In addition to the symptoms like nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea, or abdominal cramps, digoxin toxicity may also cause visual disturbances.
Thus, the correct answer is visual disturbances (A).
Digoxin toxicity mаy cаuse visuаl disturbаnces (such аs, flickering flаshes of light, colored or hаlo vision, photophobiа, blurring, diplopiа, аnd scotomаtа), centrаl nervous system аbnormаlities (such аs heаdаche, fаtigue, lethаrgy, depression, irritаbility аnd, if profound, seizures, delusions, hаllucinаtions, аnd memory loss), аnd cаrdiovаsculаr аbnormаlities (аbnormаl heаrt rаte аnd аrrhythmiаs).
Digoxin toxicity doesn't cаuse tаste аnd smell аlterаtions. Dry mouth аnd urine retention typicаlly occur with аnticholinergic аgents, not inotropic аgents such аs digoxin. Nocturiа аnd sleep disturbаnces аre аdverse effects of furosemide, especiаlly if the client tаkes the second dаily dose in the evening, which mаy cаuse diuresis аt night.
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which term best describes the pattern of occurrence of the three diseases noted below in a single area?
The term that best describes the pattern of occurrence of the three diseases noted below in a single area is sporadic.
Sporadic illness is a phrase used in epidemiology to describe a disease that occurs infrequently, haphazardly, irregularly, or intermittently from time to time in a few isolated sites with no identifiable temporal or geographical pattern, as opposed to a clear epidemic or endemic pattern. The incidents are so rare and so far apart in time and space that there is little or no link between them. They also lack a discernible common source of infection.
Tetanus, rabies, and plague are examples of occasional illnesses in the United States. Although the tetanus-causing bacterium Clostridium tetani is prevalent in soil across the United States, tetanus infections are extremely rare and occur in isolated regions because most people have received vaccines or cleaned wounds properly.
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education of parents regarding administering oral antibiotics to a 4-month-old infant with otitis media includes:
Education of parents regarding administering oral antibiotics to a 4-month-old infant with otitis media includes How to administer an oral drug using a medication syringe. Option A is correct.
Otitis media is a middle ear infection. The majority of the time, it is caused by bacteria that virtually all youngsters have in their nose and throat at some point. Ear infections are most commonly caused by a viral respiratory tract illness, such as a cold or the flu. In children with acute otitis media, high-dose amoxicillin is suggested as first-line antibiotic treatment. A five- to seven-day regimen is sufficient for children over the age of six with mild to severe illness.
Acute otitis media (AOM) is a middle ear infection that is the second most prevalent pediatric emergency room diagnosis after upper respiratory infections. Acute otitis media can occur at any age, although it is most frequent between the ages of 6 and 24 months.
The complete question is:
Education of parents regarding administering oral antibiotics to a 4-month-old infant with otitis media includes:
A. How to administer an oral drug using a medication syringeB. Mixing the medication with a couple ounces of formula and putting it in a bottleC. Discontinuing the antibiotic if diarrhea occursD. Calling for an antibiotic change if the infant chokes and sputters during administrationTo learn more about otitis media, here
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which complication of cardiac catheterization should the nurse monitor for in the initial 24 hours after the procedure?
The nurse should monitor for the following complications of cardiac catheterization within the initial 24 hours after the procedure: cardiac arrhythmias, pericardial effusion or tamponade, cardiac perforation, vascular complications, and allergic reactions.
What is cardiac catheterization?Cardiac catheterization is a medical procedure used to diagnose and treat certain heart conditions. The procedure involves the insertion of a thin, flexible tube called a catheter into a vein or artery in the arm, groin, or neck. This catheter is then guided to the heart, where it is used to measure the pressure in the chambers and take X-rays of the heart. It may also be used to inject contrast dye, allowing doctors to see the coronary arteries and any blockages that may be present.
The nurse should also monitor for signs and symptoms of infection, such as fever, chills, and redness or swelling at the catheter insertion site. In addition, the nurse should assess for signs and symptoms of bleeding, such as bruising or bleeding at the insertion site, or shortness of breath.
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the nurse wishes to use a distraction technique when administering an injection to an anxious child. which technique would be best for the nurse to implement?
Interactive games would be the best technique to distract a pediatric patient while performing any medical procedure.
No of the patient's age, you are an experienced healthcare practitioner who understands the need of giving them a satisfying experience. But building trust is even more important when treating pediatric patients who are only starting to link the hospital setting with experiencing pain.
You'll have time to gather supplies and ready the injection site without pepping up their interest if you open the app and launch the game a few minutes before you start the process. They will be completely immersed in their game by the time you are prepared to begin.
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the mother of a 12-year-old boy is talking with the school nurse about her son's clumsiness. she reports that he seems to fall a lot, his writing is horrible, and as much as he practices he can't play his guitar very well. how should the nurse respond to the mother?
The nurse should explain to the mother that her son's clumsiness, poor writing, and difficulty playing guitar may be signs of a learning disability or other developmental issue.
What is nurse?A nurse is a healthcare professional who provides medical care to patients in a variety of settings, including hospitals, clinics, long-term care facilities, and private homes. Nurses are typically responsible for assessing and monitoring patients’ health, administering medication, conducting physical exams, providing education and counseling, and performing other tasks to ensure the best care and health outcomes for patients. Nurses must also have excellent communication and interpersonal skills, as they often serve as a patient’s primary point of contact with the healthcare system.
She should suggest that the mother schedule an appointment with her son's doctor to get a more thorough assessment of his issues and determine if any accommodations or interventions could help him improve.
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day-to-day choices can help reduce the risk of heart disease. one of the major risk factors for development of heart disease is elevated ldl, which can be affected by dietary factors like the types and amounts of dietary fat consumed. read the statements below and select all of the correct statements regarding how various dietary fats affect ldl cholesterol levels. select all that apply.
Atherosclerosis, a condition that causes the blood vessels supplying the heart to narrow, is what causes heart disease. On the inside of the arterial walls, fatty deposits (or plaque) progressively accumulate, constricting the passageway for blood to the heart.
When atherosclerosis first develops, it might be quite advanced by the time you reach middle age. Plaque accumulation may be steady or unstable. The condition known as angina must be addressed if there is an excessive buildup of stable plaque because it narrows the arteries and causes pain and discomfort since not enough blood is getting to the heart. Unstable plaque is infected, has a flimsy cover that is prone to cracking, and is inflammatory.
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which of the following treatments would you choose for mr. fitzgerald's skin cancer? choose the single best answer. a. observation for now, because it is still carcinoma in-situ. b. refer mr. fitzgerald for mohs surgery. c. refer mr. fitzgerald for radiation therapy. d. treat the lesion with cryotherapy. e. treat the lesion with topical 5-fluorouracil (5-fu). f. wide excision under local anesthesia in the office
The following treatments would choose for Mr. Fitzgerald's skin cancer (squamous cell carcinoma) Option A. Wide excision under local anesthesia in the office.
Squamous cell carcinoma of the skin is a type of skin cancer that develops in the squamous cells that comprise the skin's middle and outer layers.
Squamous cell carcinoma of the skin is rarely fatal, but it can be aggressive. Squamous cell carcinoma of the skin, if left untreated, can become large and spread to other parts of your body, causing major consequences.
The majority of squamous cell carcinomas of the skin are caused by extended exposure to ultraviolet (UV) radiation, which can come from sunshine or tanning beds or lamps. Avoiding UV light reduces your chances of squamous cell carcinoma and other types of skin cancer.
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Complete Question is:
Which of the following treatments would you choose for Mr. Fitzgerald's skin cancer (squamous cell carcinoma)? Choose the single best answer.
A. Wide excision under local anesthesia in the office
B. Refer Mr. Fitzgerald for Mohs surgery.
C. Treat the lesion with topical 5-fluorouracil (5-FU).
D. Treat the lesion with cryotherapy.
E. Refer Mr. Fitzgerald for radiation therapy.
F. Observation for now, because it is still carcinoma in-situ.
5.What is the main idea of this text?
A.Ben Carson grew up in Detroit, Michigan, and his mother, Sonya Carson,
worked hard to support her children in their academic pursuits by encouraging
them to read often and write book reports for her.
B. As Secretary of Housing and Urban Development under President Trump,
Ben Carson came up with a plan to create EnVision centers across the United
States to provide services to the surrounding community.
C.
Ben Carson is an African-American neurosurgeon and politician who
pioneered important brain surgeries and later served as the Secretary of
Housing and Urban Development.
D.As a neurosurgeon, Ben Carson performed important surgeries that
changed the medical field, including one difficult 22-hour surgery in which he
separated conjoined twins.
Answer:
The main idea of this text is option C: "Ben Carson is an African-American neurosurgeon and politician who pioneered important brain surgeries and later served as the Secretary of Housing and Urban Development."
Explanation:
The text provides an overview of Ben Carson's background and accomplishments in both the medical field as a neurosurgeon and in politics as a government official.
the nurse is conducting a support group for parents of 9- and 10-year-olds. the parents express concern about the amount of time their children want to spend with friends outside the home. what should the nurse teach the parents that peer groups provide?
The nurse should include a source of affection, regarding the role of the peer group in the life of a school-age child.
School age child development is a range from 6 to 12 times of age. During this time period observable differences in height, weight, and figure of children may be prominent. The language chops of children continue to grow and numerous geste changes do as they try to find their place among their peers.
Peer relationships give a unique environment in which children learn a range of critical social emotional chops, similar as empathy, affection, cooperation, and problem- working strategies. Peer connections can also contribute negatively to social emotional development through bullying, rejection, and counterculturist peer processes.
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which parameters indicate that the prescribed iv mannitol (osmitrol) has been effective for an unconscious patient? a. increased oxygen saturation b. decreased intracranial pressure c. decreased hematocrit level d. increase in blood pressure e. increasing consciousness level
(B) lower intracranial pressure is the appropriate response to this question.
As an osmotic diuretic that lowers intracranial pressure and cerebral edema, mannitol is frequently made by hydrogenating fructose, which can be made from either starch or sucrose.
It may initially cause a decrease in hematocrit and an increase in blood pressure, but these are not the best indicators of the drug's effectiveness.
Mannitol treatment won't necessarily result in an increase in oxygen saturation.
Mannitol also has various applications, including the protection of the kidneys during cardiac and vascular surgery, renal transplantation, and the treatment of rhabdomyolysis.
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you hate vegetables, but you eat them so you won't have a heart attack. what type of operant conditioning explains why you eat vegetables?
Negative reinforcement type of operant conditioning explains why you eat vegetables.
Operant behavior is defined as conduct that is "controlled" by its consequences. In practice, operant conditioning is the investigation of reversible behavior that is sustained through reinforcement schedules. We examine empirical investigations as well as theoretical approaches to two major types of operant behavior: interval timing and choice. Operant conditioning, also known as instrumental conditioning, is a kind of learning in which actions are influenced by associating inputs with reinforcement or punishment.
By reducing unpleasant consequences or cues, negative reinforcement tries to enhance specified behaviors. It is a component of the operant conditioning learning theory. Positive reinforcement, which enhances behavior through rewards, is also included in this approach.
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in which stage is carbon dioxide released and you get rid of it by exhaling?
They expel carbon dioxide and inspire oxygen into our body, which is referred to as inhalation (called expiration, or exhalation). Respiration is the process of exchanging oxygen and carbon dioxide. The citric acid cycle is the phase of cellular respiration that results in the release of carbon dioxide.
Glycolysis, the citric acid cycle, and the electron transport chain are the first three processes in aerobic cellular respiration. The process by which the cells of all living organisms break down the chemical component glucose with oxygen to produce carbon dioxide and water is known as cellular respiration. Every time you breathe in, oxygen enters your body, and every time you breathe out, carbon dioxide leaves. The process by which cells (both plants and animals) break down sugar when it is present in their mitochondria is known as cellular respiration.
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What is the difference between constrictive bronchiolitis or obliterative bronchiolitis?
Constrictive bronchiolitis (CB), also known as obliterative bronchiolitis, is an inflammation and fibrosis that primarily affects the walls and surrounding tissues of membranous and respiratory bronchioles, narrowing their lumens as a result.
Inflammation and fibrosis cause bronchiolar lumina to narrow or occlude in obliterative bronchiolitis. The relationship between bronchiolar structural changes and lung function was investigated in 19 patients with a pathological diagnosis of obliterative bronchiolitis. The clinical appearance, lung function tests, and the bronchiolar inflammatory and fibrotic characteristics were associated. Four patients had normal spirometry, however eleven patients experienced airflow limitation. One patient had a restrictive pattern, one had a mixed pattern, two had isolated gas trapping. There was almost always mild-to-moderate bronchiolar irritation. It affected 54% of the adventitia and 60% of the bronchioles subepithelially.
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the nurse is obtaining a reproductive health history from a 17-year-old client. which approach by the nurse would be most effective in obtaining accurate information?
The approach by which the nurse would be most effective in obtaining accurate information is in private, asking the teen about her sexual history. Option 1 is correct.
A teen may not feel comfortable discussing his or her sexual past with a parent present in the room. If you ask the teen if she wants her parent in the room, she may become confused if the parent is present for part of the process but not for the rest. The information collected from the parent may be incorrect.
Reproductive health is a condition of total physical, mental and social well-being and not only the absence of sickness or infirmity, in all aspects connected to the reproductive system and to its activities and processes. Reproductive health refers to the ability to have a pleasurable and safe sexual life, as well as the ability to reproduce and the freedom to choose if, when, and how often to do so.
The complete question is:
The nurse is obtaining a reproductive health history from a 17-year-old client. Which approach by the nurse would be most effective in obtaining accurate information?
in private, asking the teen about her sexual historyasking the parent to answer the questionshaving the parents present in the room to interpret the questions for the teenasking the teen if she wants her parent to be in the room during the questioningTo learn more about reproductive health, here
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42) a client is admitted to the neurological floor with a diagnosis of guillain-barre syndrome. the nurse inquires during the admission interview if the client has history of: a. seizures or trauma to the brain. b. meningitis during the last 5 years c. respiratory infection in the last month d. back injury or spinal trauma
The patient is questioned by the nurse about past back or spinal trauma during the Guillain-Barré admission interview. So, option D is correct.
When the body's nerves are damaged by the immune system of the person, Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS) results. Weakening of the muscles and, on rare occasions, paralysis are the effects of this damage. Guillain-Barré syndrome's precise cause is uncertain. A respiratory infection or gastrointestinal illness is frequently followed by days or weeks of the disease's onset. Recent surgery or vaccinations can infrequently cause Guillain-Barre syndrome. Following Zika virus infection, there have been cases that have been recorded. It is less likely to have issues if treatment is received quickly. Fewer than 1% of people with Guillain-Barre syndrome experience complications, and even fewer people die from the condition. After Guillain-Barre syndrome goes into remission, life expectancy does not seem to be affected.
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why is fiber is not digested by the human digestive tract?
The body is unable to digest fibre, which is a form of carbohydrate. Although fibre cannot be converted into glucose, the sugar that results from the breakdown of most carbs, fibre travels through the body undigested.
the rn on the neuromedical unit is assigned 4 patients which should he/she assess first? a. pt with skull fracture with a bleeding nose b. older pt with 2 days post stroke who is confused and agitated c. pt with meningitis who has suddenly become agitated and reporting headache 10/10 d. pt who had craniotomy for brain tumor and who is now 3 days post op with continued vomiting
For the purposes of this recommendation, a head injury is any trauma to the head other than minor facial wounds. In the UK, head injuries are the leading cause of mortality and disability for people ages 1 to 40. In England and Wales, 1.4 million people visit emergency rooms each year after suffering a recent head injury.
Children under the age of 15 make up between 33% and 50% of this group. Every year, over 200,000 patients with brain injuries are admitted to hospitals. One-fifth of them have characteristics that point to a skull fracture or show signs of brain injury. Most patients recover without specialised care or assistance, but some suffer long-term disabilities or even pass away as a result of problems that might have been reduced or prevented with early diagnosis and treatment.
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a nurse is teaching a group of middle-aged clients about peptic ulcers. when discussing risk factors for peptic ulcers, the nurse should mention
A nurse is teaching a group of middle-aged men about peptic ulcers. When discussing risk factors for peptic ulcers, the nurse should mention alcohol abuse and smoking. Option 4 is correct.
The nurse should clarify that risk factors for peptic (gastric and duodenal) ulcers include alcohol misuse, smoking, and stress. Peptic ulcers are not caused by a sedentary lifestyle or a history of hemorrhoids. Duodenal ulcers are connected with chronic renal failure rather than acute renal failure.
Peptic ulcer disease (PUD) is defined by a rupture in the stomach's inner lining, the first segment of the small intestine, or the lower esophagus. A gastric ulcer affects the stomach, whereas a duodenal ulcer affects the first segment of the intestine. Upper stomach ache while sleeping and upper abdominal pain that improves after eating are the most common signs of a duodenal ulcer. The pain of a stomach ulcer may worsen when you eat.
The complete question is:
A nurse is teaching a group of middle-aged men about peptic ulcers. When discussing risk factors for peptic ulcers, the nurse should mention:
a sedentary lifestyle and smoking. a history of hemorrhoids and smoking. alcohol abuse and a history of acute renal failure. alcohol abuse and smoking.To learn more about peptic ulcers, here
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2. Why is it important to insert the catheter an additional 1 inch before inflating the balloon?
When inserting a urinary catheter, it is important to insert the catheter an additional 1 inch before inflating the balloon in order to ensure that the balloon is properly positioned in the bladder.
If the balloon is inflated before the catheter is inserted to the correct depth, it can cause discomfort, pain, or even injury to the urethra or bladder. On the other hand, if the balloon is not inserted far enough into the bladder, it can cause the catheter to slip out or leak urine around the catheter.
By inserting the catheter an additional 1 inch before inflating the balloon, the tip of the catheter can reach the bladder, and the balloon can be properly positioned inside the bladder. This helps to ensure that the catheter remains in place and prevents urine from leaking or flowing back up the catheter.
Overall, inserting the catheter to the correct depth before inflating the balloon is an important step in ensuring that the catheterization procedure is safe, effective, and comfortable for the patient.
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mr. carter is an inpatient in your hospital. his prescriber just ordered tamsulosin 0.8 mg every 24 hours. how many tamsulosin 0.4 mg capsules will you put in mr. carter's med cart drawer for the day?
2 tamsulosin 0.4 mg capsules will be put in Mr. Carter's med cart drawer for the day.
Tamsulosin, also known as Flomax, is a medicine used to treat symptomatic benign prostatic hyperplasia and chronic prostatitis, as well as to aid in the passage of kidney stones. When a kidney stone is bigger, the evidence for benefit is stronger. It is administered orally.
Tamsulosin belongs to a class of drugs known as alpha-blockers. It is prescribed to males who have symptoms of an enlarged prostate (benign prostate enlargement). It is also used to treat kidney stones on occasion. Tamsulosin is a prescription medication that is also accessible in pharmacies. Tamsulosin relaxes the muscles in the prostate gland and the bladder opening. This may assist enhance urine flow or alleviate discomfort.
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The skin helps in the excretion of uric acid and ammonia.
True
False
Answer:
True
Explanation:
Yes it True it helps to get rid of that.
T-R-U-E
I hope this helps.
A first aider does not have to understand how the human body works in order to
effectively provide care.
True
False
Answer:
The answer to the question is false
a person's usual pattern of food intake is called . multiple choice question. diet behavior modification informed food choices
A person's usual pattern of food intake is called diet, the correct option for this question is (A).
Diet, as used in nutrition, refers to the items a person frequently eats and drinks or a group. A regulated diet, or one that fulfills the physical demands of a person, may be used during a specific illness therapy or health condition management.
For instance, a diabetic's diet could be limited to a few foods and beverages that might assist control blood sugar levels. Diabetes patients are advised to consume a lot of fiber, non-starchy fruits and vegetables.
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The complete question is:
A person's usual pattern of food intake is called
A) diet
B) behavior
C)modification
D) informed food choices
Which kind of laboratory is independent and analyzes samples from other health care facilities?
Independent labs that analyze samples from other healthcare facilities are known as reference labs. a laboratory that performs reference or calibration measurement procedures or assigns reference values to test objects.
Later potentially providing those associated reference values for references or sources of traceability of test results; alternate names include reference measurement, reference testing, and calibration laboratory.5 of the Different Types of LaboratoriesDiagnostic laboratoriesHospital laboratories.National laboratories.Clinical laboratories.Research and university laboratories.
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you are preparing to discharge a patient who is taking ciprofloxacin. what guidance would you offer this patient to prevent crystalluria?
The guidance that one would offer this patient to prevent crystalluria is "Drink at least 2 liters of fluids per day."
Ciprofloxacin is a fluoroquinolone antibiotic that is used to treat bacterial infections. This includes, among other things, bone and joint infections, intra-abdominal infections, infectious diarrhea, respiratory tract infections, skin infections, typhoid fever, and urinary tract infections.
Ciprofloxacin is used to treat bacterial infections throughout the body. Ciprofloxacin oral liquid and pills are also used to treat anthrax infections caused by inhalation. This medication is also employed in the treatment and prevention of plague (including pneumonic and septicemic plague).
Crystalluria is a possible adverse effect of fluoroquinolones like ciprofloxacin. To reduce the likelihood of acquiring the disease, patients should be urged to drink two to three quarts of water every day. Although the nurse should advise the patient to take the medicine as recommended and to avoid antacids, which can reduce drug absorption, neither of these measures can prevent crystalluria.
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A nurse is assessing a newborn following a vacuum-assisted delivery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
The nurse should treat this client using the safety and risk reduction priority-setting approach. Directly on the client's chest, place the newborn.
RNs differ from normal nurses in what ways?A nurse is referred to as a "registered nurse" if they have obtained all necessary licenses, completed all educational requirements, and been given state-issued authorization to practice nursing (RN).
Either nurses are born, or they are conceived.A great nurse is not made; they are born. They have an unbounded capacity for empathy and a steadfast dedication to putting an end to misery from the moment they are born. When a patient requires assistance, a capable nurse will go above and beyond to satisfy him.
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client care dealing with nutrition and metabolism should include which factors? select all that apply.
Without knowing the specific context of the client care, here are some general factors related to nutrition and metabolism that may be important:
Dietary intake, Nutrient needs, Metabolic rate, Hydration status, Physical activity, Medications/supplements, Lifestyle factors.
What is metabolism?Metabolism is the set of biochemical processes that occur in living organisms to maintain life. It involves the conversion of food and oxygen into energy and the elimination of waste products. Metabolic reactions are catalyzed by enzymes and can be divided into two categories: catabolism and anabolism. Catabolic reactions break down complex molecules into simpler ones and release energy, while anabolic reactions use energy to build complex molecules from simpler ones.
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ou have performed a rapid trauma assessment on a patient with multiple long-bone injuries. your next assessment step should be which of the following? question 4 options: a) transport the patient to the hospital and perform a detailed physical exam b) perform a detailed physical exam c) call the als unit to determine their eta before deciding your next step d) obtain baseline vital signs and past medical history.
You have performed a rapid trauma assessment on a patient with multiple long-bone injuries. your next assessment step should be, Option d) obtain baseline vital signs and past medical history.
Rapid Trauma Assessment (RTA) is a critical process that any EMT or EMS practitioner should learn and master. The RTA is used on patients with a substantial mechanism of injury or unconscious patients with an unknown mechanism of damage to quickly collect an inventory of all body systems that may be injured on your patient.
Rapid Trauma Assessment (RTA) is a rapid (typically 60 to 90 seconds) procedure used most commonly by Emergency Medical Services (EMS) to identify concealed and visible injuries in a trauma victim. [1] The purpose is to identify and treat immediate hazards to life that were not apparent during the initial examination. Following a first evaluation that includes basic checks on airway, breathing, and circulation, the caretaker evaluates items like mechanism of injury (how the individual was injured) to determine if a more fast diagnostic technique than would ordinarily be employed is necessary.
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what are specific nursing interventions to support atraumatic and fcc, including developmental-specific strategies?
Nursing interventions are the steps a nurse takes to carry out their patient care plan, such as any treatments, procedures, or learning opportunities meant to increase the patient's comfort and health.
Nursing interventions aimed at the family as a whole are known as family nursing interventions. They might involve educating the patient's family members on how to care for the patient, in the case of new moms, it includes teaching and support for breastfeeding and other baby care practices.
Basic interventions for the patient's physical health involve practical actions like food and sanitary aid. Some clinics and hospitals concentrate on public health efforts to inform patients, and their families. These coordinated community nursing treatments promote overall wellness and good health.
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Patients with pheochromocytoma should avoid which of the following classes of drugs because of the possibility of developing hypertensive crisis?a. Beta-2 agonists
b. Beta-3 agonists
c. Beta-7 agonists
d. Ipratropium bromide
Patients with pheochromocytoma should avoid A. Beta-2-agonists.
In general , in case of pheochromocytoma the agents that are known to provoke pheochromocytoma paroxysm are beta-adrenergic blocker in absence of alpha-adrenergic blockade also glucagon, histamine, metoclopramide they should be avoided.
Hence ,Preoperative preparation may requires combined alpha and beta blockade in order to control the blood pressure and to prevent an intraoperative hypertensive crisis. Alpha-adrenergic blockade are the drugs used for controlling the blood pressure and prevent a hypertensive crisis .
Hence , A is the correct option
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