The equilibrium potential is the electrical potential differential across the cell membrane that precisely balances the ion concentration gradient. The membrane potential will typically remain at the equilibrium potential since the system is in equilibrium.
What is equilibirium potential?
The resting membrane potential for a cell with a single permeant ionic species an ion that can only cross the membrane—will be equal to the ion's equilibrium potential.
The potential of a cell at rest is known as the resting membrane potential. All brain processes begin with a brief, localized change in the resting membrane potential.
The magnitude of this effect is graded and diminishes with increasing separation from the stimulus. An action potential is set off in the axon membrane once it reaches a certain size.
Therefore, The equilibrium potential is the electrical potential differential across the cell membrane that precisely balances the ion concentration gradient. The membrane potential will typically remain at the equilibrium potential since the system is in equilibrium.
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During a class iii or iv restoration, the dentist may use a _____ to help reproduce the correct contours and contact.
Answer:
mylar matrix system
Explanation:
strength focused training is categorized by low volume and heavy weight with a goal of increasing muscular strength. select one: true false
Strength-focused training is categorized by low volume and heavy weight with the goal of increasing muscular strength. This is a true statement because muscular strength is the main priority in these exercises.
What is strength-focused training?Strength-focused training is learned and practiced to increase muscle strength so that the muscle can function properly and assist with other body functions. It provides strength to the body, as most of the organs and bones are supported by muscles, so the strength of the muscles can give strength to the whole body and increase the muscle mass too.
Hence, it is true that strength-focused training is characterized by low volume and heavy weight with the goal of increasing muscular strength.
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Place the following actions in the correct sequence of occurrence, from first to last, in the process by which the Supreme Court accepts and reviews a case. Note that this list represents only a few of the overall sequence of steps in this process.
The correct sequence of occurrence in the process by which the Supreme Court accepts and reviews a case is:
A petition for a writ of certiorari is filed.The case goes to a conference.Court grants a writ of certiorari.Oral arguments commence.In the United States, the Supreme Court is the highest court of federal jurisdiction. It has a variety of tasks, such as interpreting a law's meaning, determining whether a law is relevant to certain facts, and determining how a law should be applied. Yet, the Supreme Court's primary function is to ensure the people the promise of equal justice under the law.
In accepting and reviewing a case, the Supreme Court has several steps:
The first step for most cases is filing a petition for a writ of certiorari.After the petition is filed, the case goes to a conference. In this conference, law clerks evaluate the petition. Once the case passes the evaluation, the court issues a writ of certiorari.The step that will follow is oral (verbal) arguments. Usually, each case is given an hour.Learn more about Supreme Court at https://brainly.com/question/25903338
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a nurse is employed by an agency that addresses global health needs. which roles are the nurse most likely to assume? (select all that apply)
The roles that the nurse is most likely to assume: Direct patient care for members of the community; Knowledge and skill in countries where nursing is an organized profession; Consultation to auxiliary personnel; Facilitation of education and health promotion within the community.
What is nurse?A nurse's main responsibility is to take care of patients by attending to their physical requirements, avoiding disease, and treating medical disorders. Nurses must watch and monitor the patient while documenting any pertinent data to support therapeutic decision-making. A nurse is a person who has received special training in caring for the ill and injured. In order to treat patients and keep them healthy and active, nurses collaborate with physicians and other healthcare professionals. Additionally, nurses provide end-of-life care and support for bereaved family members. The definition of basic nursing care is care that can be administered in accordance with a specified nursing process with little change and in which the patient's reactions to the nursing care are predictable.
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a pregnant woman presents with a rash two days before giving birth to a full term neonate. the rash is determined to be caused by the varicella-zoster virus. which complications will the newborn most likely experience?
A pregnant woman presents with a rash two days before giving birth to a full term neonate. the rash is determined to be caused by the varicella-zoster virus. Pneumonia like complications will the newborn most likely experience.
Infection that causes swelling and fluid buildup in the air sacs in one or both lungs.
The air sacs may swell with fluid or pus when someone has pneumonia. Anyone can be at risk of dying from the virus, but newborns, young children, and adults over 65 are more at risk.
The signs include a phlegmy or pus-filled cough, fever, chills, and breathing difficulties.
Many types of pneumonia are treatable with antibiotics. Vaccines are a good way to avoid some types of pneumonia.
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the nurse will monitor the patient who has been taking dronedarone (multaq) for which adverse effect?
The most frequent adverse effects of taking MULTAQ include fatigue and a sensation of weakness, as well as gastrointestinal issues like diarrhea, nausea, vomiting, pain in the stomach area, and indigestion.
With dronedarone, what are you watching?Dronedarone patients should have their heart rhythm checked at least once every three months.
What is the purpose of the drug dronedarone?Patients with a history of paroxysmal or persistent atrial fibrillation are treated with dronedarone to reduce their risk of being admitted to the hospital for serious heart rhythm issues. Dronedarone is a member of the class of drugs known as antiarrhythmics.
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using jmp, examine the relationship between pulmonary function and height. based on this information, choose the best description of the results:
The relationship between pulmonary function and height can be analyzed using JMP. Based on this information, the best description of the results is: that the slope is highly significant and 57% of the variation in FEV is explained by age.
What does the relationship between height and pulmonary function?Height has a highly significant relationship with someone’s pulmonary function. That is why we can use the measurement for calculating reference values for pulmonary function tests. Normally, a tall individual has higher static lung volumes and capacities. However, they would be likely to experience a greater decrease in lung volumes as they get older.
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a data item to include on a qualitative review checklist of newborn inpatient health records that need not be included on adult records would be
One data that should be included in the qualitative review checklist of infant and pediatric inpatient health records that should not be included in adult records is growth and developmental records.
What do you mean by health records?A health record is a confidential compilation of relevant facts about an individual's medical history, including all past and present medical conditions, illnesses, and treatments, with emphasis on the specific event affecting the patient at the current stage of care.
What is the main purpose of health records?A Personal Health Record (PHR) helps patients better manage their care. By keeping critical health information such as immunization records, test results and screening dates in electronic form, patients can easily update and share their records.
How do you distinguish medical records and health records?The term "medical record" refers to clinical records for diagnosis and treatment, while the term "health record" more generally refers to those relating to the general condition of the body.
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A nurse is admitting a child who has suspected epiglottitis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
a. Obtain a throat culture.
b. Place the child in an upright position.
c. Transport the child to radiology for a throat x-ray.
d. Place the child in an upright position.
A nurse is admitting a child who has suspected epiglottitis. The action nurse should Place the child in an upright position.
What is epiglottis?At the back of the throat, just below the tongue, there is a tissue flap called the epiglottis. To keep food from getting into your airway when you eat, it closes over the windpipe (trachea).
As a swollen epiglottis might restrict the flow of oxygen to your lungs, epiglottitis is recognized as a medical emergency. You shouldn't try to inspect your child's throat while you're waiting for an ambulance, put anything in their mouth, or lie them on their back.
It's crucial to maintain their composure and avoid alarm or upset. If the throat is completely blocked by epiglottitis, it can be fatal. But with the right care, the majority of patients experience a full recovery.
Therefore, A nurse is admitting a child who has suspected epiglottitis. The action nurse should Place the child in an upright position.
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when preparing a teaching plan for a client who is to receive a rubella vaccine during the postpartum period, the nurse should include which information?
A pregnant patient who has a rubella titer of less than 1:8 should receive the vaccine after giving birth.
Which evaluation finding on the postpartum client would indicate hemorrhage, according to the nurse?The lochia should be evaluated for its color, size, and smell. Knowing how much lochia to check for is crucial since too much lochia can signify bleeding. Additionally, bad-smelling lochia could be a sign of an infection. After birth, Lochia is typically bright crimson and has tiny clots.
When organizing the care of a client who has rubella, what should be considered?Extreme itching is a symptom of measles; nursing interventions include keeping the patient's nails short, promoting long sleeves and pants to prevent scratching, keeping skin moisturized with lotions recommended by the healthcare provider, and avoiding sunlight and heat.
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A 5-year-old child presents to the emergency department after being hit by a car. She complains of left upper quadrant pain and the focused assessment with sonography for trauma (FAST) exam shows fluid around her spleen. Which of the following findings would be an early indication of ongoing blood loss?
Widening pulse pressure Narrowing pulse pressure and increasing heart rate are early indications of ongoing blood loss.
The finding that would be an early indication of ongoing blood loss for the 5-year-old child after being hit by a car is the narrowing pulse pressure and increased heart rate.
FAST exam, short for Focused Assessment with Sonography for Trauma, is an ultrasound protocol used to look for the presence of fluid in the body. It's usually done for patients that are experienced trauma, such as after being hit by a car like the case above.
When the patient is experiencing blood loss, the pulse pressure starts to narrow and the heart rate increases to compensate for it. It can be an early indication of ongoing blood loss inside the patient's body.
Widening pulse pressure is definitely not correct. Decreasing diastolic blood pressure and weak peripheral pulses would be a late sign for the patient.
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a diabetic client is to eat 60 g carbohydrate at lunch. he can do this with: group of answer choices 1 c 2% milk, 1 c cooked broccoli, 1/2 bagel 1 c mashed potatoes, 1 c cranberry juice cocktail 2 slices bread, 1/2 c corn, 1/2 kiwi 1 hamburger bun, 1/3 c baked beans, 12 cherries
The diabetic client can eat 1 c 2% milk, 1 c cooked broccoli, and 1/2 a bagel.
What is diabetes?
A group of illnesses known as diabetes mellitus affect how the body utilises blood sugar (glucose). The cells that comprise the muscles as well as tissues rely heavily on glucose as a source of energy. It serves as the primary fuel for the brain. Each type of diabetes has a different primary cause. However, diabetes can result in an excess of sugar in the blood regardless of the type you have. Serious health issues can result from an excess of sugar in the blood. Type 2 diabetes . type 2 diabetes are chronic diabetes conditions. Diabetes conditions like gestational diabetes and prediabetes may be reversible. When blood sugar levels seem to be higher than usual, prediabetes develops. However, the blood sugar levels really aren't elevated enough to be classified as diabetes. Additionally, if no preventative measures are taken, prediabetes can progress to diabetes.
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since the eldery are not a homogenous group, a variety of long-term care services are necessary. they have more chronic ailments than acute episodes. a variety of long-term care services are necessary. the ltc system must be integrated with the rest of the health care delivery system.
Since the eldery are not a homogenous group hence a variety of long-term care services are necessary.
A homogenous group is a mixture of people or alternative components that are almost like each other in an exceedingly variety of serious respects. In an exceedingly social context, as an example, a consistent cluster would possibly embody members who are a similar age or have a similar socioeconomic background, values, work expertise, education, and so on.
Long-term care services include medical and non-medical care provided to folks that area unit unable to perform basic activities of daily living like dressing or bathing. long-run supports and services may be provided reception, within the community, in aided living or in nursing homes.
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if kay had also mentioned during this visit that she has been experiencing neck pain, which medical term could be used to describe this complaint? (use the appropriate suffix for pain)
Cervicalgia would have been the medical word used to explain the pain in the neck.
Anywhere in the neck, from the back of your head to the top of your shoulders, can experience cervicalgia, also known as neck discomfort. Your ability to move your head and neck may be restricted, and it may also spread to your upper back or arms. A sports injury or car collision is the most evident reason for neck pain. After a few weeks, cervicalgia will normally go away. People should schedule an appointment with a doctor for a further assessment if the pain lasts for an extended period of time. In serious conditions, neurosurgeons may advise surgery to ease discomfort.
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excessive use of mobile devices is linked to and may affect all of the following in children? a. a child's physical activity b. all of the above c. musculoskeletal pain d. poorer sleep e. a child's weight
The excessive use of mobile devices is linked to and may affect the sleeping pattern in children. Poorer sleep is a result of excessive use of mobile phones. Thus, the correct option is D.
What are the results of excessive use of mobile devices?
It has been shown that people who are addicted to mobile phones often are linked to many conditions like depression, anxiety, and other mental disorders. It is also a waste of time i.e., the average person checks his phone once every 12 minutes in a day, leading to about 80 times a day. Most of the time people just check their phones for no good reason.
The excessive use of technology can lead to various physical and mental health issues, such as obesity, sleeplessness or poorer sleep, anxiety, and attention problems.
Therefore, the correct option is D.
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in a patient with a pneumothorax, what findings would you expect with auscultation of the thorax on the affected side?
Answer:
decreased or absent breath sounds
Explanation:
ur welcome
the nurse si teaching a community health class about the risk factors for cancer of the larynx. which factor has the least influence in predisposing an individual to this type of cancer
Genetic predisposition has the least influence in predisposing an individual to cancer of the larynx.
What is Genetic predisposition?
Genetic predisposition, also known as genetic susceptibility, refers to a person's likelihood of developing a particular disease, disorder, or condition due to their genetic make-up. This can be caused by a variety of factors such as a person's age, lifestyle, and family history.
Genetic predisposition can increase the risk of certain diseases, but it does not guarantee that a person will develop the conditions. There are a number of genetic tests available that can help individuals identify their genetic predispositions to particular diseases.
Explain about Cancer of the larynx.
Cancer of the larynx, also known as laryngeal cancer, is a type of head and neck cancer that affects the voice box, or larynx. This type of cancer is most commonly caused by smoking and long-term exposure to secondhand smoke. In rare cases, it can be caused by other environmental or genetic factors. Laryngeal cancer is often associated with other head and neck cancers, such as those of the throat, mouth, or nose.
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the nurse is assessing a patient with chronic urinary incontinence. which statement leads the nurse to believe the patient requires more education about this disorder?
The statement that leads nurse to believe that the patient requires more education about chronic urinary incontinence disorder is that "I'm reducing the amount of fluids intake in a day so that I don't leak as much urine."
What is chronic urinary incontinence?Chronic urinary retention is caused by a blockage or obstruction affecting the bladder. Bladder may be filled up as usual but because of an obstruction, you may not be able to empty it completely, even on trying.
Reducing the amount of fluids causes the urine to become more concentrated which irritates the bladder wall. This increases the incidence of bladder spasm and urinary incontinence. It is more effective to increase the fluids intake.
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which hematologic diseases may have symptoms of weight loss, fever, drenching night sweats, and painless lymph node enlargement?
The enlargement of lymph nodes in the neck, armpits, or groin are typical signs of lymphoma. This is frequently painless, but not always, and is frequently accompanied by fevers, unexplained weight loss, drenching night sweats, occasionally chills, and chronic exhaustion.
What is lymphoma?The exact etiology of lymphoma is unknown. But it starts when a genetic mutation occurs in a lymphocyte, a kind of white blood cell that fights infection. The mutation instructs the cell to divide quickly, producing plenty of sick lymphocytes that keep reproducing. A kind of cancer that affects the lymphatic system is lymphoma. Although lymphoma is a severe illness, there are effective treatment options. The lymphatic system is a network of lymph veins and lymph nodes located all over your body. Anywhere in the body where lymph tissue is present, lymphomas can begin. The lymph tissue's principal locations are: the lymph nodes Lymph nodes, which can be seen inside the chest, abdomen, and pelvis, are bean-sized clusters of lymphocytes and other immune system cells.
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a nurse is providing education to the care provider of a cognitively impaired client who is prescribed a cholinesterase inhibitor. which information about medication side effects should the nurse be sure to include?
The information about medication side effects should the nurse be sure to include that is Gastrointestinal symptoms.
An adverse reaction is considered serious if the results are life-threatening hospitalization disability or permanent injury or birth defects caused by exposure before conception or during pregnancy. Knowing the possible side effects helps patients make decisions about some treatments.
When a patient is receiving treatment and is aware of what side effects they may experience they are better able to pay attention to potential problems and deal appropriately with them when they arise. Because most drugs pass through the digestive system and are absorbed perhaps the most common side effects of prescription drugs are gastrointestinal problems such as nausea constipation and diarrhea. Other common side effects include drowsiness Pain skin reactions etc.
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an allergic reaction typically triggers symptoms in the , , , , , stomach, intestines, or on the skin. (choose five.)
An allergic reaction typically triggers symptoms in the ears, nose, throat, lungs, sinuses, intestines, stomach, or on the skin.
What is an allergic reaction?Allergies are responses caused by allergens that come into contact with the skin, ears, nose, eyes, respiratory tract, and digestive tract. They can be inhaled, ingested, or injected into the body. Airborne allergens such as pollen, animal dander, dust mites, and mold. Certain foods, including soy, tree nuts, peanuts, fish, wheat, eggs, shellfish, and milk. Stings from insects are also classified as allergens, such as those from bees or wasps. An allergic cascade occurs in three stages in the human body:
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digoxin (lanoxin) is a cardiac glycoside that is among the oldest medications used for heart failure. what are its two primary actions?
Digoxin (Lanoxin) is a cardiac glycoside that is among the oldest medications used for heart failure. Its two primary actions are positive inotropy and negative chronotropic.
What do you mean by positive inotropy?
Positive inotropes increase the force with which your heart muscles contract, bringing your cardiac output to a healthy level and expanding the volume of blood your heart can pump. This aids in providing your organs with the blood and oxygen they require to function.
What do you mean by negative chronotropic?Heart rate increases with positive chronotropic while heart rate decreases with negative chronotropes. Beta-blockade therapy has a negative chronotropic impact that lowers the amount of oxygen used by the heart for non-mechanical work.
Thus from above conclusion we can say that digoxin (Lanoxin) is a cardiac glycoside that is among the oldest medications used for heart failure. Its two primary actions are positive inotropy and negative chronotropic.
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a client is requesting that the nurse speak with the health care provider regarding alternate treatment options. what comment by the nurse would be most appropriate to help the client identify and use personal strength?
"Why do you want me to speak with the doctor, I wonder? You might hear about every possible course of treatment if you speak with them.
What is most appropriate for using personal strength?While you speak with the doctor, I will be happy to be by your side." When a patient queries why a doctor has prescribed two anti-infectives.
The proper response from the nurse is "like many illnesses, yours is brought on by more than one organism."
Therefore, the nurse asked the client for talking with the doctor to provide personal strength.
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Which of the following statements regarding gunshot wounds is correct?
A. High-velocity bullets will cause less severe internal injuries.
B. The speed of a bullet has the greatest impact on the injury produced.
C. Low-velocity bullets will cause the greatest amount of trauma.
D. The size of a bullet has the greatest impact on the injury produced.
The speed of a bullet has the greatest impact on the injury or wound produced by the gunshot. Thus, the correct option is B.
What is wound?Wounds are the injuries that tear the skin or any other body tissues. Wounds include cuts, scrapes, scratches, and punctured skin. They can often happen because of an accident, however surgery, sutures, and stitches can also cause wounds. Minor wounds usually aren't that serious, but it is important to clean them to prevent any further infection.
A gunshot wound is a penetrating injury which is caused by a projectile from a gun fire. The damages may include bleeding, bone fractures, organ damage, wound, and, in more severe cases, death. Damage caused by gunshot depends on the part of the body hit by it, the path which the bullet follows through the body, and the speed of the bullet.
Therefore, the correct option is B.
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a client who is postoperative bariatric surgery is diagnosed with bile reflux. which conditions are associated with bile reflux? select all that apply.
A client who is postoperative bariatric surgery is diagnosed with bile reflux and the conditions which are associated with bile reflux are Gastritis and Esophagitis.
Bile reflux happens once gall — a biological process liquid made in your liver — backs up (refluxes) into your abdomen and, in some cases, into the tube that connects your mouth and abdomen (esophagus). Bile reflux could accompany the reflux of abdomen acid (gastric acid) into your passage.
Gastritis could be a general term for a gaggle of conditions with one issue in common: Inflammation of the liner of the abdomen. The inflammation of redness is most frequently the results of infection with constant microorganism that causes most abdomen ulcers or the regular use of bound pain relievers.
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the american heat association the us preventative services task force and the national academy of sciences blnak vitamin e supplemtns for the prevention of cardiovascular disease
There is not enough evidence to recommend for or against the use of vitamin E supplements for the prevention of cardiovascular disease.
What is vitamin E?
Eight fat-soluble substances that make up vitamin E include four tocopherols as well as four tocotrienols. Nerve issues can result from vitamin E deficiency, which really is uncommon and usually brought on by an underlying issue with digesting dietary fat or from a diet low in vitamin E. A fat-soluble antioxidant called vitamin E may be able to shield cell membranes from oxygen species. Government agencies from all over the world advise adults to take 3 to 15 mg daily. According to a global summary of more than 100 studies from 2016 that showed a median dietary intake of 6.2 mg of alpha-tocopherol per day, consumption was below recommendations. Alpha-tocopherol has been studied as a dietary supplement in doses as high as 2,000 mg daily, with varying degrees of success.
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a client has undergone a kidney transplant. the nurse is concerned about a compromised immune system in this client for which reason?
Immunosuppressant medications are prescribed to kidney transplant recipients in order to prevent the transplant from being rejected. These medications weaken the immune system.
What do you understand by immunosuppressant?A substance that lowers the body's immunological reactions. It weakens the body's defenses against illnesses including cancer and other infections. To prevent a person from rejecting a bone marrow or organ transplant, immunosuppressive medications may be administered. Immunosuppressants aid in "calming" (or managing) the immune system in your body. Rheumatoid arthritis and other inflammatory diseases are helped by this medication. Ulcerative colitis and Crohn's illness. Immunosuppressant classes include: biologicals, including adalimumab. inhibitors of calcineurin, like tacrolimus and cyclosporine. Corticosteroids (prednisone) (prednisone).
Thus from above conclusion we can say that immunosuppressant medications are prescribed to kidney transplant recipients in order to prevent the transplant from being rejected. These medications weaken the immune system.
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which statement is correct about the positive aspect of ibuprofen in relation to other nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (nsaids)?
The correct statement about the positive aspect of ibuprofen in relation to other non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, or NSAIDs, is that ibuprofen tends to cause less GI bleeding or GI irritation.
What is GI bleeding?Gastrointestinal bleeding, often called "GI bleeding", is an indication of a digestive tract disorder. Blood is frequently seen in feces or vomit but is not always noticeable; however, it may cause the stool to appear tarry or dark. The intensity of the bleeding can vary from mild to severe, and it could be fatal. According to current research, NSAIDs raise the risk of lower GI bleeding and perforation in the same way they would in the upper gastro-intestinal tract. Ibuprofen is an NSAID and has its own advantages since it is proven to cause less GI bleeding or GI irritation.
The questions above are provided with several statements from which to select, including:
a. It tends to cause less GI irritation or bleeding.b. It may be taken between meals.c. It has a long half-life of 20 - 30 hours.d. It has no drug-drug interactions.The correct answer to this question is A.
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you're treating a patient who experienced a fracture to her appendicular skeleton. which bone would need to be treated?
You're treating a patient who experienced a fracture to her appendicular skeleton, so hip bone would need to be treated.
What is bone?The skeleton of the body is made up of bone, which is living tissue. Bone tissue comes in three different varieties, including the following: dense tissue the denser, outer bone tissue. A protein called collagen forms the structure of bones, while calcium phosphate, a mineral, gives the framework strength and hardness. When other body parts require calcium, bones release some of the calcium they have stored into the blood. Bones are formed of a variety of cells, proteins, minerals, and vitamins and are living tissue with its own blood vessels. They may develop, change, and repair themselves as they go through life because to this framework.
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a nurse is teaching a community group about healthy lifestyles. a participant asks about how to maintain a healthy immune system. the nurse informs the group that which factor will positively affect the immune system?
According to the research, the correct answer is a balanced diet. The nurse should inform the group learning about healthy lifestyles that a balanced diet is a factor that will positively affect the immune system.
What is the immune system?It is the system that protects the organism whose operation allows it to be able to distinguish foreign substances from healthy cells and tissues of the organism.
In this sense, a healthy and balanced diet that provides the necessary nutrients between vitamins, minerals and antioxidants allows to increase the immune defenses therefore the immune system will be strengthened and will allow to reduce the intensity of the infectious diseases that appear.
Therefore, we can conclude that a balanced diet is a factor that helps the immune system to function properly.
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