential health practices. communication, fosters mutual respect, promotes sensitive and effective care, and increases adherence with the treatment plan client's and family needs met.
What is cultural belief ?Cultural beliefs, which differ from knowledge in that they are not based on empirical discovery or analytic proof, are the concepts and ideas shared by a number of people that control interaction both within and among these people, as well as between them, their gods, and other groups.
Many diverse things, including one's religion, ancestry, skin colour, language, class, education, career, skill, family, and political opinions, have an impact on one's cultural identities. These elements play a role in the formation of one's identity.Learn more about Cultural belief here:
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the nurse is preparing discharge for a client that had been diagnosed with stage 4 terminal lung cancer. the client has chosen to purse palliative care. describe the nurse's responsibility regardinh discharge planning.
The nurse plays a crucial role in planning the discharge to ensure a smooth transition from the hospital to the community and that the patient's selected site of death can be realized.
Even when taking complicated medications with a syringe driver, patients are still able to go home. An unnecessary readmission to the hospital can be avoided with careful discharge planning. Healthcare services should be perceived as a single system by both patients and caregivers. In the community, it may be challenging to find injectable drugs. On Friday afternoons, everyone finds it challenging to make an urgent referral to the neighbourhood. Typically, community nurses are not permitted to give a patient who is not in an electric bed "hands-on" care.
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a parent has heard that several adolescents have been diagnosed with mononucleosis. the parent asks the nurse what precautions should be taken to prevent this from occurring in her teen. what instructions should the nurse give the parent?
The nurse should advise the parent to avoid any special safety precautions. The kissing disease is another name for infectious mononucleosis (mono).
Epstein-Barr virus, the virus that causes mono, is transmitted through saliva. You can contract mono through kissing, but you can also become exposed by sharing a drink or eating utensils with a mono patient. But mononucleosis is less communicable than some illnesses, like the common cold. Teenagers and young adults are more prone to contract mononucleosis and experience all of its symptoms. Young toddlers typically exhibit few symptoms, making it difficult to detect the infection. It's crucial to watch out for side effects like an enlarged spleen if you have mononucleosis. Recovery is aided by rest and drinking enough fluids.
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mr. gonzalez, an 82-year-old man, fell down three weeks ago and broke his leg. he has been living at shady grove nursing home for the past two years. his family only visits him every 2-3 months. mr. gonzalez has been confined to the bed. the staff have been ignoring him lately; they don't move him hardly at all sometimes for 24 hours. at first the skin on his buttocks was shiny and red, but progressed to a shallow open sore. there is no sign of infection. based on the most probable diagnosis, can the doctor make this diagnosis just on the visual examination of his skin alone?
Yes, based solely on a visual examination at his skin, the doctor made this diagnosis.
What distinguishes a diagnosis from a diagnosis?Diagnoses, which is pronounced [dahy-uhg-noh-seez], is the plural form. Diagnose is the verb form. To diagnose is to provide a diagnosis of what precise ailment is afflicting the patient; a doctor may diagnose an illness or a patient, but the concept is the same in both cases.
A doctor can they make a diagnosis?A doctor and other healthcare professional often makes a diagnosis after a physical examination and just a thorough review of the patient's medical history. The next step is to prescribe tests or other diagnostic procedures to identify the underlying disease or injury that's also causing the symptoms.
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the nursing instructor is quizzing a group of students about fluid and electrolyte balance. which statements made by the students indicate an understanding of the efforts of the organs to maintain fluid and electrolyte balance? select all that apply.
Maintaining the proper level of water in your body is critical for survival, as either too little or too much will result in subpar performance the statement made by the students indicate an understanding of the efforts of the organs to maintain fluid and electrolyte balance.
What are the symptoms of electrolyte imbalance?
Confusion and irritabilityDiarrhea or constipationFatigue.Headaches.Irregular or rapid heart rate (arrhythmia).Muscle cramps, spasms, or weakness.Vomiting and nausea.The kidneys regulate intravascular volume through fluid retention and excretion. By excreting and retaining hydrogen ions, the kidneys control the pH of extracellular fluid. By secreting aldosterone, the adrenal glands control the volume of blood.
Therefore, the nervous system controls oral intake by sensing intracellular dehydration, which causes thirst.
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which one of the following describes the optimal relationship between evidence-based nursing (ebn) and quality improvement (qi )initiatives?
The following that describes the optimal relationship between evidence-based nursing (EBN) and quality improvement (QI)initiatives is that they are both natural twosome which contribute to the pursuit of quality of care.
Who is a Nurse?This is referred to as a healthcare professional who specializes in taking care of the sick and ensuring that adequate recovery is achieved.
There is an optimal relationship between between evidence-based nursing (EBN) and quality improvement (QI)initiatives which is that they are both involved in the contribution to the pursuit of quality of care.
The evidence-based nursing is a type of best research evidence and with clinical expertise while quality improvement initiatives as the name implies helps to increase the quality of care in healthcare facilities.
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a client presents to the ed with a myocardial infarction. prior to administering a prescribed thrombolytic agent, the nurse must determine whether the client has which absolute contraindication to thrombolytic therapy?
Thrombolytic therapy (additionally known as thrombolysis) is the usage of medications to dissolve blood clots. Thrombolysis reduces damage to your frame's organs and tissues while there are clots by way of enhancing blood waft.]
Thrombolytic remedies can encompass the usage of medicinal drugs to ruin blood clots or prevent new blood clots from forming. it's also known as fibrinolytic therapy. some of these clot-busting capsules are taken by mouth.
Thrombolytic dealers set off plasminogen to form plasmin, which hastens the lysis of thromboembolic. The thrombolytic remedy is used in patients with acute pulmonary embolism (PE) to rapidly dissolve the embolic burden and enhance cardiorespiratory hemodynamics.
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the nurse is educating a pregnant client about the importance of dietary folic acid to prevent anemia. which food source will the nurse encourage because it is high in folic acid?
The food sources nurse would encourage the pregnant client to eat foods high in folic acids such as dark green leafy vegetables (like spinach), wheat germ, dried beans, and orange juice.
During pregnancy, the body makes more red blood cells to supply enough for both the mother's body and the baby's body. Since every red blood cell needs iron to be made, the mother must make sure that she eats enough foods that contain iron or folic acid.
There are lots of food that can provide iron/folic acid for a pregnant mom, such as chicken, green peas, broccoli, tomato juice, raspberries, roast beef, whole wheat bread, kidney beans, sirloin steak, raisins, liver, beets.
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an older adult reports anxiety and is prescribed diazepam by a primary care provider. the office nurse is asked to explain to the client the problematic side effects of this medication. which instruction about this drug would be most important for the nurse to emphasize?
You may feel dizzy and be prone to falls after taking this medication instruction about this drug would be most important for the nurse to emphasize.
When is anxiety too much?A little anxiousness is normal, but persistent anxiety may result in more severe health issues, such hypertension (hypertension). Additionally, you can be more susceptible to illnesses. You may suffer from an anxiety condition or an anxiety attacks if you constantly feel anxious or if it interferes with your daily activities.
Does anxiety ever go away?Anxiety is not entirely reversible because it is a normal aspect of being human. But experiencing anxiety should only last when a source of stress or trigger is present.
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a nurse providing education about hypertension to a community group is discussing the high risk for cardiovascular complications. what are risk factors for cardiovascular problems in clients with hypertension? select all that apply.
Smoking, diabetes, and physical inactivity are all risk factors for cardiovascular problems throughout hypertensive patients.
What effects does smoking have on your body?Cigarette smoking is linked to cancer, heart disease, stroke, lung disease, diabetes, but also chronic obstructive , that also includes emphysema and chronic bronchitis. Smoking also raises the risk of tuberculosis, certain eye diseases, as well as immune system problems such as rheumatoid arthritis.
What causes people to smoke?Nicotine addiction affects approximately 80-90% of people who smoke on a regular basis. Nicotine enters your body and travels to your brain inside of 10 seconds. It stimulates the release of adrenaline in the brain, resulting in a rush of pleasure as well as energy.
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the nurse is conducting an admission assessment with a 45-year-old client who has been demonstrating signs of bipolar disorder. while conducting the assessment, the client starts speaking in illogical rhymes and using word associations. what is the name for this thought pattern?
The name of the thought pattern of the patient is flight of ideas.
Flight of ideas, according to the American Psychological Association, is a sort of cognitive problem that leads certain people to speak quickly and change between loosely related thoughts when speaking.
Most individuals become enthusiastic from time to time and speak too rapidly or jump between thoughts that come to them. People are frequently aware of and accept the fact that they are speaking rapidly when this occurs.
Flight of ideas, on the other hand, is a form of mental disorder that might manifest as a symptom of another ailment. People suffering from this mental disorder are often unaware that they are moving from issue to subject since everything appears "related" to them.
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56-year-old type 2 DM patient on metformin, NPH and enalapril presented with bilateral leg swelling of 2 weeks duration. BP-150/90, 5Cr-3.4mg/dl and K+= 6.5 ECG shown peaked T waves. What is the next initial step in management? A Hold metformin and enalapril B. Give Calcium gluconate 1096 C. Intravenous Lasix D. Repeat serum electrolyte and RFT
Since the 56-year-old type 2 DM patient on metformin, NPH and enalapril presented with bilateral leg swelling of 2 weeks duration, the next initial step in management is option D. Repeat serum electrolyte and RFT.
Does metformin have an impact on kidney function?In individuals with intermediate CKD, metformin-associated lactic acidosis can result in metabolic acidosis, which has been demonstrated to have a negative impact on renal function and accelerate the progression of CKD [17–19].
Therefore, Every three to six months, fasting blood sugar, postprandial blood sugar, and hemoglobin A1C (HbA1c) levels are monitored for any oral antidiabetic medications. Long-term metformin use has been linked sporadically to vitamin B12 insufficiency.
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dr. smartypants designs a research study to examine whether or not taking probiotic supplements causes children to perform better in school. she assigns one group of children to take probiotic supplements daily, and assigns another group of children to take vitamin c every day. in her study, the group of children taking probiotic supplements is called the:
Ashe assigns one group of children to take probiotic supplements daily, and assigns another group of children to take vitamin C every day so in her study, the group of children taking probiotic supplements is called the experimental group.
Probiotics help your body maintain a healthy community of microorganisms or facilitate your body's community of microorganisms come back to a healthy condition once being disturbed. It influence your body's immune reaction.
Vitamin C is an inhibitor that helps shield your cells against the results of free radicals that play a job in cardiopathy, cancer and different diseases.
An experimental group is that the cluster that receives the variable being tested in an experiment. The management cluster is that the cluster in an experiment that doesn't receive the variable you're testing.
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a community health nurse is conducting a workshop for adults who have hypertension and is now teaching participants about reading food labels when they are shopping at the supermarket. what teaching point should this nurse prioritize?
Lesson should this nurse focus on when she says, "Take special care of the amount of salt that each dish contains"
Sugar or salt, which is worse?According to a study by American researchers and published online in the journal Open Heart, salt is actually better than sugar at raising blood pressure and increasing the risk of heart disease.
Which drinks include sodium?Flavored instant coffee has 124 mg of salt in it, whereas hot cocoa made from a mix and served with water has 232 milligrams. The sodium content of some fruit beverages can also be rather high; for example, canned orange juice has 77 milligrams of sodium and canned lemonade contains 60 milligrams.
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