A DC/DC boost converter is operating with a constant output voltage Vo=40V. Now, assuming that all the components are ideal, calculate:
a. The minimum inductance (Lmin) required in order the converter to operate in continuous conduction mode (CCM) for the following operating conditions: Vd=10-20V, Po≥80W, fs=20kHz.
b. Calculate the average input current (Id) in the case of Vd=20V, Po=100W and L=Lmin. Draw the input current (id) for the same case.
c. For the same operating conditions described in previous task, draw analytically the currents that flow through the inductor (iL), the switch (isw), the diode (idiode) and the capacitor (iC).
d. Calculate the peak-to-peak ripple of the output voltage if C=220uF.
e. If the switching frequency increases, the duty cycle D, will increase, decrease or it will remain constant if the rest operating conditions are kept constant? Explain in detail.
f. If the load current decreases (remaining in CCM), the inductor current ripple will increase, decrease or it will remain constant? Explain in detail.

Answers

Answer 1

a. Minimum inductance: Lmin for CCM (Continuous Conduction Mode) can be calculated using the following expression for the given operating conditions: P0 = VoI0 => I0 = P0/VoIavg = I0/2 => Iavg = I0/2Lmin = (Vd * (D) * (1 - D)) / (2 * fs * (Iavg))
Now, Lmin for given operating conditions are:When Vd = 10V, P0 = 80W, fs = 20kHz and Vo = 40V, Iavg = 80/40 = 2ALmin = (10 * 0.5 * 0.5) / (2 * 20k * 2) = 0.625 mHWhen Vd = 20V, P0 = 80W, fs = 20kHz and Vo = 40V, Iavg = 80/40 = 2ALmin = (20 * 0.5 * 0.5) / (2 * 20k * 2) = 1.25 mH

b. Average input current:When Vd = 20V, P0 = 100W and L = Lmin = 1.25 mHFor CCM, the duty cycle is: D = (Vo - Vd) / Vo = (40 - 20) / 40 = 0.5The peak-to-peak inductor current ripple is given by:∆IL = (Vo * D) / (2 * L * fs) = (40 * 0.5) / (2 * 1.25 * 20k) = 0.4 AThe average input current (Iavg) is:Iavg = (Po / η * Vd) + (Vo / Vd) * (∆IL / 2) = (100 / 1 * 20) + (40 / 20) * (0.4 / 2) = 2.2A

c. Current analysis: The currents through various components for the same operating conditions are:iL = ∆IL/2 * sin(2πfst)isw = I0 - iLidiode = iL - I0iC = Iavg

d.Ripple calculation: The output voltage ripple is given by:∆Vo = Iavg / (2 * C * fs) = 2.2 / (2 * 220µ * 20k) = 0.5Ve. An explanation for duty cycle: If the switching frequency is increased while the rest of the operating conditions are kept constant, the duty cycle D will decrease. This is because the time for which the switch is ON will reduce, causing the output voltage to decrease and the duty cycle to decrease in order to maintain the output voltage.

f. Inductor current ripple: If the load current decreases while remaining in CCM, the inductor current ripple will increase. This is because the average current in the inductor remains constant, but with a smaller load current, the peak-to-peak current ripple increases.

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Related Questions

A critical component of a machine is subject to cyclic loading which produces a bending moment and stresses that cycle from "0" to a maximum bending stress.
The material is steel having a hardness of 160 BHN, Su = 551 Mpa and Sy = 213 Mpa
The cross sectional dimensions of the material has a width of 20 mm and a height of 25 mm. The geometry of the part transitions to a larger section through a fillet which has been estimated to have a stress concentration factor of Kt = 1.87 and a notch sensitivity factor of q = 1.87.
The infinite fatigue strength Sn has been calculated at 182.83 Mpa.
Calculate the maximum bending moment that would give infinite fatigue life with a SF = 1. Support your answer by drawing the Goodman's Diagram.

Answers

The maximum bending moment that would give infinite fatigue life with a safety factor of 1 is approximately 204.17 Nm.

Hardness (HB): 160 BHN

Ultimate Tensile Strength (Su): 551 MPa

Yield Strength (Sy): 213 MPa

Width (b): 20 mm

Height (h): 25 mm

Stress Concentration Factor (Kt): 1.87

Notch Sensitivity Factor (q): 1.87

Infinite Fatigue Strength (Sn): 182.83 MPa

Safety Factor (SF):

the alternating stress (Sa) using the infinite fatigue strength (Sn) and the notch sensitivity factor (q):

[tex]Sa=\frac{Sn}{q}[/tex]

Substituting the given values:

Sa = [tex]\frac{182.83}{1.87}[/tex]

Sa ≈ 97.79 Mpa

To calculate the maximum bending moment, we need to consider the given parameters and follow the appropriate steps.

the maximum allowable bending stress (σ_max)

Since the safety factor (SF) is 1, the maximum allowable bending stress (σ_max) is equal to Sa.

σ_max = Sa

σ_max ≈ 97.77 MPa

calculate the section modulus (Z)

[tex]\[Z = \frac{{20 \, \text{mm} \cdot (25 \, \text{mm})^2}}{6}\][/tex]

[tex]\[Z \approx 2083.33 \, \text{mm}^3\][/tex]

Step 4: Determine the maximum bending moment (M)

M = σ_max * Z

M = 97.77 MPa x 2083.33 mm^3

M ≈ 204,165.83 Nmm (or 204.17 Nm)

Therefore, the maximum bending moment that would give infinite fatigue life with a safety factor of 1 is approximately 204.17 Nm.

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These values are randomly chosen for demonstration purposes and may not represent realistic or accurate values. The actual solution would require specific and accurate values for the parameters involved.

Block A of the pulley system is moving downward at 6 ft/s while block C is moving down at 31 ft/s. Part A Determine the relative velocity of block B with respect to C Express your answer to three significant figures and include the appropriate units. Enter positive value if the velocity is upward and negative value if the velocity is downward. VB/C = Value Units

Answers

Given that,Block A of the pulley system is moving downward at 6 ft/sBlock C is moving down at 31 ft/sThe relative velocity of block B with respect to C is VB/C. We need to determine this velocity.To calculate VB/C, we need to calculate the velocity of block B and the velocity of block C.

The velocity of block B is equal to the velocity of block A as both the blocks are connected by a rope.The velocity of block A is 6 ft/s (given)Hence, the velocity of block B is also 6 ft/s.The velocity of block C is 31 ft/s (given)The relative velocity of block B with respect to C is the difference between the velocity of block B and the velocity of block C.VB/C = Velocity of block B - Velocity of block C = 6 - 31 = -25 ft/sNegative sign shows that velocity is downward.Hence, VB/C = -25 ft/s.

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You would like to humidify a space that has a 100% outside air unit to 50% RH in the winter, and would like to keep the discharge RH from exceeding 80% (ignoring any latent gains in the space). However, you get frequent low humidity alarms in the winter. Why? Evaluate the situation, and provide working solutions.

Answers

The frequent low humidity alarms in the winter could be caused by the humidifier's inability to provide enough humidity to the space. The outside air unit is usually very dry, so it may require a large humidifier to bring it to the desired humidity level.

Here are some working solutions to address the issue:

1. Upgrade the humidifier: This is one of the simplest solutions. Replacing the current humidifier with a larger unit can increase the amount of moisture it releases into the air, allowing the desired humidity level to be reached.

2. Reduce the air exchange rate: Since the air entering the space is very dry, the system must work harder to achieve the desired humidity level. Reducing the air exchange rate, therefore, makes the job easier for the humidifier.

3. Recirculate air: Recirculating air within the space allows the humidifier to maintain the desired humidity level more efficiently. Instead of bringing in 100% outside air, the unit will be humidifying a portion of the air that is already present in the space.

4. Install a preheater: Installing a preheater upstream of the humidifier can help maintain the discharge RH below 80%. The preheater increases the temperature of the outside air entering the humidifier, allowing it to hold more moisture.

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_____ strive to align organizational structures with value-adding business processes. A)
Process-oriented organizations
B)
Core business processes
C)
Functional area information sysems
D)
Strategic management processes

Answers

A) Process-oriented organizations strive to align organizational structures with value-adding business processes.

Process-oriented organizations are characterized by their focus on business processes as the primary unit of analysis and improvement. They understand that value is created through the effective execution of interconnected and interdependent processes.

By aligning their organizational structures with value-adding business processes, process-oriented organizations ensure that the structure supports the efficient flow of work and collaboration across different functional areas. This alignment allows for better coordination, integration, and optimization of processes throughout the organization.

Core business processes, on the other hand (option B), refer to the fundamental activities that directly contribute to the creation and delivery of value to customers. Functional area information systems (option C) are specific information systems that support the operations of different functional areas within an organization. Strategic management processes (option D) involve the formulation, implementation, and evaluation of an organization's long-term goals and strategies.

While all of these options are relevant to organizational structure and processes, it is specifically process-oriented organizations (option A) that prioritize aligning structures with value-adding business processes.

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(a) For any point in fluid having stream line as. (1) dx/u = dy/v = dz/w = 0
(2) dx/u = dy/v = dz/w = dt
(3) dx/u = dy/v = dz/w = dt
(b) For any point in fluid having path line as. (1) dx/u = dy/v = dz/w = dt
(2) dx/u = dy/v = dz/w = 0
(3) dx/u = dy/v = dz/w = dt
(c) For any point in fluid having componentizes of velocity as function of time, then the motion is. (1) unsteady motion, (2) steady motion, (c) otherwise (d) For any point in fluid having componentizes of velocity not function of time, then the motion is. (1) steady motion, (2) unsteady motion, (c) otherwise

Answers

The point in a fluid having a streamline is described by dx/u = dy/v = dz/w = 0.

The point in a fluid having a pathline is described by dx/u = dy/v = dz/w = dt.

For any point in a fluid with velocity components as a function of time, the motion is unsteady.

A streamline in a fluid represents a line that is tangent to the velocity vector at each point. It describes the path a fluid particle follows at a specific instant. The condition dx/u = dy/v = dz/w = 0 indicates that the particle's displacement in each direction (x, y, and z) divided by the velocity components (u, v, and w) is zero. This implies that the particle is not moving in any of these directions at that particular instant.

A pathline in a fluid represents the trajectory followed by an individual fluid particle over time. The condition dx/u = dy/v = dz/w = dt indicates that the particle's displacement in each direction divided by the velocity components is equal to the infinitesimal time increment (dt). This implies that the particle's position changes with time as it moves along its pathline.

If the velocity components of a fluid at a point are functions of time, then the motion is considered unsteady. This means that the velocity at that point changes over time, indicating varying flow conditions. Unsteady motion can occur in situations such as unsteady flow past an object, time-varying boundary conditions, or transient flow phenomena.

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The equation W = fvdp holds good for work-absorbing machine like a pump or a compressor O work-producing machine like an engine or turbine O none of the mentioned O both of the mentioned

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The equation W = fvdp holds good for work-producing machines like an engine or turbine.

In these machines, work is produced by converting the energy of a fluid or gas into mechanical work. The equation represents the work done (W) by the machine, which is equal to the product of the force (f) applied, the displacement (d) over which the force is applied, and the pressure (p) exerted by the fluid or gas. This equation is derived from the basic definition of work. For work-absorbing machines like pumps or compressors, the equation does not hold because these machines consume energy to perform work, rather than producing it.

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A class "A" power amplifier uses a transformer as a coupling device. The transformer has a turns ratio of 10 and the secondary load is 10Ω. If the zero-signal collector current is 100mA,
Find the maximum power output.

Answers

To find the maximum power output of the class A power amplifier, we need to calculate the maximum collector current and then use it to calculate the maximum power output.

Given:

Turns ratio of the transformer (Np/Ns) = 10

Secondary load resistance (RL) = 10Ω

Zero-signal collector current (Ic) = 100mA

The maximum collector current (Ic(max)) can be calculated using the formula Ic(max) = Ic / (1 - Ic/2Ic), where Ic/2Ic is the peak-to-peak collector current swing.

Since this is a class A amplifier, the peak-to-peak collector current swing is equal to the zero-signal collector current, so Ic/2Ic = Ic. Substituting the given value, we have Ic/2Ic = 100mA.

Therefore, Ic(max) = 100mA / (1 - 100mA/2*100mA) = 100mA / (1 - 1/2) = 100mA / (1/2) = 200mA.

Now, we can calculate the maximum power output (Pout) using the formula Pout = (Ic(max))^2 * RL. Substituting the values, we get Pout = (200mA)^2 * 10Ω = 0.04W * 10Ω = 0.4W.

The maximum power output of the class A power amplifier is 0.4 watts.

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In the position coordinate, Pſr, θ), r = radial coordinate, and θ=transverse coordinate (True/False).

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False. In the position coordinate (r, θ), **r** represents the radial coordinate, while **θ** represents the angular or polar coordinate.

To elaborate, in polar coordinates, a point in a two-dimensional plane is represented using the radial distance from the origin (r) and the angle between the positive x-axis and the line connecting the origin to the point (θ). The radial coordinate (r) determines how far the point is from the origin, while the angular coordinate (θ) specifies the direction or angle at which the point is located with respect to the reference axis. These coordinates are commonly used in mathematics, physics, and engineering to describe positions, velocities, and forces in circular or rotational systems.

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explain why key management a problem is in: (a) symmetric encryption (b) asymmetric encryption also explain how the problem is solved in both cases

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Key management is a problem in both symmetric encryption and asymmetric encryption, mainly because keys are the core component of these encryption techniques.

Symmetric encryption uses the same key for both encryption and decryption. It is vulnerable to attacks like brute force attack, known-plaintext attack, and many more as all the parties must have the same key. Also, key exchange is a significant problem with this encryption scheme.

To solve this problem, a Key Distribution Centre (KDC) is used in symmetric encryption. This approach provides a secure method for the exchange of keys between communicating parties. The KDC generates and securely distributes the keys to the participating parties.

Asymmetric encryption uses two different keys, one for encryption and the other for decryption. It is a complex algorithm and is more secure than symmetric encryption. The key distribution problem still exists in this encryption scheme.

In asymmetric encryption, a key-pair is generated for each user, consisting of a public key and a private key. The public key is shared among the users, while the private key is kept secret. When Alice wants to send a message to Bob, she encrypts the message using Bob's public key. Bob can only decrypt the message using his private key. This method eliminates the need for key distribution as each user generates their own key pair.

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water is to be pumped from the large tank shown with an exit velocity of 6 m/s. it was determined that the original pump (pump 1) that supplies 1 kw of power to the water did not produce the desired velocity. it is proposed that an additional pump (pump 2) be installed as indicated to increase the flowrate to the desired value. how much power (in kw) must pump 2 add to the water? the head loss for this flow is hl

Answers

Pump 2 must add approximately X kW of power to the water.

To determine the power required by Pump 2, we need to consider the change in kinetic energy of the water as it exits the tank. The kinetic energy can be calculated using the formula:

Kinetic Energy = (1/2) * mass * velocity^2

Since the water has an exit velocity of 6 m/s, we can calculate the initial kinetic energy. We are given that Pump 1 supplies 1 kW of power, so we can use this information to find the flow rate (Q) in kg/s using the equation:

Power (P) = Q * Head Loss (hl) * g

We know the velocity (V) is equal to the flow rate (Q) divided by the cross-sectional area (A) of the tank. Therefore:

Q = A * V

By substituting this equation into the power equation, we can solve for the flow rate Q:

1 kW = (A * V) * hl * g

Once we have the flow rate, we can determine the mass of water (m) using the equation:

mass = Q * density

With the mass and the exit velocity, we can calculate the initial kinetic energy. To achieve the desired velocity, the kinetic energy must increase. The additional power required by Pump 2 can be calculated by finding the difference between the final and initial kinetic energies.

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Explain the glazing and edge wear with suitable sketch. Explain the ISO standard 3685 for tool life.

Answers

Glazing and edge wear occur in tools during machining operations due to different mechanisms and can affect tool performance and tool life.

Glazing and edge wear are two common phenomena encountered in machining processes. Glazing refers to the formation of a smooth and shiny surface on the cutting tool, typically caused by high temperatures and friction generated during cutting. This results in a hardened layer on the tool surface, reducing its cutting ability. On the other hand, edge wear occurs when the cutting edge of the tool gradually wears out due to continuous contact with the workpiece material.

Glazing is often associated with the build-up of material on the tool surface, such as workpiece material or coatings. This build-up can lead to reduced chip flow, increased cutting forces, and diminished heat dissipation, ultimately affecting the tool's performance and lifespan. Edge wear, on the other hand, is primarily caused by abrasion and erosion from the workpiece material, resulting in a dulling or rounding of the tool edge. This deterioration of the cutting edge leads to increased cutting forces, poor surface finish, and decreased dimensional accuracy of machined parts.

To address glazing and edge wear issues and improve tool life, ISO standard 3685 provides guidelines and methodologies for evaluating tool performance and determining tool life. This standard defines various parameters, such as tool wear, cutting forces, surface finish, and dimensional accuracy, which can be measured and analyzed to assess tool performance. By monitoring these parameters and establishing suitable criteria, manufacturers can optimize cutting conditions, select appropriate tool materials and coatings, and implement effective tool maintenance strategies to maximize tool life.

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is a circuit with a buffer amplifier and is used at the input of the A/D converter to prevent its input from changing before the ADC process is complete O Sampler Sample-and-hold O quantizer ODAC Which of the following is not true concerning SDH container equivalency * STM-160C-48 STM-64 OC-192 STM-4-OC-12 OSTM-1-OC-4 st 1 po

Answers

A sample-and-hold circuit is used to hold the input voltage constant during the conversion process, but it does not include a buffer amplifier. In contrast, a buffer amplifier is used to isolate the input from the output and provide impedance matching, ensuring that the input does not change before the ADC process is complete.

Thus, option b is correct.

The SDH (Synchronous Digital Hierarchy) and SONET (Synchronous Optical Network) are two related standards used in telecommunications for transmitting multiple digital signals simultaneously over optical fiber. They define various signal rates, also known as "containers" or "optical carriers," which are standardized for efficient multiplexing and compatibility between different network equipment. The correct equivalence is STM-1 = OC-3, not OC-4.

Therefore, option d) STM-1 = OC-4 is incorrect, and the correct equivalence is STM-1 = OC-3.

Thus, option d is correct.

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What are the Kelvin Planck and Clausius Statements (using diagrams) and what three observations can be made about these two statements.

Answers

The Kelvin-Planck and Clausius statements are two formulations of the second law of thermodynamics, which describe the fundamental limitations and principles governing heat engines and heat transfer.

The Kelvin-Planck statement focuses on heat engines, while the Clausius statement focuses on heat transfer.

1. Kelvin-Planck Statement:

The Kelvin-Planck statement states that it is impossible to construct a heat engine that operates in a complete cycle and extracts heat from a single reservoir and converts it entirely into work. In other words, no heat engine can have 100% efficiency. This statement is often illustrated using a heat engine diagram, known as the Kelvin-Planck diagram.

```

         Heat Source (Th)

              ↑

              |

              Qh

              |

 +----- Heat Engine -----+

 |                      |

 |                      |

 |         Work         |

 |                      |

 |                      |

 |                      |

 |                      |

 |                      |

 |                      |

 |                      |

 |                      |

 |                      |

 +----------------------+

              |

              Qc

              |

              ↓

        Heat Sink (Tc)

```In the diagram, a heat source at temperature Th provides heat (Qh) to the heat engine, and the heat engine performs work. The remaining heat (Qc) is transferred to a heat sink at temperature Tc. The Kelvin-Planck statement asserts that it is impossible for a heat engine to extract all the heat from the source and convert it into work without any heat being transferred to the sink. Some heat must always be rejected to the sink.

2. Clausius Statement:

The Clausius statement states that it is impossible to construct a device that operates in a cycle and transfers heat from a cold body to a hot body without the aid of external work. This statement is often depicted using a refrigeration cycle diagram, known as the Clausius diagram.

```

        Cold Body (Tc)

             ↓

             |

             Qc

             |

+----- Refrigerator -----+

|                        |

|                        |

|         Work           |

|                        |

|                        |

|                        |

|                        |

|                        |

|                        |

|                        |

|                        |

|                        |

+------------------------+

             |

             Qh

             |

             ↑

        Hot Body (Th)

```

In the diagram, a refrigerator absorbs heat (Qc) from a cold body at temperature Tc and rejects heat (Qh) to a hot body at temperature Th. The Clausius statement states that it is impossible for heat to transfer spontaneously from a colder body to a hotter body without any external work being done on the system.

Observations about the Kelvin-Planck and Clausius statements:

1. Both statements are formulations of the second law of thermodynamics and describe fundamental limitations in thermodynamic processes.

2. The Kelvin-Planck statement focuses on heat engines and states that it is impossible to have a 100% efficient engine that extracts heat from a single source and converts it entirely into work.

3. The Clausius statement focuses on heat transfer and states that it is impossible to transfer heat from a cold body to a hot body without the aid of external work. Both statements emphasize the irreversibility of certain thermodynamic processes and the need for energy input to accomplish them.

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Choose the right answer for the following questions. When the voltage at the gate terminal of a MOS transistor is changing in a low frequency within its bandwidth, mark all statements below that apply. a) Its drain voltage also changes in the opposite phase (1, 2, 3, 4, 5) b) Its source voltage also changes in the same phase (1, 2, 3, 4, 5) c) Its source voltage also changes in the opposite phase (1, 2, 3, 4, 5) d) None of the above (1, 2, 3, 4, 5)

Answers

c) Its source voltage also changes in the opposite phase (1, 2, 3, 4, 5)

What are the advantages of using a digital communication system compared to an analog communication system?

When the voltage at the gate terminal of a MOS transistor is changing in a low frequency within its bandwidth, the source voltage of the transistor also changes in the opposite phase.

This is because the MOS transistor operates in an inversion mode, where a positive gate voltage causes the channel to conduct and results in a lower source voltage, while a negative gate voltage inhibits conduction and results in a higher source voltage.

Therefore, the source voltage of the transistor changes in the opposite phase to the gate voltage.

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If the air velocity increases (while the diameter of the tube remains constant), Nu will decrease/stay the same/increase. If the air velocity increases (while the diameter of the tube remains constant), h will decrease/stay the same/increase. If the air velocity increases (while the diameter of the tube remains constant), ħAs will decrease/stay the same/increase. If the tube diameter increases (while the air velocity remains constant), Nu will decrease/stay the same/increase. If the tube diameter increases (while the air velocity remains constant), h will decrease/stay the same/increase. If the tube diameter increases (while the air velocity remains constant), ħAs will decrease/stay the same/increase.

Answers

1. If the air velocity increases (while the diameter of the tube remains constant), Nu will increase.

2. If the tube diameter increases (while the air velocity remains constant), Nu will decrease.

When the air velocity increases while the diameter of the tube remains constant, the heat transfer coefficient, known as Nu, will increase. This is because higher air velocity results in improved convective heat transfer. As the air moves faster, it enhances the rate at which heat is carried away from the surface, leading to a higher Nu value.

This can be observed in various applications, such as cooling systems or heat exchangers, where increasing air velocity can enhance the overall heat transfer efficiency.

On the other hand, if the tube diameter increases while the air velocity remains constant, the Nu value will decrease. This is because a larger tube diameter creates a larger cross-sectional area for the air to flow through.

As a result, the air velocity decreases within the tube. Since Nu is dependent on the air velocity, a lower velocity leads to a lower Nu value. This decrease in Nu indicates reduced heat transfer efficiency, as the slower air flow hinders the rate at which heat is carried away from the surface.

Overall, the relationship between air velocity, tube diameter, and the Nu value is as follows: increasing air velocity while keeping the tube diameter constant increases Nu, whereas increasing tube diameter while maintaining constant air velocity decreases Nu.

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The position of a crate sliding down a ramp is given by x = (0.30t^3)m, y = (1.55t^2) m, z = (6 - 0.85t^{5/2}) m, where t is in seconds. = = Determine the magnitude of the crate's 1. velocity when t = 2 s in = m/s = 2. acceleration when t = 2 s in m/s^2

Answers

The position of a crate sliding down a ramp is given by x = (0.30t^3)m, y = (1.55t^2) m, z = (6 - 0.85t^{5/2}) m, where t is in seconds. The velocity and acceleration can be found from the first derivative and second derivative of position vector respectively.

So, first we find the velocity and acceleration using the given equations for x, y, and z components.1. Velocity when t = 2 s in m/sFor calculating velocity, we differentiate each component of position vector with respect to time t as shown below:

v = (dx/dt)i + (dy/dt)j + (dz/dt)kHere i, j, k are unit vectors along x, y, and z direction respectively. Given the position vector,x = (0.30t^3)my = (1.55t^2) mz = (6 - 0.85t^{5/2}) mDifferentiating x, y, and z component of position vector with respect to time t, we getvx = (dx/dt) = 0.9t² m/svy = (dy/dt) = 3.1t m/svz = (dz/dt) = -7.776t^{3/2} m/sThus, the velocity of the crate when t =

2s isv =

[tex]√[vx² + vy² + vz²]v[/tex]

= [tex]√[(1.8 × 2²)² + (3.1)² + (-11.664 × 2^{1/2})²]a ≈ 19.06 m/s²[/tex]

2. Acceleration when t = 2 s in m/s²For calculating acceleration, we differentiate each component of velocity vector with respect to time t as shown below:a = (dv/dt)i + (dv/dt)j + (dv/dt)kHere i, j, k are unit vectors along x, y, and z direction respectively.

Given the velocity vector,v = 0.9t² i + 3.1t j - 7.776t^{3/2} kDifferentiating x, y, and z component of velocity vector with respect to time t, we getax = (dvx/dt)

= 1.8t m/s²ay

= (dvy/dt)

= 3.1 m/s²az

= (dvz/dt)

= -11.664t^{1/2} m/s²Thus, the acceleration of the crate when t

= 2s isa

[tex]= √[ax² + ay² + az²]a[/tex]

[tex][tex]= √[(1.8 × 2²)² + (3.1)² + (-11.664 × 2^{1/2})²]a ≈ 19.06 m/s²[/tex][/tex]Therefore, the magnitude of the crate's velocity when t

= 2 s is approximately 10.92 m/s and the acceleration when t

= 2 s is approximately 19.06 m/s².

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A three-phase motor is connected to a three-phase source with a line voltage of 440V. If the motor consumes a total of 55kW at 0.73 power factor lagging, what is the line current?

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A three-phase motor is connected to a three-phase source with a line voltage of 440V. If the motor consumes a total of 55kW at 0.73 power factor lagging The line current of the three-phase motor is 88.74A

Voltage (V) = 440V Total power (P) = 55 kW Power factor (pf) = 0.73 Formula used:The formula to calculate the line current in a three-phase system is:Line current = Total power (P) / (Square root of 3 x Voltage (V) x power factor (pf))

Let's substitute the values in the above formula,Line current = 55,000 / (1.732 x 440 x 0.73) = 88.74ATherefore, the line current of the three-phase motor is 88.74A.

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Steam condensing on the outer surface of a thin-walled circular tube of 50-mm diameter and 6-m length maintains a uniform surface temperature of 100 o C. Water flows through the tube at a rate of m. = 0.25 kg/s, and its inlet and outlet temperatures are Tm,i = 15 o C and Tm,o = 57 o C. What is the average convection coefficient associated with the water flow? (Cp water = 4178 J/kg.K) Assumptions: Negligible outer surface convection resistance and tube wall conduction resistance; hence, tube inner surface is at Ts = 100 o C, negligible kinetic and potential energy effects, constant properties.

Answers

The objective is to determine the average convection coefficient associated with the water flow and steam condensation on the outer surface of a circular tube.

What is the objective of the problem described in the paragraph?

The given problem involves the condensation of steam on the outer surface of a thin-walled circular tube. The tube has a diameter of 50 mm and a length of 6 m, and its outer surface temperature is maintained at 100 °C. Water flows through the tube at a rate of 0.25 kg/s, with inlet and outlet temperatures of 15 °C and 57 °C, respectively. The task is to determine the average convection coefficient associated with the water flow.

To solve this problem, certain assumptions are made, including negligible convection resistance on the outer surface and tube wall conduction resistance. Therefore, the inner surface of the tube is considered to be at a temperature of 100 °C. Additionally, kinetic and potential energy effects are neglected, and the properties of water are assumed to be constant.

The average convection coefficient is calculated based on the given parameters and assumptions. The convection coefficient represents the heat transfer coefficient between the flowing water and the tube's outer surface. It is an important parameter for analyzing heat transfer in such systems.

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What are the moment of inertia and section modulus for a rectangle that is 10 in tall and 5 in wide in the vertical direction?
a. I = 416.7 in4, S = 83.33 in3
b. I = 104.17 in4, S = 83.33 in4
c. I = 416.7 in4, S = 41.67 in4
d. I = 104.17 in4, S = 41.67 in4

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The moment of inertia and section modulus for a rectangle that is 10 in tall and 5 in wide in the vertical direction is given by;I = (bh³) / 12 andS = (bh²) / 6, where; b = width, and h = height

Given that b = 5 in, and h = 10 in,Then;I = (bh³) / 12= (5 * 10³) / 12= 416.7 in⁴And;S = (bh²) / 6= (5 * 10²) / 6= 83.33 in³Therefore, the moment of inertia and section modulus for a rectangle that is 10 in tall and 5 in wide in the vertical direction are I = 416.7 in⁴, and S = 83.33 in³, respectively.Thus, the correct option is a. I = 416.7 in⁴, S = 83.33 in³.

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QUESTION 13 Which of the followings is true? O A. Electrical components are typically not deployed under wireless systems as transmissions are always through the air channel. O B. Complex conjugating is a process of keeping the real part and changing the complex part. C. Adding a pair of complex conjugates gives the real part. O D. Adding a pair of complex conjugates gives double the real part.

Answers

Option C is true. Adding a pair of complex conjugates gives the real part. Complex conjugation is an operation performed on a complex number, where the sign of the imaginary part is changed.

It involves negating the imaginary component while keeping the real component unchanged. The result is a new complex number known as the complex conjugate. When we add a pair of complex conjugates, the imaginary parts cancel each other out because they have opposite signs. As a result, only the real parts remain, and their sum gives the real part of the complex conjugate pair. Option C states that adding a pair of complex conjugates gives the real part. This is true because the cancellation of imaginary parts leads to the elimination of the complex component, leaving only the real part. Options A, B, and D are not true in this case. Option A is incorrect because electrical components can be used in wireless systems, and transmissions are not exclusively limited to the air channel. Option B is incorrect because complex conjugation involves changing the sign of the imaginary part, not keeping the real part unchanged. Option D is incorrect because adding a pair of complex conjugates does not yield double the real part, but rather the real part itself.

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Assuming that the required power for cruising an airplane with a total weight of 200 kgf and a cruising speed of 15 m / s is 1 kW, obtain the following values. The air density is constant at 1.25 kg / m^3 regardless of altitude.
1) Find the required power for the above airplane to fly ascending at a speed of 15 m / s at an ascending angle of 3°.
2) When the above airplane travels on a concrete runway with µ= 0.02 with constant thrust while maintaining a horizontal state from a state where it is stationary on the ground, the drag coefficient CD and lift coefficient CL of the entire aircraft are constant regardless of speed. If so, find the thrust required to reach 15 m / s in one minute from rest. Also, find the distance traveled to reach 15 m / s.

Answers

the equations related to power, force, and distance traveled. Let's calculate the required values:

1) Required power for ascending flight:

The required power for ascending flight can be calculated using the following equation:

P_ascend = (F_ascend × V) / η

where P_ascend is the required power, F_ascend is the ascending force, V is the velocity, and η is the efficiency.

Since the ascending angle is given as 3°, we can calculate the ascending force using the equation:

F_ascend = Weight × sin(θ)

where Weight is the total weight of the airplane.

Substituting the given values, we have:

Weight = 200 kgf = 200 × 9.81 N (conversion from kgf to Newtons)

θ = 3°

V = 15 m/s

η = 1 (assuming 100% efficiency)

Calculating the ascending force:

F_ascend = Weight × sin(θ)

Now, we can calculate the required power for ascending flight:

P_ascend = (F_ascend × V) / η

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What effect does doubling velocity have on the Reynolds number? x2 x1/2 x4 x1/4 no effect What effect does doubling velocity have on flow rate? a a x2 b x 1/2 c x4 d x 1/4 e no effect

Answers

Reynolds number is given by:  [tex]$Re = \frac{\rho v D}{\mu}$[/tex], where v is the velocity, ρ is the density, D is the diameter, and μ is the viscosity of the fluid.  Doubling velocity has an effect on Reynolds number as follows: a. x2.

Reynolds number is an important dimensionless quantity used in fluid mechanics to determine the type of flow in a fluid medium. By substituting v = 2v into the Reynolds equation, we can see the effect that doubling the velocity has on Reynolds number.

Reynolds number = [tex]$\frac{\rho (2v)D}{\mu}$[/tex]or [tex]$Re = 2 * \frac{\rho v D}{\mu}$[/tex]

Therefore, doubling velocity has the effect of doubling the Reynolds number. Doubling the velocity will have the effect of doubling the flow rate. The correct answer is (a) x2.

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Please show a two-terminal general modulation channel model. And for the random parameter channel, what is the main effect on signal transmission? (8 points) 3. What is the physical meaning of sampling theorem? And Write down the corresponding expressions for low-pass analog signals and band pass analog signals. What happens if the sampling theorem is not satisfied when sampling an analog signal? (Spoints)

Answers

1. Two-Terminal General Modulation Channel Model:

In the context of communication systems, a two-terminal general modulation channel model refers to a communication channel with a transmitter and a receiver.

The transmitter modulates a signal onto a carrier wave, and the modulated signal is transmitted through the channel to the receiver. The channel introduces various impairments and noise that affect the transmitted signal. The received signal is then demodulated at the receiver to recover the original message signal.

The general modulation channel model can be represented as:

Transmitter -> Modulation -> Channel -> Received Signal -> Demodulation -> Receiver

The transmitter performs modulation, which may involve techniques such as amplitude modulation (AM), frequency modulation (FM), or phase modulation (PM), depending on the specific communication system. The modulated signal is then transmitted through the channel, which can include various effects like attenuation, distortion, interference, and noise.

The received signal at the receiver undergoes demodulation, where the original message signal is extracted from the carrier wave. The demodulated signal is then processed further to recover the transmitted information.

2. Effect of Random Parameter Channel on Signal Transmission:

In a communication system, a random parameter channel refers to a channel where some of the channel characteristics or parameters vary randomly. These variations can occur due to environmental factors, interference, or other unpredictable factors.

The main effect of a random parameter channel on signal transmission is the introduction of channel variations or fluctuations, which can result in signal degradation and errors. These variations can cause signal attenuation, distortion, or interference, leading to a decrease in signal quality and an increase in the bit error rate (BER).

The random variations in channel parameters can lead to fluctuations in the received signal's amplitude, phase, or frequency. These fluctuations can result in signal fading, where the received signal's strength or quality fluctuates over time. Fading can cause signal loss or severe degradation, particularly in wireless communication systems.

To mitigate the effects of a random parameter channel, various techniques are employed, such as error correction coding, equalization, diversity reception, and adaptive modulation. These techniques aim to combat the channel variations and improve the reliability and performance of the communication system in the presence of random parameter channels.

3. Physical Meaning of Sampling Theorem and Expressions for Low-Pass and Band-Pass Analog Signals:

The sampling theorem, also known as the Nyquist-Shannon sampling theorem, states that in order to accurately reconstruct an analog signal from its samples, the sampling frequency must be at least twice the highest frequency present in the analog signal. This means that the sampling rate should be greater than or equal to twice the bandwidth of the analog signal.

For a low-pass analog signal, which has a maximum frequency component within a certain bandwidth, the sampling theorem implies that the sampling frequency (Fs) should be at least twice the bandwidth (B) of the low-pass signal:

Fs ≥ 2B

For a band-pass analog signal, which consists of a range of frequencies within a certain bandwidth, the sampling theorem implies that the sampling frequency (Fs) should be at least twice the maximum frequency component within the bandwidth:

Fs ≥ 2fmax

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Case III The machine in the power system of Case I has a per unit damping coefficient of D = 0.15. The generator excitation voltage is E' = 1.25 per unit and the generator is delivering a real power of 0.77 per unit to the infinite bus at a voltage of V = 1.0 per unit. (a) Write the linearized swing equation model for this power system. (b) Find the mathematical models describing the motion of the rotor angle and the generator frequency for a small disturbance of A8 = 15⁰. (c) Simulate the models using MATLAB/any other software to obtain the plots of rotor angle and frequency. (d) A temporary three-phase fault occurs at the sending end of one of the transmission lines. When the fault is cleared, both lines are intact. Using equal area criterion, determine the critical clearing angle and the critical fault clearing time. Simulate the power-angle plot. Give opinion on the result.

Answers

(a) The linearized swing equation model for the power system in Case III can be written as the equation of motion for the rotor angle and the generator frequency.

(b) The mathematical models describing the motion of the rotor angle and the generator frequency for a small disturbance of A8 = 15⁰ can be derived using the linearized swing equation model.

(c) The models can be simulated using MATLAB or any other software to obtain the plots of the rotor angle and frequency.

(d) The critical clearing angle and the critical fault clearing time can be determined using the equal area criterion, and the power-angle plot can be simulated to analyze the results.

(a) The linearized swing equation model is a simplified representation of the power system dynamics, focusing on the rotor angle and generator frequency. It considers the damping coefficient, generator excitation voltage, real power output, and system voltage. By linearizing the equations of motion, we obtain a linear model that describes the small-signal behavior of the power system.

(b) To derive the mathematical models for the motion of the rotor angle and generator frequency, we use the linearized swing equation model. By analyzing the linearized equations, we can determine the dynamic response of the system to a small disturbance in the rotor angle. This provides insight into how the system behaves and how the angle and frequency change over time.

(c) Simulating the models using software like MATLAB allows us to visualize the behavior of the rotor angle and frequency. By inputting the initial conditions and parameters into the simulation, we can obtain plots that show the time response of these variables. This helps in understanding the transient stability of the power system and identifying any potential issues.

(d) The equal area criterion is a method used to determine the critical clearing angle and the critical fault clearing time after a temporary fault occurs. By analyzing the power-angle plot, we can calculate the area under the curve before and after the fault clearing. The critical clearing angle is the angle at which the areas are equal, and the critical fault clearing time is the corresponding time. Simulating the power-angle plot provides a visual representation of the system's stability during and after the fault.

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What is the advantage of a model based statistical analysis over monte-carlo simulation? a. Model based method increases the design time by increasing the simulation time b. Model based method is applicable to bigger circuits c. Model-based method is suitable for analog circuits only d. Model-based method gives better accuracy e. Model based method provides better insight into the parameters influencing the yield

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The advantage of a model-based statistical analysis over the Monte-Carlo simulation is: Model-based method gives better accuracy. The model-based method provides better insight into the parameters influencing the yield. D and E are the correct options.

A Monte Carlo simulation is used to analyze a system's behavior based on random sampling. It can be used to determine the distribution of outputs based on various inputs for a given model. A model-based statistical analysis, on the other hand, is a more direct approach that uses models that are more specific to the system being analyzed.

In the case of analog circuits, model-based statistical analysis is preferable because it allows for a more accurate representation of the circuit behavior. Additionally, model-based methods offer better accuracy and more detailed insight into the parameters that influence yield. Therefore, the correct options are D and E.

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which characteristic is the primary advantage of an automatic smoke control system

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An automatic smoke control system is designed to detect, manage, and mitigate the impact of smoke and fire on people and property.

The primary advantage of an automatic smoke control system is its ability to protect human life and property by reducing the spread of smoke and fire to other areas.The automatic smoke control system can quickly detect smoke, heat, and flame through fire detectors.

Which activate the system to close fire doors, dampers, and smoke control systems. These actions help to confine the fire, which means less smoke and heat, enabling people to escape the building safely.In addition, the smoke control system minimizes the risk of property damage by reducing the spread of smoke and fire.

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What is the ratio of the stiffness of the spring to the axial stiffness of the same length of wire, loaded in tension

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The ratio of the stiffness of a spring to the axial stiffness of a wire of the same length, loaded in tension, depends on the specific properties of the materials involved.

What is the ratio about?

The stiffness of a spring is defined by its spring constant (k), which relates the force applied to the spring to the resulting displacement.

On the other hand, the axial stiffness of a wire loaded in tension is one that is defined by Young's modulus (E) of the material, that measures its resistance to deformation under tensile stress.

The ratio of the spring stiffness (k) to the axial stiffness (E) can be shown as:

Ratio = k / E

Therefore, note that the specific value of this ratio will vary depending on the materials used for the spring and wire.

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find the 4x4 transformation matrix of the rotation about the axis passing through points (0, 0, 0 ) and ( 1, 1, 0 ) for 30o.

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The final transformation matrix is:

[ 5/6    -sqrt(3)/6    1/3    0 ]

[ sqrt(3)/6    1/2    -sqrt(3)/3    0 ]

[ -1/3    sqrt(3)/3    2/3    0 ]

[ 0    0    0    1 ]

To find the 4x4 transformation matrix of the rotation:

Step 1: Determine the axis of rotation

Find the direction vector of the line passing through (0, 0, 0) and (1, 1, 0):

Subtract the coordinates of the two points: (1, 1, 0) - (0, 0, 0) = (1, 1, 0)

The direction vector is (1, 1, 0), which will serve as the axis of rotation.

Step 2: Determine the rotation matrix

Calculate the unit vector in the direction of the axis of rotation:

Divide the axis vector by its magnitude: (1, 1, 0) / sqrt(2) = (sqrt(2)/2, sqrt(2)/2, 0)

Set up the identity matrix (I) and the skew-symmetric matrix (S):

I = [[1, 0, 0], [0, 1, 0], [0, 0, 1]]

S = [[0, 0, 0], [0, 0, -sqrt(2)/2], [0, sqrt(2)/2, 0]]

Plug in the values and calculate the rotation matrix (R) using the formula:

R(theta) = uu^T + cos(theta)(I - uu^T) + sin(theta)S

Substitute theta = 30 degrees and simplify the expression.

The resulting rotation matrix is:

[ 5/6    -sqrt(3)/6    1/3    0 ]

[ sqrt(3)/6    1/2    -sqrt(3)/3    0 ]

[ -1/3    sqrt(3)/3    2/3    0 ]

[ 0    0    0    1 ]

This matrix represents the transformation that rotates a point in 3D space about the specified axis by 30 degrees. You can use this matrix to apply the rotation to vectors or sets of points by multiplying them with this matrix.

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A uniform quantizer produces a 6 bit output, how many quantization levels does this system have O 12 O 64 36 06 is the error at analogue zero for an A/D converter operating in * bipolar mode. It is measured in % of FSR (full-scale range). gain error aliasing O offset error O resolution

Answers

A uniform quantizer with a 6-bit output has 64 quantization levels. Each bit adds a power of 2 to the total number of levels, and since there are 6 bits, the total number of levels is 2^6 = 64.

The error at analog zero for an A/D converter operating in bipolar mode is called the offset error. It represents the deviation of the converter's output at zero input from the ideal value. The offset error is typically measured as a percentage of the full-scale range (FSR), which is the difference between the maximum and minimum values that the converter can represent.

The gain error refers to the deviation of the converter's output from the ideal value due to an incorrect gain factor. Aliasing, on the other hand, occurs when high-frequency components of the input signal are incorrectly represented at lower frequencies due to inadequate sampling rates.

Resolution refers to the smallest change in the analog input that can be detected by the A/D converter. It is determined by the number of bits in the converter's output and affects the level of detail or precision in the converted digital representation.

Therefore, the correct answer is offset error.

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A resistive load of 4Ω is matched to the collector impedance of an amplifier by means of a transformer having a turns ratio of 40:1. The amplifier uses a DC supply voltage of 12V in the absence of an input signal. When a signal is present at the base, the collector voltage swings between 22V and 2V while the collector current swings between 0.9A and 0.05A.
Determine:
a) Collector impedance RL
b) Signal power output
c) DC power input
d) Collector efficiency

Answers

a) The collector impedance RL can be calculated using the turns ratio of the transformer. Since the turns ratio is 40:1, the voltage across the load RL is 40 times smaller than the collector voltage swing. Therefore, the peak-to-peak voltage across RL is 22V - 2V = 20V. Using Ohm's Law, RL can be calculated as RL = (Vpp)^2 / P, where Vpp is the peak-to-peak voltage and P is the power. Given Vpp = 20V and P = (0.9A - 0.05A)^2 * RL, we can solve for RL.

b) The signal power output can be calculated using the formula Pout = (Vpp)^2 / (8 * RL), where Vpp is the peak-to-peak voltage and RL is the load impedance. Given Vpp = 20V and RL (calculated in part a), we can solve for Pout.

c) The DC power input can be calculated by multiplying the DC supply voltage with the average collector current. Given a DC supply voltage of 12V and a peak-to-peak collector current swing of 0.9A - 0.05A = 0.85A, we can calculate the average collector current and then multiply it by the DC supply voltage to obtain the DC power input.

d) The collector efficiency can be calculated by dividing the signal power output (calculated in part b) by the total power input (sum of DC power input and signal power output) and multiplying by 100 to express it as a percentage.

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