Plantar fascia strain
It results from plantar fascia irritation, overuse, or injury. The ligament that joins the front of your foot to your heel is called the plantar fascia.
What is Plantar fascia ?An infection of the thick tissue band that runs from the heel bone to the toes.
The bottom of the foot is covered in swollen tissue.
Repetitive action or anything that puts a lot of strain on the arch of your foot might lead to plantar fasciitis. Therefore, repetitive extended durations of standing or being on your feet, along with sports like running, jogging, and walking, can frequently cause plantar fasciitis.Learn more about Plantar fascia here:
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Kitty Genovese was brutally murdered in front of several eyewitnesses who did not intervene or call for help. According to social psychologists, this failure to assist Kitty was due to ________
a. a diffusion of responsibility
b. people’s unwillingness to help women in society
c. deficits in empathy
d. the selfish nature of human beings
Answer:
D
Explanation:
I profer D is the possible answer.
Some research studies suggest that chromium may play a role in decreasing the risk of developing?
Chromium may play a role in decreasing the risk of developing diabetes and insulin resistance. It can lower the level of glucose and improve insulin sensitivity .
Chromium deficiency may increase blood sugar , cholesterol level, increase the risk for a number of conditions and triglycerides.Fatty acids and cholesterol synthesis stimulates chromium which important for brain function and other body processes.
Chromium helps in keep blood sugar levels normal by improving the way the body uses insulin. If the level of chromium is high in the body then stomach problem and low blood sugar and can damage the liver, kidney and nerves.
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Pregnant women have a significantly higher risk of contracting foodborne illness caused by a specific pathogen. Which is it?
According to the research, pregnant women have a significantly higher risk of contracting foodborne illness caused by listeria monocytogenes.
What is listeria?It is an infection caused by a gram-positive bacterium called listeria monocytogenes that is transmitted to humans orally by food contaminated by this pathogen.
It is mainly related to the consumption of unpasteurized dairy products and it is considered one of the infections with the highest fetal and neonatal morbidity in pregnant women since they may spread the infection transplacentally to the unborn child, causing spontaneous abortions.
Therefore, we can conclude that according to the research, pregnant women have a significantly higher risk of contracting foodborne illness caused by listeria monocytogenes.
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Unconscious processes and hidden thoughts or desires are tested through ________ personality tests, such as the TAT.
a. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI)
b. self-report
c. trait analysis
d. projective
self-report because self reporting is personal
Jamal is placed in the remedial reading class at school and labels himself as a bad reader, thereby causing him to read less and not improve his reading. This is an example of the
a self-fulfilling prophecy
b the fundamental attribution error
c. mere exposure effect
d. stereotype threat
Answer:
B
Explanation:
I feel it should be B in this case .
A person expected the behavior of another person, and Jamal placed himself as a bad reader, which is an example of a self-fulfilling prophecy, hence option a is correct.
What is a self-fulfilling prophecy?The phenomenon of self-fulfilling prophecy, also known as the interpersonal expectancy effect, describes how a person's or a group's anticipation of the conduct of another person.
The Greek myth of Oedipus contains a famous example of a self-fulfilling prophecy. Oedipus' father, Laius, is warned in the myth that his son would eventually murder him.
In order to avert this fate, he abandons his kid and abandons him to die. Self-fulfilling prophesies are classified into two types: When your own expectations impact your actions, you create self-imposed prophecies.
Therefore expected behavior for another person, is an example of a self-fulfilling prophecy, hence option a is correct.
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In the united states, clinical mineral deficiencies are typically limited to iron and calcium.
a. true
b. false
In the united states, clinical mineral deficiencies are typically limited to iron and calcium is true.
Which mineral is most likely to be deficient in the United States?Clinical mineral deficits in the United States typically only affect calcium and iron. Aerobic capacity decreases when iron-deficiency anemia is prevalent and then improves with iron supplementation. There is some evidence to suggest that athletes may lose more minerals than people who are sedentary. Infants, young children, adolescent girls, premenopausal women, and pregnant women are at risk for iron insufficiency, which is the most prevalent nutrient deficiency globally.
Calcium, iron, zinc, and magnesium deficits are the most prevalent, especially in females and people who eat a diet low in animal products. To avoid deficiencies, you should be able to avoid them by eating enough red meat, organ meats, dairy, shellfish, nuts, seeds, and whole grains.
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Identify the PPE to be used when delivering a food tray to a resident who has a skin infection or open wound
Check all that apply.
[mark all correct answers]
a. Mask or respirator
b. Goggles
c. Face Shield
d. Gloves
e. Gown
f. No PPE is needed
Answer:
gloves, gown, goggles, and mask or respirator
Explanation:
The personal protective equipments used while delivering food tray to resident with skin infections or open wounds are face shield,gloves and gown.
What are personal protective equipments?Personal protective equipment is a protective clothing which is worn to protect the wearer's body from hazard or injury.The hazards which can be addressed by the use of personal protective equipment are physical,chemical and bio hazards.
It imposes a barrier between the user and the working environment.The main purpose of personal protective equipment is to reduce exposure of employees to the hazards.
It has a limitation that it does not eliminate the hazard and may lead to harm to the employee if the equipment is damaged.It is not effective if it is not worn or fitted properly.
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A teenage client who is obese visits her health care provider's office for her annual physical exam. While the health care practitioner is taking the client's blood pressure and collecting pertinent data, the client asks about the use of Ritalin, a CNS stimulant, for weight loss. How can the health care practitioner BEST respond to her question?
While Ritalin may decrease the appetite, it is not recommended, because it can lead to physical and psychological dependence.
What does psychological dependence mean?
A phrase used to characterize the emotional or mental aspects of drug use disorder is "psychological dependence," . Includes symptoms including intense cravings for the substance or behavior and trouble thinking about anything else.What is the difference between physical and psychological?
Dependence on a substance is a definition of psychological dependency. Although substance use disorders are often accompanied with physical dependence, this is not always the case. Cannabis is frequently categorized as a drug with no physical dependence. It is classified as psychologically addictive by experts on substance use.What is psychological impact of dependency?
According to some experts, an increase in physical reliance has significant ramifications on a number of levels, including poorer psychological wellbeing and life quality as well as more stigma and marginalization (Gignac and Cott, 1998).
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The systematic and continuous approach to providing emergent patient care includes which three elements?.
In emergency situations, the Assess, Recognize, and Care idea is a systematic and continuous technique for quick assessment, precise recognition, and prompt care. Because the health of an acutely ill patient can quickly deteriorate, frequent assessment, recognition, and care are essential.
What are the steps of which includes assess, recognize and care?Use a visual assessment to determine the need for further resources, evaluate safety, and form an initial impression of the patientA responsiveness checkIf the patient is not responding, open the airway while simultaneously testing for breathing and a pulse.After you've finished your quick assessment, give care in accordance with the circumstances discovered.Learn more about Emergency techniques here:
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Which neural center in the limbic system plays a central role in emotions such as aggression and fear?.
Amygdala
The neural center in the limbic system that plays a central role in emotions such as aggression and fear is amygdala.
AmygdalaThe name "amygdala" relates to the structure's almond-like form. The left and right amygdalae, which are situated immediately adjacent to the hippocampus, are crucial to how we react emotionally, including how we feel pleasure, fear, anxiety, and anger.What is the limbic system?The limbic system is the area of the brain that controls human behavior and emotions, especially when it comes to behaviors like feeding, reproducing, and raising offspring as well as fight-or-flight reactions.The limbic system's components are hidden deep inside the brain, above the brainstem and below the cerebral cortex. The hippocampus and the amygdala are two of the limbic system's key components, along with the thalamus, hypothalamus (which produces vital hormones and regulates appetite, thirst, mood, etc.), and basal ganglia (which processes rewards, forms habits, moves, and learns).To learn more about limbic system visit:
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What soft material forms on the teeth and is primary cause of gingival inflammtion?
Answer:
gunk
Explanation:
Which example did you choose? Explain why your choice is important in sequencing the ICD-10-CM codes. secondary pulmonary arterial hypertension in HIV (reason for the encounter is for HIV
In your own words, explain the guidelines that affect your example.
Which of the examples in the article do you think is the most difficult to understand? Explain why.
Secondary pulmonary arterial hypertension in HIV is classified by the ICD code 10 - I27.2-Other secondary pulmonary hypertension. the guidelines are affected because HIV is not specific but the ICD is for other pulmonary hypertension.
What is pulmonary hypertension in HIV patients?The diagnosis of pulmonary hypertension in HIV-positive patients requires a high degree of clinical suspicion, as the signs and symptoms are not specific. Dyspnea is the main symptom in patients with PAH, however, in patients with HIV, an infectious cause, mainly of respiratory origin, must be excluded.
With this information, we can conclude that ICD 10 provides codes relating to the classification of diseases and a wide variety of signs, symptoms, abnormal aspects, complaints, social circumstances.
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What do we call the anatomical units responsible for the formation of urine? __________.
Nephrons
The kidney's functional unit that is in charge of producing urine is called a nephron. More than a million nephrons can be found inside each kidney.
What are Nephrons ?The structural and operational unit of the kidney is the nephron. It filters the blood and reabsorbs the vital nutrients to control the levels of water and minerals like sodium
Glomerulus, Bowman's capsule, Proximal convoluted tube, Loop of Henle, Distal convoluted tube, and the collecting duct are the six components that make up a nephron. The nephron produces urine through the processes of filtration, reabsorption, secretion, and excretion. These are applicable to many substances.Learn more about Nephrons here:
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A high folic acid intake may mask a ______ deficiency so the FDA limits the amount of this vitamin in nonprescription supplements.
A high folic acid intake may mask a "B-12" deficiency so the FDA limits the amount of this vitamin in nonprescription supplements.
What is B-12 deficiency?It may become more difficult to absorb the vitamin as we age. Additionally, it may occur if you regularly consume alcohol or have surgery for weight loss or another procedure that involved the removal of a portion of your stomach.
Some Symptoms of Vitamin B-12 Deficiency are-
weakness, exhaustion, or dizzinessBreathlessness and heart palpitationsA soft tongue and pale skindiarrhea, vomiting, appetite loss, or bloatingMuscle weakness, difficulties walking, and nerve issues including numbness or tinglingloss of visiondespair, memory problems, or behavioral abnormalities are examples of mental health issuesThe treatment of B-12 can be done by following ways-
There are alternatives if you do not even eat animal products. If you are lacking in vitamin B12, you can adjust your diet to include fortified grains, a supplement, B12 injections, or even a high-dose oral vitamin B12.A daily B12 vitamin or multivitamin containing B12 will likely be required for older persons who suffer from a vitamin B12 deficiency.Treatment typically fixes the issue for most people. However, any nerve damage caused by the deficit may be irreversible.To know more about vitamin B12 deficiency, here
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If you wanted to add significant quantities of vitamins and minerals to your diet from the food you eat, a good choice would be
Fortified cereals such as raisin bran are a good choice to increase vitamins and minerals in the diet.
Whole grain contains the bran, the germ and the endosperm. So, fortified cereals such as oatmeal are fortified with macronutrients and micronutrients.
For instance, whole grain oatmeal is a good source of beta gluten fiber which lowers the cholesterol that is responsible for heart diseases.
Raisin bran is also a good cereal which is fortified with iron, calcium, vitamin A, C, D and E.
They also contain fibers which help in digestion and micronutrients present in these cereals lower the risk of diseases associated with deficiencies.
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The american medical association did not provide its official endorsement of cochlear implants until:__________
The American medical association did not provide its official endorsement of cochlear implants until 1983.
A cochlear implant is a neuroprosthesis that is surgically installed and allows someone with moderate to extensive sensorineural hearing loss to perceive sound. Cochlear implants may enable better speech comprehension in both calm and noisy contexts with the aid of therapy.Deaf people with cochlear implants can hear and understand speech. These gadgets do not, however, enable regular hearing. They are instruments that enable the processing and transmission of sound and speech to the brain. Everyone is not a good candidate for a cochlear implant. Individually, 82.0% of persons with post lingual hearing loss and 53.4% of adults with prelingual hearing loss showed a 15 percentage point or greater improvement in their ability to perceive speech.learn more about cochlear implants here: https://brainly.com/question/8835802
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After Stephen was rejected by the admissions office at Yale, he claimed that he wouldn’t enjoy such a large school anyway. This is an example of which defense mechanism?
a. displacement
b. rationalization
c. reaction formations
d. regression
Some viruses can undergo lysis or lysogeny within the same host. Under what conditions might the virus favor lysis instead of lysogeny?.
Phages, viruses that infect bacteria, can have an impact on the dynamics of bacterial communities, the development of bacterial genomes, and the biogeochemistry of ecosystems.
Depending on whether phages create lytic, persistent, or lysogenic infections, these influences change. Despite the fact that the first two replicate virions and cause cell death with lytic infections, phages suffering lysogenic infections reproduce within cells without virions.
What is lysogenic ?
When one or more phages are present in the host cell, the condition is known as lysogeny, and the lytic genes are suppressed by the repressor expressed by the phage. In these situations, the virus cannot reproduce on its own and no viral particles are generated.
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Who wrote an anatomical treatise that most closely explains circulation as we know it today?.
Answer:
I think the correct answer is
William Harvey
There is little distinction between the terms ""outpatient"" and ""ambulatory.
a. true
b. false
The answer is true.
What is the difference between outpatient and ambulatory?Ambulatory care is care provided by health care professionals such as doctors in outpatient settings means the same day. These settings include medical offices and clinics, surgery centers, outpatient departments, and dialysis centers while on the other hand, outpatient is a patient who is not hospitalized overnight. They visits a hospital, clinic, or associated facility for diagnosis or treatment for checkup.
So we can conclude that the statement is true.
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The symptom of schizophrenia most likely to be relieved by antipsychotic drugs is:_________.
The symptom of schizophrenia which will most likely be relieved by antipsychotic drugs is referred to as delusion and hallucination.
What is Schizophrenia?This is referred to a mental disorder which is characterized by an individual interpreting reality abnormally. The individual has issues thinking clearly or acting in a normal manner and is caused a combination of factors such as genetics, environment etc.
This type of disorder affects the way they think, act or perceive things in their environment and symptoms include delusions and hallucinations which can be relieved through the use of antipsychotic drugs.It is also usually managed through different types of treatment plans all through the lifetime of the individual.
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A client who has been in labor for 20 hours is being prepared for an emergent cesarean birth. Which action will help ensure the client's fluid status during the procedure?
Amniocentesis is a clinical test during pregnancy is performed to ensure the client's fluid status during the procedure.
What is amniocentesis?Amniocentesis is the test done during pregnancy.
During this process, an ultrasound transducer is determine the growth and position of the baby in uterus.
In the process of amniocentesis, amniotic fluid that contain fetal cells and chemicals is taken as a sample for testing.
Amniocentesis is performed between 15-20 weeks of pregnancy.
The procedure of amniocentesis helps to know the genetic and chromosomal condition of the fetus.
Therefore, amniocentesis is performed to know the client's fluid status during the procedure of cesarean birth.
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The client taking antihypertensive medications is taught to notify the healthcare provider when which findings occur?
A client who's taking blood pressure or antihypertensive medications is taught to notify the healthcare provider when there is a weight gain of 5 pounds in two days.
Antihypertensive medications are blood pressure medications which can bring the blood pressure down. They are different types which are given by the healthcare provider by taking factors like age, sex, race etc. into consideration.
These medicines act in different ways. For example, some remove extra fluids from the blood whereas others block natural hormones which raise the blood pressure. The side effect of these medicines is that they lead to weight gain and if the client gains 5 pounds in over two days, it has to be reported to the healthcare provider.
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Disorders are psychological disorders that feature fears that are uncontrollable, disproportionate to the actual danger the person might be in, and disruptive of ordinary life.
Answer: Phobia
Explanation:
JoJo believes firmly that abortion is wrong and that life begins at conception. This is an example of the ________ component of an attitude.
a. cognitive dissonance
b. cognitive
c. behavioral
d. affective
JoJo believes firmly that abortion is wrong and that life begins at conception. This is an example of the b. cognitive component of an attitude.
Medical testing for possible brain irregularities or structural problems is often done by?
Answer:
Medical testing for possible brain irregularities or structural problems is often done by CT, MRI, or PET scans.
Hangovers, interference with hormones, adding excess calories, and displacing healthier food choices from your diet include consequences of
Hangovers, interference with hormones, adding excess calories, and displacing healthier food choices from your diet include consequences of "excessive alcohol consumption".
What is hormones?Hormones are substances that communicate with your organs, skin, muscles, and other tissues through your blood to coordinate various bodily functions. These messages instruct your body on what to do when.
Some key point of hormones are-
Hormones are chemicals that control and influence a vast array of body functions. A body process frequently requires a series of hormone reactions.When a hormone "fits"—that is, when the cells inside the tissue contain receptors that can take in the hormone's message—it will only affect that area of your body. Think of the cells in a hormone's tissue, like an organ or a layer of fat, as specialized locks and the hormone as a key. The hormone will transmit a message that prompts the target to do a certain activity if it matches the lock (receptors) on the cell wall.Hormones are necessary for both life and wellness.To know more about major functions of hormones, here
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A client has been purging to maintain weight loss. Which would be an important goal immediate for this client
A client has been purging to maintain weight loss. An immediate goal for this client is to stop purging. Purging is an eating disorder that involves getting rid of calories to induce weight loss.
Purging can refer to a variety of things such as :
self induced vomitingmisuse of laxatives or medicationsextreme workoutstarvingIts important to keep in mind that eating disorders are some of the most fatal mental health conditions. These are some of the harmful effects caused by purging :
Oral effects : Stomach acid can cause teeth to become discoloured, harm enamel and alter the length, shape and form of teeth.Skin-related effects : Pale, dry skin, brittle hair and nails, and even calluses on the hands from forced vomiting are all symptoms of severe dehydration.Gastrointestinal effects : Regular laxative use and frequent bowel movements can result in intestinal rupture, bleeding, reflux, and loss of stool control.Endocrine effects : The kidneys are compelled to recycle whatever is still in the body when it is dehydrated. Hormone levels and glucose levels become unbalanced.Nervous system effects : Mental clarity and reasoning skills deteriorate.Skeletal effects : Purging can induce a loss of calcium, which might result in osteopenia or possibly osteoporosis.Cardiovascular risks: Dehydration results in electrolyte imbalance, which weakens the heart and promotes muscular wastage.Failed weight loss: Although the body may lose water weight, this indicates that the metabolism is unhealthy, the body is dehydrated, and it is out of balance.Learn more about purging at https://brainly.com/question/1457947
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what is the aim of health and social care in germany
Those who have seizures suffer from a chronic neurological disorder called epilepsy. True or false?.
According to the research, the statement is false, people who have seizures don't suffer exclusively from a chronic neurological disorder called epilepsy.
What are seizures?
They are those spasmodic movements of the voluntary skeletal muscles that are due to the alteration in a specific brain area or at a general level that occur abruptly and involuntarily, with contractions of one or several muscle groups.
They are a symptom of the existence of a brain problem that can have various origins, for example epilepsy is a disease that affects the central nervous system whose usual clinical manifestation ranges from loss of consciousness with spontaneous epileptic seizures.
Therefore, we can conclude that according to the research, the statement is false, people who have seizures don't suffer exclusively from a chronic neurological disorder called epilepsy.
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