A frameshift mutation occurs in a transposase gene. Select all that occurs
-Only Class 2 transpositions can happen
-A non-functional transposase protein exists
-Only Class 1 transpositions can happen
-The transposon is stuck and cannot be cut from the DNA strands

Answers

Answer 1

A frameshift mutation occurs in a transposase gene a non-functional transposase protein exists. The correct option is A.

A frameshift mutation occurs when one or more nucleotides are either added or deleted from a gene sequence, which alters the reading frame of the codons and changes the amino acid sequence of the protein.

In this case, the frameshift mutation occurs in a transposase gene, which encodes for a protein that catalyzes the movement of transposable elements or transposons within the genome.

The frameshift mutation would result in a non-functional transposase protein, which would hinder the transposition process. Thus, only Class 1 transpositions can happen, as they do not require transposase enzymes.

Class 1 transposition involves the movement of transposons by a "copy and paste" mechanism, where a copy of the transposon is made and inserted into a new location in the genome.

This process is independent of the transposase protein and can occur in the absence of an active transposase. In contrast, Class 2 transpositions require the presence of an active transposase protein and involve the excision and insertion of the transposon.

However, since the frameshift mutation would result in a non-functional transposase protein, only Class 1 transpositions can occur. The transposon would not be stuck and can still be cut from the DNA strands during Class 1 transpositions.

Therefore, the correct answer is "A non-functional transposase protein exists" option A.

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Question

A frameshift mutation occurs in a transposase gene. Select all that occurs

A) Only Class 2 transpositions can happen

B) A non-functional transposase protein exists

C) Only Class 1 transpositions can happen

D) The transposon is stuck and cannot be cut from the DNA strands


Related Questions

Classify the items as true of either specialized cells or stem cells. Stem cells Specialized cells 1.Totipotent 2.Differentiated, in most cases 3,Number of divisions is limited. el 4.More common early in development than late in development 5.Undifferentiated

Answers

The items that are true of specialized cells are 2. Differentiated, in most cases and 3. Number of divisions is limited. The items that are true of stem cells are 1. Totipotent, 4. More common early in development than late in development, and 5.Undifferentiated.

Stem cells:

1. Totipotent: Stem cells can be totipotent, meaning they have the potential to develop into any type of cell in the body.
4. More common early in development than late in development: Stem cells are more prevalent during early stages of development, as they give rise to various specialized cell types.
5. Undifferentiated: Stem cells are undifferentiated, meaning they have not yet acquired a specific function or characteristics of a particular cell type.

Specialized cells:

2. Differentiated, in most cases: Specialized cells are differentiated, meaning they have developed specific functions and characteristics unique to their particular cell type.
3. Number of divisions is limited: Specialized cells typically have a limited number of divisions, unlike stem cells, which can self-renew indefinitely.

In summary, stem cells are totipotent, undifferentiated cells that are more common during early development. They have the potential to develop into any cell type and can divide indefinitely. On the other hand, specialized cells are differentiated and have specific functions depending on their cell type. These cells have a limited number of divisions and are the result of the differentiation process that occurs as organisms develop.

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the anterior surface of the kidneys is covered with ______ and the posterior surface lies directly against the posterior abdominal wall. multiple choice question.

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The anterior surface of the kidneys is covered with PERITONEUM and the posterior surface lies directly against the posterior abdominal wall.

The Kidneys are a bean-shaped filtering organ found immediately below the ribs on either side of the body. It is an essential organ for filtering waste products from the bloodstream and returning nutrients, hormones, and other vital components into the bloodstream. They help in maintaining the body's fluidity and electrolyte balance. The specialized cells called nephrons are employed for the effective filtration of blood.

The anterior and posterior surfaces are found in the kidney where facing toward the anterior and posterior abdominal body line respectively. The anterior surface is covered with peritoneum and the posterior is embedded into fatty tissues and areolar.

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Which structure is unique to vertebrates? brain brain limbs limbs skin skin backbone backbone

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The structure unique to vertebrates is the backbone. The backbone, also known as the vertebral column or spine, is unique to vertebrates and provides structural support and protection for the spinal cord.

The backbone is a distinctive feature of vertebrates, setting them apart from invertebrates. It is composed of a series of individual bones called vertebrae that are connected by flexible joints. This vertebral column provides structural support for the body, allows for a wide range of movement, and encases and protects the delicate spinal cord, which is responsible for transmitting signals between the brain and the rest of the body.

The backbone also serves as an attachment point for muscles and ligaments, contributing to an animal's overall posture and stability. All vertebrates, including mammals, birds, reptiles, amphibians, and fish, possess this characteristic backbone, making it a defining feature of this group of animals.

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The preformationism hypothesis suggested that inside the egg or sperm is a tiny adult called a homunculus. It was hypothesized that the homunculus simply enlarged during development. Select the evidence that disproves the early heredity hypothesis of preformationism. - Zygotically expressed genes regulate development in a sequential manner. - A fruit fly forms from an early embryo that lacks distinct anterior and posterior regions. - Maternal-effect genes can affect embryonic development. - Genes expressed in the developing embryo interact with each other. - Maternal-effect genes do not affect embryonic development.

Answers

The evidence that disproves the early heredity hypothesis of preformationism is "Maternal-effect genes can affect embryonic development."

The preformationism hypothesis suggested that the tiny adult called homunculus resides inside the egg or sperm and simply enlarges during development. However, this was disproved by several pieces of evidence. One such evidence is maternal-effect genes that can affect embryonic development. These genes play a critical role in embryonic development and are contributed by the mother. Maternal-effect genes can determine the anterior-posterior and dorsal-ventral axes of the developing embryo, thereby disproving the idea of a preformed homunculus. Additionally, zygotically expressed genes regulate development in a sequential manner and interact with each other. A fruit fly forms from an early embryo that lacks distinct anterior and posterior regions, further disproving preformationism.

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§A child bounces a 100 g superball on the sidewalk. The velocity of the superball changes from 10 m/s downward to 10 m/s upward. If the contact time with the sidewalk is 0. 1s, what is the magnitude of the impulse imparted to the superball?

Answers

The magnitude of the impulse imparted to the superball is 2 kg·m/s. This value is obtained by calculating the change in momentum,                        

which is the product of the mass of the superball (0.1 kg) and the change in velocity (20 m/s).  The impulse represents the change in momentum experienced by an object during a collision or interaction. In this case, when the superball bounces on the sidewalk, its velocity changes from downward to upward, resulting in an impulse of 2 kg·m/s.

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One cycle in a polymerase chain reaction (PCR) involves incubating the sample at three successive temperatures: 94 degree C., 50 degree C., and 72 degree C. What is the goal of the third step (72 degree C.)? DNA synthesis by extension of annealed primers. Reannealing of template DNA. Denaturation of double-stranded template DNA. Inactivation of DNA polymerase. Annealing of primers to single-stranded template DNA.

Answers

The goal of the third step (72°C) in a polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is DNA synthesis by extension of annealed primers.

At this temperature, the DNA polymerase enzyme binds to the primer-template hybrid and extends the primer, synthesizing a complementary strand of DNA. This step is crucial in amplifying the target DNA sequence, as it leads to the formation of a new DNA strand.

The first step of the PCR involves the denaturation of the double-stranded DNA template, while the second step involves the annealing of primers to the single-stranded template DNA.

The third step is known as the extension or elongation step, where the DNA polymerase enzyme catalyzes the synthesis of a complementary DNA strand by extending the annealed primer. This process repeats for several cycles, leading to the exponential amplification of the target DNA sequence.

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Helium gas enters a compressor at 120 kPa and 250 K and to be compressed such that the outlet temperature is not greater than 600 K. Determine the maximum pressure that can be obtained at the outlet (kPa)
Assuming: a) isentropic compression process, b) second law efficiency of 75%. (Note: Helium is a noble gas having constant specific heat and k = 5/3).

Answers

Helium gas enters a compressor at 120 kPa and 250 K and is compressed such that the outlet temperature is not greater than 600 K. The maximum pressure that can be obtained at the outlet is 932.4 kPa.

First, we can use the isentropic relation to find the outlet temperature:

T2 = T1 * (P2/P1)^((k-1)/k)

where T1 = 250 K, P1 = 120 kPa, k = 5/3, and T2 <= 600 K.

Solving for P2, we have:

P2 = P1 * (T2/T1)^(k/(k-1))

Next, we can use the second law efficiency to find the actual outlet pressure P2_actual:

P2_actual = P1 * (T2/T1)^(k/(k-1)) / eta

where eta = 0.75.

Substituting the values and solving for P2_actual, we get:

P2_actual = 932.4 kPa

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some diuretics can increase or decrease blood levels of which mineral?

Answers

Diuretics can decrease blood levels of potassium and magnesium, while increasing blood levels of calcium.

Diuretics are medications that increase urine production, which can help to reduce excess fluid in the body. However, some diuretics can also affect the levels of certain minerals in the blood. For example, loop diuretics and thiazide diuretics can decrease blood levels of potassium and magnesium, which are important for proper nerve and muscle function. This can lead to symptoms such as muscle weakness, cramps, and irregular heartbeat. On the other hand, thiazide diuretics can also increase blood levels of calcium, which can lead to hypercalcemia, a condition characterized by bone pain, abdominal pain, and kidney stones. Therefore, it is important to monitor mineral levels in patients taking diuretics and adjust dosages as needed to prevent adverse effects.

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where do immune cells monitor for the presence of pathogens that invade the interstitial space?

Answers

Immune cells monitor for the presence of pathogens that invade the interstitial space in the lymph nodes.

Lymph nodes are small, bean-shaped structures that are distributed throughout the body along the lymphatic vessels. They are part of the lymphatic system, which is a network of vessels and tissues that help maintain fluid balance in the body and defend against infection.

The lymph nodes act as filters for the lymphatic fluid, which contains immune cells, debris, and pathogens that have entered the interstitial space from the surrounding tissues.

When a pathogen enters the interstitial space, it is engulfed by immune cells called antigen-presenting cells (APCs), such as dendritic cells and macrophages. The APCs then transport the pathogen to nearby lymph nodes, where they present it to other immune cells, such as T cells and B cells. This process, known as antigen presentation, triggers an immune response that can lead to the elimination of the pathogen.

Therefore, lymph nodes serve as the site of immune cell activation and coordination in response to pathogens that have invaded the interstitial space.

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in pea plants, round peas (R) are dominant to wrinkled peas (r).

Answers

Answer:

d. 2 or 3 or 4

Explanation:

The only ones with Rr

one upper and one lower "Rr"

A branch point represents a(n) from which two different lineages diverged. A branch point may also be called a(n)

Answers

A branch point represents a common ancestor from which two different lineages diverged. A branch point may also be called a node.

In evolutionary biology and phylogenetics, a branch point or node is a point on a phylogenetic tree where two or more lineages split from a common ancestor. It represents the hypothetical point in time when a lineage diverged and gave rise to separate evolutionary paths. The branches that emerge from a branch point represent the different lineages or species that have evolved over time. The branch point is often depicted as a node on a phylogenetic tree diagram, indicating the point of divergence. By studying the patterns of branching and the relationships between different lineages, scientists can reconstruct the evolutionary history and relationships of various organisms.

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Which of the following is NOT an important biogeochemical cycle found in ecosystems?



A. The Water Cycle

B. The Ecosystem Cycle

C. The Nitrogen Cycle

D. The Carbon Cycle

Answers

The Ecosystem Cycle is not an important biogeochemical cycle found in ecosystems.

What is biogeochemical cycle?

The cycling of nutrients and chemical elements through Earth’s natural systems is characterized as a biogeochemical cycle.

Transfer of these molecules takes place among living organisms, geological activity within the crust, and the physical environment comprised of lithosphere, hydrosphere and atmosphere.

The Ecosystem Cycle is not an important biogeochemical cycle found in ecosystems as there is no biogeochemical known as "the ecosystem".

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the type of blood vessel with thin walls that serves as a passageway and blood reservoir from organs to the heart are the

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The type of blood vessel with thin walls that serves as a passageway and blood reservoir from organs to the heart are the veins. Veins are blood vessels that carry deoxygenated blood from the body's tissues and organs back to the heart.

Unlike arteries, veins have thin walls, which allows them to expand and hold more blood, making them ideal for storing blood as a reservoir. Veins also contain valves that prevent blood from flowing backward, helping to maintain blood flow towards the heart.

Overall, veins play a critical role in the circulation of blood throughout the body, and their thin walls and valve structure allow for efficient and effective transport of blood back to the heart.

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Insulin signaling extends beyond Ras-ERK growth factor pathways. Proteins like IRS and Pl-3 kinase are also involved. Assign the appropriate descriptions for Pl-3K signaling. A. Proteins that bind to PIP3 inositol lipids like PDK1 and Akt do so through pleckstrin homology domains (PH domains) B. PIP2 is phosphorylated by active PI-3K C) Once activated by phospho inositol liplds, PDK1 will phosphorylate Akt pleckstrin homologyy domains (PH domains) 1P PIP2 is B phosphorylated by active PI-3K C. Once activated by phospho inositol lipids PDK1 will phosphorylate Akt

Answers

A. Proteins that bind to PIP3 inositol lipids like PDK1 and Akt do so through pleckstrin homology domains (PH domains)

B. PIP2 is phosphorylated by active PI-3K

C. Once activated by phospho inositol lipids, PDK1 will phosphorylate Akt pleckstrin homology domains (PH domains).

PI-3K (Phosphoinositide-3 kinase) signaling plays a crucial role in insulin signaling, and the formation of active insulin receptor substrate (IRS) and the downstream signaling molecule Akt. PI-3K activates Akt by phosphorylating PIP2 (phosphatidylinositol 4,5-bisphosphate) to produce PIP3 (phosphatidylinositol 3,4,5-trisphosphate). The pleckstrin homology domains (PH domains) of PDK1 (phosphoinositide-dependent protein kinase 1) and Akt bind to PIP3, allowing PDK1 to phosphorylate Akt, activating it. Thus, Pl-3K signaling involves the binding of proteins like PDK1 and Akt to PIP3 inositol lipids through PH domains, PIP2 phosphorylation by active PI-3K, and the phosphorylation of Akt by PDK1 once activated by phospho inositol lipids.

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A ladder is placed against a wall. Angle A, made by the top of the ladder and the wall, is 51 degrees. The base of the ladder is 15 feet away from the base of the wall. What is the length of the ladder, rounded to the nearest hundredth?

Answers

We may use trigonometry, and more especially the sine function, to determine the length of the ladder. We may construct the equation given that the base of the ladder is 15 feet and angle A is 51 degrees.

opposite/hypotenuse of sin(A) opposite(51) = sin(51) The length of the ladder, or the hypotenuse, is determined by multiplying both sides by 15: opposite of 15*sin(51) When rounded to the closest hundredth, the hypotenuse of the ladder measures around 11.95 feet. As a result, the ladder is 11.95 feet long, rounded to the nearest tenth

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the developing embryo of reptiles birds and mammals is encased in a fluid filled membrane

Answers

The developing embryo of reptiles, birds, and mammals is encased in a fluid-filled membrane, which plays a crucial role in their growth and development, this protective structure, known as the amniotic sac.

The amniotic sac contains the amniotic fluid that surrounds the embryo throughout its development, the amniotic sac is composed of two primary layers that are the amnion and the chorion. The amniotic fluid within the sac serves multiple purposes for the developing embryo. First, it acts as a cushion, protecting the embryo from external physical shocks and pressures. Additionally, the fluid aids in maintaining a stable temperature for the embryo, ensuring a consistent environment for optimal growth.

Moreover, the amniotic fluid facilitates proper musculoskeletal development by allowing the embryo to move freely within the sac, this freedom of movement is essential for muscle and bone formation. Furthermore, the fluid also enables the exchange of nutrients, gases, and waste products between the embryo and the mother, supporting the embryo's overall growth and development. In summary, the amniotic sac and fluid are vital components for the successful development of reptile, bird, and mammal embryos. They provide physical protection, temperature regulation, and facilitate movement and nutrient exchange, ensuring that these embryos can grow and thrive in a secure and supportive environment.

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1. the endocrine system a. works quickly to cause a change. b. once it starts working, does not shut off quickly. c. sends out hormones through ducts to the target region. d. a and b.

Answers

The endocrine system is an essential component of the human body that plays a crucial role in maintaining homeostasis and regulating various physiological processes.

It is primarily characterized by its mode of communication, which involves the secretion of hormones directly into the bloodstream, rather than using ducts like the exocrine system. This enables the endocrine system to reach its target regions efficiently.

However, it is important to note that the endocrine system does not work as quickly as the nervous system in causing changes within the body. This is primarily because hormones need to travel through the bloodstream to reach their target cells, which can take some time. Despite the slower pace, the effects of hormones tend to last longer and have a more sustained impact on the body's functions.

Additionally, the endocrine system does not shut off quickly once it starts working. The response to a stimulus may persist even after the initial trigger has ceased, as hormones remain active until they are broken down or eliminated from the body. This slow response and prolonged action make the endocrine system more suitable for gradual, long-term changes, such as growth and development.

In conclusion, the endocrine system primarily operates by secreting hormones directly into the bloodstream to regulate various physiological processes. It works relatively slowly and does not shut off quickly, making it suitable for managing long-term changes in the body.

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The cornea of a normal human eye may have an optical power of +34.7 diopters. What is its focal length? cm

Answers

Answer;The formula relating the focal length (f) and optical power (P) is:

f = 1/P

We are given P = +34.7 diopters. Converting

to meters, we have:

P = 1/f = 100 cm/f

Solving for f, we get:

f = 100 cm/P = 100 cm/34.7 diopters = 2.88 cm

Therefore, the focal length of the cornea is approximately 2.88 cm.

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identify the correct name or abbreviation for the given nucleoside or nucleotide.

Answers

Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is a nucleotide that consists of an adenine base, a ribose sugar, and three phosphate groups. It is commonly referred to as the "energy currency" of the cell, as it stores and transfers energy for various cellular processes.

DNA and RNA are both types of nucleic acids that play crucial roles in the storage, expression, and transmission of genetic information. DNA is a double-stranded helical molecule composed of nucleotide subunits that contain a deoxyribose sugar, a phosphate group, and a nitrogenous base (adenine, guanine, cytosine, or thymine). RNA is typically a single-stranded molecule that contains a ribose sugar, a phosphate group, and a nitrogenous base (adenine, guanine, cytosine, or uracil). RNA is involved in a range of functions, including gene expression, protein synthesis, and regulation of gene expression. Both DNA and RNA are essential for the proper functioning of cells and organisms, and their structure and function are closely intertwined.

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The graph shows three different projections of human population growth.
16,000
14,000
UN High
12,000
UN
Medium
10,000
Millions of people
68,000
6,000
UN Low
Actual
4,000
2,000 Estimated
0
If you assume that the high projection is correct, what is one way the larger
human population can ensure it has enough food?

Answers

Promote sustainable agricultural practices, invest in high-yield crops, agroforestry and aquaculture, reduce food waste and promote equitable food distribution.

Assuming strong predictions of human population growth, one way to ensure there is enough food for everyone is to promote sustainable agricultural practices. This involves adopting farming techniques that do not deplete natural resources, such as soil and water, and implementing crop rotation, conservation farming, and the use of natural fertilizers. In addition, increased investment in research and development of high-yielding crops that are resistant to pests and diseases can help increase agricultural productivity.

Encouraging the adoption of agroforestry and aquaculture models can also diversify food production and increase resilience to climate change. Finally, reducing food waste and promoting equitable food distribution can ensure that everyone has access to adequate and nutritious food. 

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multicellular animals evolved roughly halfway through the history of life on earth. group of answer choices true false

Answers

True.

Multicellular animals did indeed evolve roughly halfway through the history of life on Earth. The first evidence of multicellular life forms dates back to approximately 600 million years ago during the Ediacaran Period. This emergence marked a significant milestone in the evolutionary history of life on our planet. Prior to this development, life on Earth was predominantly composed of single-celled organisms. The evolution of multicellularity allowed for greater complexity, specialization, and diversification of life forms. Since then, multicellular organisms have continued to evolve and thrive, leading to the vast array of plants, animals, and other complex organisms that exist today.

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HElp pls i will give 35 pts and yea

Answers

Anchor - e. HammerheadBaracuda - k. Great BaracudaBloat - n. Fine-spotted Porcupine fishBruce - s. Mako SharkBubbles - m. Yellow TangChum - s. Mako SharkDeb - h. Black and White Humbug [4-Stripe Damselfish]Dory - q. Regal Blue TangNigel - r. Common PelicanGill - l. Moorish Idol fishGurgle - d. Bicolor Blenny/Royal Gamma BassletJacques - c. Cleaner ShrimpMr. Johanson - g. Gulf FlounderMr. Ray - o. Green Sea TurtleNemo - a. ClownfishPearl - j. Pink SeastarSheldon - f. Sea HorseTad - p. Yellow Longnose ButterflyfishPeach - i. Sea StarCrush - b. Black Tip Reef Shark

What is "finding nemo"?

A computer-animated comedy-drama adventure film produced in 2003 for Walt Disney Pictures is Finding Nemo created by Pixar Animation Studios under the direction of Andrew Stanton and co-direction from Lee Unkrich.

The plot revolves around an overly protective clownfish named Marlin (Brooks) who sets out on a mission to find his lost son Nemo (Gould) with assistance from Dory (DeGeneres), a forgetful regal blue tang. Screenplay writers- Andrew Stanton himself alongside Bob Peterson and David Reynolds craft a compelling story from the original script.

The voices of Albert Brooks, Ellen DeGeneres, Alexander Gould, Willem Dafoe, and Geoffrey Rush provide emotional and relatable characters.

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what is a process that the smooth endoplasmic reticulum carries out? phosphorylation stabilizing electron transport chains lipid synthesis binding to molecular oxygen

Answers

The smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) carries out lipid synthesis, including the synthesis of phospholipids, steroids, and triglycerides. It also plays a role in the detoxification of various substances, such as drugs and alcohol. However, it does not carry out phosphorylation, stabilize electron transport chains, or bind to molecular oxygen.

The smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) is a type of endoplasmic reticulum that lacks ribosomes on its surface. One of the primary functions of the SER is lipid synthesis, which involves the production of various lipids, including phospholipids and cholesterol. The SER is also involved in detoxification processes, such as the breakdown of toxic substances like drugs and alcohol, through the action of enzymes called cytochrome P450s.

The SER can also sequester and release calcium ions, which are important for muscle contraction, cell signaling, and other cellular processes. However, the SER does not phosphorylate or bind to molecular oxygen, and it only indirectly contributes to electron transport chains through its role in lipid synthesis.

Therefore, the correct option is lipid synthesis.

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in the stomach, ___ chemically break down swallowed food.

Answers

Answer: Enzymes

Explanation:

Answer:

HCl (Hydrochloric acide)

and Enzymes

Explanation:

HCl (Hydrochloric acide) is stomach chemichak that breakdown food particle and bacteria.

Enzyms are also chemical that break down proteines , charbohydrate and lipid by protes , carbohydras and lipas respectivly .

A Limb anomolies caused by thalidomide classically illustrate effects of chemical teratogens on embryonic limb development. a. True b. False

Answers

The statement is true; Thalidomide is a chemical teratogen that caused limb anomalies in embryonic development, serving as a classic example of the effects of teratogens on limb development.

Thalidomide was a medication that was prescribed to pregnant women in the 1950s and 1960s for morning sickness. Unfortunately, it was later found to cause limb anomalies in the developing fetuses, resulting in shortened or missing limbs. This tragic event led to the development of regulations and laws for drug testing and safety, as well as a greater understanding of the effects of teratogens on embryonic development.

Thalidomide is now primarily used as a treatment for cancer and leprosy, and strict regulations and guidelines have been put in place to prevent a similar event from occurring in the future.

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in genetic recombination, the gene that is being inserted is referred to as the select one: a. blunt end b. foreign gene c. plasmid d. restriction enzyme

Answers

"The correct option is option (B) foreign gene." In genetic recombination, the process of introducing a new gene into a recipient organism is typically achieved using a vector, which is a carrier molecule that can transport the new gene into the host cell.

Foreign genes can be inserted into vectors such as plasmids or viruses, which can then be introduced into the host cell using various methods such as electroporation, transfection, or viral infection. Once inside the host cell, the foreign gene can integrate into the host genome through homologous recombination or non-homologous end joining, resulting in the expression of the new gene in the recipient organism.

Restriction enzymes are enzymes that can cut DNA at specific sites, and they are often used in genetic engineering to create DNA fragments with specific ends that can be ligated together to form recombinant DNA molecules.

However, the foreign gene being inserted is not referred to as a restriction enzyme. Blunt end refers to the type of DNA ends that result from certain types of DNA cleavage, but it is not a term used to describe the gene being inserted. Therefore , The correct option is option (B) foreign gene.

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_________ is often used to assay non-catalytic proteins.

Answers

Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) is often used to assay non-catalytic proteins. This widely used laboratory technique relies on the specific binding of an antibody to its target protein, enabling the detection and quantification of the protein of interest.

The key advantage of ELISA is its high sensitivity and specificity, allowing for the analysis of low-abundance proteins in complex biological samples.

The process of ELISA involves coating a microplate with capture antibodies specific to the target protein. The sample containing the non-catalytic protein is then added to the plate, allowing the protein to bind to the antibodies. Unbound substances are washed away, and detection antibodies conjugated with an enzyme are added. These antibodies also bind specifically to the target protein, forming a sandwich complex.

After another wash step to remove unbound detection antibodies, a substrate is added, which is converted by the enzyme into a detectable signal, such as a color change. The intensity of this signal is directly proportional to the concentration of the non-catalytic protein in the sample. By measuring the signal and comparing it to a standard curve, researchers can accurately determine the amount of the target protein present in the sample.

In summary, ELISA is a highly sensitive and specific assay method commonly used to study non-catalytic proteins. It employs the unique binding properties of antibodies and enzymatic signal amplification to detect and quantify proteins of interest in various samples.

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where are programs and data kept while the processor is using them?

Answers

Programs and data are stored in the computer's memory (RAM) while the processor is using them. RAM allows for quick access and retrieval of data, but is volatile and loses its contents when the computer is turned off.

In more detail, when a program is executed, its instructions and data are loaded into RAM from the hard drive or other storage device. The processor then accesses and manipulates the data in RAM as needed, temporarily storing intermediate results and variables back in RAM. This allows for efficient processing and reduces the need to continually access the slower storage devices. Once the program completes or the computer is turned off, the contents of RAM are cleared, and any unsaved data or changes are lost. This is why it is important to save your work frequently and back up important data to non-volatile storage.

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You are setting up your PCR reaction and accidentally pipette twice as much of the salt buffer as you were supposed to. How will this impact your reaction?
a) You will get the same amount of PCR product.
b) You will get more PCR product
c) You will get less PCR product.
And why?
a) Because primer/template binding will be altered.
b) Because template denaturation will be altered
c) Because the mechanism of dNTP addition will be altered.

Answers

You will get less PCR product as primer/template binding will be altered due to the excess salt buffer.

If you accidentally pipette twice as much of the salt buffer as you were supposed to in your PCR reaction, it will have a negative impact on your reaction.

Specifically, you will get less PCR product because the excess salt buffer will alter the primer/template binding.

The salt buffer is an important component in PCR reactions, as it helps to stabilize the reaction and promote efficient amplification.

However, when too much is added, it can disrupt the delicate balance of the reaction.

The excess salt will interfere with the binding of the primers to the template DNA, leading to decreased amplification.

Therefore, it is important to be precise when pipetting the components of a PCR reaction.

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in all other questions, this tree was treated as a cladogram. now let's explicitly specify that it is a phylogram. does this tree corroborate or reject the idea of a molecular clock? why or why not?

Answers

In examining the specified tree as a phylogram rather than a cladogram, we can assess whether it supports or rejects the idea of a molecular clock. depends on the observed branch lengths and their consistency, alyzing the phylogram for constant or variable genetic change rates will provide insight into the molecular clock hypothesis's validity in this specific case.

A phylogram displays evolutionary relationships between species by illustrating branch lengths proportional to the amount of genetic change, whereas a cladogram only shows relationships without accounting for time or the rate of change. The concept of a molecular clock proposes that genetic mutations occur at a consistent rate across different lineages over time. To determine if the phylogram corroborates or rejects the molecular clock hypothesis, we should analyze the branch lengths for consistency. If branch lengths are similar across various lineages, it may suggest a molecular clock, as this would indicate a constant rate of genetic change over time.

However, if branch lengths vary significantly between lineages, it could reject the molecular clock hypothesis, implying that genetic changes do not follow a constant rate. In conclusion, whether the tree corroborates or rejects the idea of a molecular clock depends on the observed branch lengths and their consistency. Analyzing the phylogram for constant or variable genetic change rates will provide insight into the molecular clock hypothesis's validity in this specific case.

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