a policy that allows one group to expel a rival group from a certain area is called

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Answer 1

A policy that allows one group to expel a rival group from a certain area is called "ethnic cleansing."

Ethnic cleansing refers to the deliberate and systematic removal or expulsion of a particular ethnic or religious group from a specific geographic region, often driven by political, religious, or ethnic motivations. It involves the use of force, coercion, violence, or intimidation to force a targeted group to leave their homes and abandon their land.

This policy is typically implemented by a dominant group or government against a minority or rival group, with the aim of achieving demographic change in the region. The motives behind ethnic cleansing can vary, ranging from aspirations of creating a homogeneous nation-state to asserting dominance over resources or political power.

Ethnic cleansing is a severe violation of human rights and is considered a crime against humanity under international law. It often leads to widespread suffering, displacement, and loss of life, as well as long-lasting social and psychological impacts on the affected communities. Efforts to prevent and address ethnic cleansing include international interventions, sanctions, diplomatic negotiations, and legal mechanisms such as international tribunals to hold perpetrators accountable for their actions.

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A white police officer killed a black prisoner. The following probably constitutes a violation of the double jeopardy clause.a. The police officer was prosecuted for murder in state court and for violating the prisoner's civil rights in federal court.b. The police officer was prosecuted for murder in state court and sued by the family for damages in a civil action.c. The police officer was convicted and appealed the conviction. The appellate court remanded the case for a new trial.d. The police officer was found not guilty of murder in state court. Six months later, the state found two new witnesses who could testify that they saw the police officer kill the prisoner. At a second trial, the police officer was convicted of murder.e. All of the above.

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A case where a white police officer killed a black prisoner and which scenario would likely constitute a violation of the double jeopardy clause, the correct answer is d. "The police officer was found not guilty of murder in state court. Six months later, the state found two new witnesses who could testify that they saw the police officer kill the prisoner. At a second trial, the police officer was convicted of murder".



This scenario constitutes a violation of the double jeopardy clause because the police officer was already tried and found not guilty for the same offense. The double jeopardy clause prohibits a person from being tried twice for the same crime.

The double jeopardy clause provides that no person can be convicted twice of the same offense. Its basic concept is found in English common law, although some scholars suggest that the idea has its origins in Roman law. The effectiveness of the clause depends on whether two separate offenses can be considered to be the same offense.

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identify the political parties with whom clinton gained support for the following bills.

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The political parties with whom Clinton gained support for the following bills:

NAFTA - Republican & DemocraticEconomic reforms - Democratic partyPersonal - Republican

Despite accusations that he evaded the Vietnam conscription and rumors of extramarital relationships, Bill Clinton handily defeated the top Democratic candidates in the 1992 primary elections. In an interview that was shown on national television, he addressed the subject of adultery and acknowledged that it had "pain" on his marriage.

Although he admitted to using marijuana while in college, he claimed that he "didn't inhale," which his detractors viewed as being dishonest. The majority of people didn't appear to care about his personal life or his position on a conflict that was over many years ago. President George H.W. Bush, his rival, had a weak campaign and was unsuccessful in persuading voters to reelect him despite his significant achievements in foreign policy.

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which rule limits a facility's liability (particularly baseball facilities) if proper screening and fan-protection measures are taken?

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The Baseball Facility Liability Limitation Act (BFLA) limits a facility's liability if proper screening and fan-protection measures are taken.

This Act is intended to promote the safety of fans attending baseball games and other sporting events by providing a limited amount of liability protection for owners, operators, and sponsors of baseball facilities. The BFLA requires that all baseball facilities have measures in place to protect fans from injuries resulting from errant balls or bats.

These measures can include netting, fencing, or other physical barriers. The Act also requires that all baseball facilities provide adequate lighting, security measures, and crowd-control measures to prevent injuries or disturbances. Finally, baseball facilities must make sure that any ball or bat that leaves the field of play is returned to the field of play. By taking these steps, a baseball facility can limit its liability in the event of an injury or disturbance.

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the definition of an impartial juror under the law is one who

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Answer:

independent people from the surrounding community who are willing to decide the case based only on the evidence.

Explanation:

The Sixth Amendment provides many protections and rights to a person accused of a crime. One right is to have his or her case heard by an impartial jury — independent people from the surrounding community who are willing to decide the case based only on the evidence.

this concept suggests that antisocial behavior produces negative consequences, and these consequences promote stability of antisocial behavior.

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It is known as the  "contingency theory" in criminology. It suggests that antisocial behavior leads to negative consequences, which in turn reinforce and promote the continuation of antisocial behaviour.

According to coercion theory, individuals engaging in antisocial behavior often face negative consequences such as punishment, social stigma, or isolation. These consequences are intended to discourage and deter such behavior.

However, in certain cases, the negative consequences may inadvertently reinforce the antisocial behavior instead. For example, if an individual engaging in criminal activities gains power, respect, or material benefits through their actions, it can reinforce their involvement in criminal behavior.

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tax law is the body of law governing legally enforceable agreements between parties to engage in economic exchange.t/f

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False. Tax law is the body of law governing taxation, the levying of taxes, and related matters. Tax law is a branch of public law and falls within the purview of government.

Tax law is a complex area of law that includes both federal and state statutes, regulations, and court decisions. Tax law governs the assessment, collection, and enforcement of taxes by the government, and the rights and obligations of taxpayers.

It also includes the rules and regulations governing the filing of tax returns, payment of taxes, and the application of tax credits and deductions. Tax law is an important component of the overall economic system as it affects the flow of capital and resources in an economy.

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which of the following is a civil suit brought against federal government officials for denying the constitutional rights to life, liberty, or property without due process of law?

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A Bivens action is a civil suit brought against federal government officials for denying constitutional rights without due process of law.

What is a civil suit brought against federal government officials for denying the constitutional rights to life, liberty, or property without due process of law called?

A civil suit brought against federal government officials for denying the constitutional rights to life, liberty, or property without due process of law is known as a Bivens action.

Explanation:

Bivens action: A Bivens action refers to a type of civil lawsuit that allows individuals to sue federal government officials, such as law enforcement officers or other federal agents, for violating their constitutional rights. It derives its name from the landmark Supreme Court case Bivens v. Six Unknown Named Agents (1971), which established the right to bring such actions.

Constitutional rights and due process: The Bivens action is typically brought when an individual alleges that their constitutional rights, specifically the rights to life, liberty, or property, have been violated by federal government officials. This may involve actions that deny due process of law, which guarantees individuals fair treatment and procedural protections in legal proceedings.

Denial of constitutional rights: To initiate a Bivens action, the plaintiff must demonstrate that a federal government official, acting under color of law, violated their constitutional rights. This can include actions such as excessive use of force, unlawful arrests, false imprisonment, property seizures, or other violations that infringe upon the individual's rights protected by the Constitution.

Remedies sought: The purpose of a Bivens action is to seek remedies for the violation of constitutional rights. This may include monetary damages awarded to compensate the plaintiff for any harm or losses suffered as a result of the violation. The action serves as a mechanism for individuals to hold federal government officials accountable for unconstitutional conduct.

Federal government officials: It is important to note that a Bivens action is specific to lawsuits against federal government officials, as it is based on constitutional rights violations by individuals acting under federal authority. It does not apply to lawsuits against state or local officials for similar constitutional violations, which may be addressed through other legal avenues.

In summary, a Bivens action is a civil suit brought against federal government officials for denying the constitutional rights to life, liberty, or property without due process of law. It allows individuals to seek remedies and hold federal government officials accountable for violations of their constitutional rights.

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international law springs from which of the following (select all that apply.)

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International law springs from the following:

Customary law of nations practiced over timeInternational agreementsTreaties

International law is primarily derived from the customary law of nations practiced over time, which refers to established legal practices and norms that have been consistently followed by nations and have gained recognition as legally binding.

This includes longstanding traditions, diplomatic customs, and principles of behavior that have become accepted as law in the international community. In addition to customary law, international law is also shaped by international agreements and treaties.

These are formal, written agreements negotiated and signed by sovereign states, which lay down specific obligations, rights, and responsibilities for the parties involved. Treaties serve as important sources of international law and play a crucial role in addressing various global issues, such as human rights, trade, and environmental protection.

Therefore, international law draws its foundations from the customary practices of nations, as well as from international agreements and treaties that are binding upon states.

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the per se rule was an antitrust law guideline that emphasized ____ over ____.

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The per se rule was an antitrust law guideline that emphasized price over quantity (option a).

In the context of antitrust law, the per se rule is a legal principle that categorizes certain types of agreements or conduct as inherently anti-competitive and illegal. It simplifies the analysis by treating certain practices as per se illegal, without requiring a detailed examination of their specific effects on the quantity or output of goods or services.

The per se rule focuses primarily on price-related conduct and agreements among competitors. It recognizes that certain practices, such as price-fixing agreements, have a clear and obvious negative impact on competition and consumers, regardless of the specific quantity or output implications.

In conclusion, the per se rule in antitrust law gives prominence to the consideration of price-related conduct and agreements.

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The per se rule was an antitrust law guideline that emphasized ____ over ____.

a. price; quantity

b. quantity; price

c. law; the economy.

true or false that uniform laws apply in all states, including those in which the laws have not been adopted.

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The statement "that uniform laws apply in all states, including those in which the laws have not been adopted" is false because uniform laws only apply in states that have adopted them.

Uniform laws are proposed legal guidelines developed by organizations like the Uniform Law Commission (ULC) to provide consistency across different jurisdictions. These laws, however, are not automatically enforced nationwide.

Each state must choose whether to adopt a specific uniform law, which may involve modifications to fit the state's unique circumstances. Thus, uniform laws do not apply in states where they have not been adopted, and each state retains the authority to implement its own laws and regulations.

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the supreme court's _____ decision requires states to provide for the legal defense of impoverished people

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The Supreme Court's Gideon v. Wainwright decision requires states to provide legal defense for impoverished individuals.

The Supreme Court's landmark decision in Gideon v. Wainwright established that states are obligated to provide legal defense for individuals who cannot afford an attorney. The case involved Clarence Earl Gideon, who was charged with a felony but was unable to afford legal representation. The Supreme Court held that the Sixth Amendment right to counsel applies to state criminal proceedings through the Fourteenth Amendment, requiring states to provide legal defense to indigent defendants. This ruling ensures that impoverished individuals have access to legal representation, safeguarding their constitutional rights and ensuring a fair and just legal process.

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The "Castle Doctrine" is a legal principal that might be raised in situations that involve the following:

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The so-called “Castle Doctrine” is a legal principle that may be raised in circumstances involving the use of lethal force by private persons, which also entails the use of self-defense.

A person's abode or any other legally occupied place is designated as a place in which that person has protections and immunities allowing one, in certain circumstances, to use force. This legal doctrine is known as a castle doctrine, castle law, or a defense of habitation law.

The “Castle Doctrine” is a legal theory that can be used in situations involving the use of fatal force by private individuals, which also includes the use of self-defense.

Therefore, these circumstances have heightened public scrutiny of the “Castle Doctrine” and “stand your ground” laws.

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After their review of available evidence, the National Research Council determined that research to datea. suggests that capital punishment deters many people considering first degree murder but only a few of those considering second degree murder and manslaughter.b. indicates that the death penalty effectively deters women, but cannot be said to deter men from committing first degree murder.c. cannot conclusively determine whether capital punishment decreases, increases, or has no effect on homicide rates.d. clearly shows that the death penalty has a deterrent effect on homicide rates.

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According to the National Research Council's review of available evidence, the answer to the question of whether or not capital punishment has a deterrent effect on homicide rates is not clear-cut.

The evidence does not conclusively determine whether capital punishment decreases, increases, or has no effect on homicide rates. While some evidence suggests that capital punishment deters some individuals from committing first degree murder, it only deters a few of those considering second degree murder and manslaughter. Additionally, there is no evidence to support the claim that the death penalty effectively deters women, but cannot be said to deter men from committing first degree murder. Therefore, it is not accurate to say that the research clearly shows that the death penalty has a deterrent effect on homicide rates.

After their review of available evidence, the National Research Council determined that research to date cannot conclusively determine whether capital punishment decreases, increases, or has no effect on homicide rates. In other words, the evidence is not sufficient to draw a clear conclusion about the impact of the death penalty on homicide rates.

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The Supreme Court has held that the Fourth Amendment does not apply to _______ . However, in ___________ , the Court found that use of a thermal imaging device from a public vantage point to monitor the amount of heat radiation was deemed a search that required a prior warrant.

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The Supreme Court has held that the Fourth Amendment does not apply to certain situations. However, in a specific case, the Court ruled that using a thermal imaging device from a public vantage point to monitor heat radiation constituted a search requiring a prior warrant.

The Fourth Amendment of the United States Constitution protects individuals from unreasonable searches and seizures by the government. However, there are exceptions to the Fourth Amendment's application.

In the case mentioned, the Supreme Court found that the use of a thermal imaging device qualified as a search under the Fourth Amendment. This case, known as Kyllo v. United States (2001), involved law enforcement using a thermal imaging device to detect the amount of heat radiation emanating from a person's home. The Court ruled that this action constituted a search because it revealed private information about the interior of the home that could not be obtained through ordinary public observation.  For example, the Court has held that the Fourth Amendment does not apply to certain activities or situations where individuals have a diminished expectation of privacy.

The Court further held that such a search using a thermal imaging device from a public vantage point required a prior warrant, as it intruded upon a protected area within the home. The decision emphasized the importance of maintaining the privacy of the home and ensuring that law enforcement activities do not violate the Fourth Amendment rights of individuals. Therefore, while the Fourth Amendment may not apply to certain situations, in the case of using thermal imaging devices to monitor heat radiation, a warrant is required to comply with constitutional protections.

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A limited liability company can be held liable for any loss or injury caused by the wrongful acts or omissions of its members in the course of business.

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A limited liability company (LLC) can be held liable for any loss or injury resulting from the wrongful acts or omissions committed by its members during the course of business.

This means that the LLC may be held responsible for the actions or negligence of its members, potentially leading to legal consequences and financial liability.

While a limited liability company (LLC) is generally designed to protect its owners, known as members, from personal liability, there are circumstances where the LLC can be held accountable for the wrongful acts or omissions of its members. This concept is often referred to as "piercing the corporate veil."

Under certain conditions, a court may disregard the limited liability protection of an LLC and hold it responsible for the actions or negligence of its members. This typically occurs when the LLC is found to have engaged in fraudulent or wrongful conduct, or when the members have not maintained proper separation between personal and business affairs.

In such cases, the court may determine that the LLC is merely an extension of the members' personal activities, rather than a distinct legal entity. As a result, the LLC can be held liable for any loss, damages, or injuries caused by the wrongful acts or omissions of its members during the course of business.

It's important for LLCs and their members to adhere to proper business practices, maintain separate finances, and act in accordance with legal and ethical standards to minimize the risk of personal liability and preserve the limited liability protection afforded by the LLC structure.

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the statute that makes it necessary for federal projects to ease and notify appropriate tribal representatives if human remains are encountered during archaeological investigations is?

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Answer:

Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA).

Explanation:

The statute that makes it necessary for federal projects to consult and notify appropriate tribal representatives if human remains are encountered during archaeological investigations is the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA).

Which of the following is the rule of thumb for determining the stability of a vehicle that has been involved in a​ collision?A. It is stable if the ignition is turned off.B. It is stable if it is upright on all four wheels.C. It should only be considered stable after assessment by trained rescue personnel.D. It is stable if the transmission is in​ "Park" or the parking brake is on.

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The rule of thumb for determining the stability of a vehicle that has been involved in a collision is that it should only be considered stable after assessment by trained rescue personnel.

When assessing the stability of a vehicle after a collision, it is essential to prioritize safety and rely on the expertise of trained rescue personnel. While the other options listed may offer some indicators, such as turning off the ignition, being upright on all four wheels, or engaging the transmission in "Park" or the parking brake, they do not guarantee the overall stability of the vehicle.

Trained rescue personnel are equipped with the necessary knowledge and tools to assess the structural integrity, potential hazards, and risks associated with a collision. They can evaluate factors such as structural damage, leaking fluids, compromised stability, and other safety concerns that may not be immediately apparent.

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FILL THE BLANK. the u.s. citizenship and immigration services was moved from the department of justice to the department of homeland security because ______.

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The U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services (USCIS) was moved from the Department of Justice to the Department of Homeland Security because of a reorganization and consolidatin effort aimed at improving efficiency and enhancing national security.

The transfer of USCIS occurred as part of the creation of the Department of Homeland Security in 2003, following the September 11th attacks.

The shift was driven by the belief that immigration functions should be integrated into a single department responsible for protecting the United States from various threats, including terrorism. Placing USCIS under the Department of Homeland Security allowed for better coordination and collaboration among immigration enforcement agencies, such as Immigration and Customs Enforcement (ICE) and Customs and Border Protection (CBP).

The move aimed to streamline processes, enhance information sharing, and align immigration policies with national security priorities. It also aimed to ensure that immigration functions were carried out within a framework that considered both immigration policy and the overall security of the United States.

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T/F: actual authority is the authority that the third party may be reasonably assume that the agent possesse

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False, the assertion that actual authority is determined by the assumptions of the third party is incorrect.

Actual authority refers to the authority explicitly granted by the principal to the agent, whether through written or oral communication. It is based on the direct relationship between the principal and the agent, and the agent's power to act on behalf of the principal within the scope of their authority. The third party's assumptions or beliefs about the agent's authority do not determine actual authority; it is solely determined by the principal's explicit grant of authority to the agent.

Apparent authority, on the other hand, is the authority that a third party reasonably believes an agent possesses based on the principal's words, conduct, or other actions. It is the authority that the principal, through their own actions or omissions, leads others to believe the agent possesses, even if it may exceed the agent's actual authority. The key distinction is that actual authority is granted by the principal, while apparent authority is based on the reasonable belief of the third party.

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the federal court system consists of trial courts, intermediate appellate courts and a(n): _______.

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The federal court system consists of trial courts at the district level, intermediate appellate courts (United States Courts of Appeals), and a Supreme Court as the highest judicial authority in the federal system.

The federal court system in the United States is structured with multiple levels of courts. At the trial court level, there are federal district courts where cases are initially heard and decided. These trial courts are responsible for conducting trials, examining evidence, and making determinations on the facts and law.

These appellate courts review decisions made by the district courts. They do not conduct trials or examine new evidence but rather focus on reviewing legal arguments and the application of law in the lower court decisions.

Finally, at the apex of the federal court system is the Supreme Court of the United States. The Supreme Court is the highest judicial body and has the authority to review decisions made by the lower federal courts.

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TRUE / FALSE. for employees who are paid handsomely for their efforts, marx said their work would ultimately prove to be profitable to them. meaningless to them. expensive to them. tireless.

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The statement "for employees who are paid handsomely for their efforts, Marx said their work would ultimately prove to be profitable to them" is FALSE.

Karl Marx, a philosopher and economist, believed in the concept of exploitation in the capitalist system. He argued that the capitalist class extracts surplus value from the labor of the working class, resulting in an unequal distribution of wealth. In this context, it is important to note that Marx did not believe that high wages equate to fair compensation for the labor of the working class.

Instead, he believed that the true value of labor is determined by the amount of time and effort put into it, regardless of the compensation received.


Therefore, even if employees are paid handsomely for their efforts, Marx would argue that their work is still being exploited by the capitalist class. In this sense, their work may be profitable for the employer, but it is meaningless or tireless for the employee, as they are still being exploited for their labor.

Hence, the statement is false.

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a perspective contending that the behavior of countries in the international arena is mainly intended to advance their values and principles.

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The perspective contending that the behavior of countries in the international arena  where international trade takes place is mainly intended to advance their values and principles is an interesting one. It suggests that countries are driven by their core beliefs and are willing to take actions in the international arena to promote them. While it is true that countries do have their own values and principles, it is important to note that their behavior in the international arena is often influenced by a multitude of factors. These factors could include economic interests, strategic considerations, alliances, and even domestic politics.


However, it is also true that a country's values and principles can play a significant role in shaping its foreign policy. For instance, a country that values human rights and democracy may be more likely to support international efforts to promote these values and principles.
Overall, while the behavior of countries in the international arena may not be solely driven by their values and principles, these core beliefs can play a significant role in shaping their actions and decisions.

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When Jack was 16, he killed a classmate. Because he was not tried for the crime until he was 19, the court was able to impose a sentence of death.Select one:TrueFalse

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The statement 'When Jack was 16, he killed a classmate. Because he was not tried for the crime until he was 19, the court was able to impose a sentence of death.' is false.

The Supreme Court's ruling in the case of Roper v. Simmons in 2005 established that it is unconstitutional to impose the death penalty on individuals who committed a crime when they were under the age of 18. Therefore, if Jack killed a classmate when he was 16 and was not tried until he was 19, the court would not be able to impose a sentence of death due to his status as a juvenile at the time of the offense.

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the minimum size criminal jury approved by the u.s. supreme court is

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The minimum size for a criminal jury approved by the U.S. Supreme Court is six members.

The U.S. Supreme Court has ruled that the Constitution's Sixth Amendment guarantees a defendant in a criminal trial the right to a trial by an impartial jury.

While the Constitution does not specify a minimum jury size, the Supreme Court has held that a jury must have at least six members to satisfy the constitutional requirements.

The Court has recognized that a smaller jury may still be capable of providing a fair and impartial trial.

However, going below six members could potentially compromise the jury's ability to reach a well-rounded and diverse decision, thereby undermining the principles of a fair trial.

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T/F. only felons are released on parole not those convicted of misdemeanors

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The statement that only felons are released on parole and not those convicted of misdemeanors is false.

Parole is a conditional release granted to individuals who have been convicted of crimes, whether they are felonies or misdemeanors, and have served a portion of their sentence in prison. It allows individuals to complete the remainder of their sentence in the community under supervision, subject to specific conditions and requirements.

Parole eligibility and release criteria vary between jurisdictions and depend on the specific laws and regulations in place. While felony convictions often involve longer sentences and may be more commonly associated with parole, misdemeanor offenders can also be eligible for parole in certain circumstances. The decision to grant parole to someone convicted of a misdemeanor is typically based on factors such as their behavior in prison, risk assessment, compliance with programming, and the judgment of parole boards or relevant authorities.

Parole serves various purposes, including facilitating reintegration into society, reducing prison overcrowding, and providing opportunities for rehabilitation and supervision. It aims to balance public safety concerns with the goal of successful reentry for individuals who have demonstrated a readiness for supervised release. Therefore, parole eligibility and release decisions take into account the specific circumstances of the individual and the nature of their offense, regardless of whether it is a felony or a misdemeanor conviction.

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when students were presented with a hypothetical robbery-murder case with a single eyewitness, what percentage voted for conviction?

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A hypothetical robbery-murder case and the percentage of students who voted for conviction. However, I can provide some general information about how people might respond to such a case.

Research has shown that the decision to convict or acquit in a criminal trial is influenced by a variety of factors, including the strength of the evidence, the credibility of the witnesses, and the perceived guilt or innocence of the defendant. In a hypothetical case such as a robbery-murder, the eyewitness testimony could be a critical piece of evidence, but it is also possible that the witness's memory of the event may be fallible or influenced by other factors such as emotions or personal biases.

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what is the us justice department’s (adam) program, an acronym for?

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The US Justice Department's program, ADAM, stands for the "Automated Digital Analysis and Mitigation" program.

It is a software tool used by law enforcement agencies to analyze and filter through large amounts of digital evidence, including images and videos, to help investigators identify and prioritize potential leads in criminal cases.

The ADAM program uses advanced algorithms and machine learning techniques to identify patterns and connections in digital data that may be relevant to a criminal investigation. This can include identifying individuals, objects, and locations within images or videos, as well as detecting specific activities or behaviors that may be indicative of criminal activity. By automating this process, the ADAM program can save investigators a significant amount of time and resources, allowing them to focus on more important aspects of an investigation.

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according to your textbook, what may be the fastest growing sector of credit card fraud?

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The fastest-growing sector of credit card fraud may be online or e-commerce transactions.

With the increasing popularity of online shopping and the digitalization of payment methods, online transactions have become a target for credit card fraud. Criminals adapt their tactics to exploit vulnerabilities in online payment systems, taking advantage of factors such as weak security measures on certain websites, stolen credit card information, or identity theft. The anonymity and convenience of online transactions make it an attractive sector for credit card fraudsters. It is crucial for consumers and businesses to employ robust security measures, such as secure payment gateways, encryption, two-factor authentication, and regular monitoring of credit card activity, to mitigate the risks associated with online credit card fraud.

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the type of evidence by which an unknown fact is inferred from a series of known facts is called

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The type of evidence by which an unknown fact is inferred from a series of known facts is called circumstantial evidence, that implies a fact or event based on a series of other known facts or circumstances.

Circumstantial evidence is indirect evidence that implies a fact or event based on a series of other known facts or circumstances. Unlike direct evidence, which directly proves a fact, circumstantial evidence relies on logical reasoning and inference to draw conclusions. It involves considering multiple pieces of evidence and connecting them together to support a particular inference.

Circumstantial evidence is commonly used in legal proceedings to establish guilt or innocence in criminal cases where direct evidence may be lacking. It is based on the principle that a combination of facts and circumstances can be strong enough to establish the truth of a matter

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A. commitmentB. referralC. residential placementD. incarceration orderThis is any sentence of a juvenile offender to a halfway house or other community home in which the juvenile is closely monitored, but allowed to leave for work or school.

Answers

Residential placement is a sentence of a juvenile offender to a halfway house or other community home in which the juvenile is closely monitored, but allowed to leave for work or school.

Here correct answer is C

This type of juvenile sentence is usually a less harsh form of punishment than incarceration, and is meant to provide a form of corrective behavior and socialization.

Residential placement also allows the juvenile to remain in the community, so that the family can maintain contact and help to reinforce the corrective behavior. The juvenile receives supervision from staff and counselors, and is expected to abide by certain rules and regulations.

The length of stay in residential placement is typically determined by a court order or other legal document, and the juvenile is released once the sentence has been completed.

Residential placement is generally viewed as an effective means of engaging the juvenile in a less restrictive environment while still imposing a sense of accountability and responsibility.

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If advertising is the dominant element in a company's marketing mix, then a(n) _____ test is the best type of posttest to use.A. salesB. clutterC. differentialD. attitudeE. inquiry it is suggested that adults over the age of 65 engage in ________ minutes of vigorous-intensity aerobic physical activity a week. The graph shows the average number of rabbits and coyotes in an area over time. Which conclusion is best supported by these data?A: The coyote population is influenced by the available number of rabbitsB: The number of coyotes will be greater than the number of rabbits within a ten-year periodC: The number of rabbits will decrease during the summermonths.D: The rabbit population obtains energy by consuming young plants Using samples of 191 credit card statements, an auditor found the following: Use Table-A. (All Answered Please) Sample 1 2 3 4 Number with errors 4 2 4 10 Click here for the Excel Data Filea. Determine the fraction defective in each sample. (Round your answers to 4 decimal places.)b. If the true fraction defective for this process is unknown, what is your estimate of it? (Round your answer to 1 decimal place.)c. What is your estimate of the mean and standard deviation of the sampling distribution of fractions defective for samples of this size? (Round your intermediate calculations and final answers to 4 decimal places.)d. What control limits would give an alpha risk of .03 for this process? (Round your intermediate calculations to 4 decimal places. Round your "z" value to 2 decimal places and other answers to 4 decimal places.)e. What alpha risk would control limits of .0470 and .0054 provide? (Round your intermediate calculations to 4 decimal places. Round your "z" value to 2 decimal places and "alpha risk" value to 4 decimal places.)f. Using control limits of .0470 and .0054, is the process in control? multiple choice 1 no yesg. Suppose that the long-term fraction defective of the process is known to be 2 percent. What are the values of the mean and standard deviation of the sampling distribution? (Round your intermediate calculations and final answers to 2 decimal places.)h. Construct a control chart for the process, assuming a fraction defective of 2 percent, using two-sigma control limits. Is the process in control? multiple choice 2 Yes No _______ is the degree to which people communicate affection, trust, depth and involvement. You are using computer audit software to prepare accounts receivable confirmations during the annual audit of the Eastern Sunrise Services Club. The company has the following data files: Master filedebtor credit record. Master filedebtor name and address. Master fileaccount detail: Ledger number. Sales code. Customer account number. Date of last billing. Balance (gross). Discount available to customer (memo account only). Date of last purchase. The discount field represents the amount of discount available to the customer if the customer pays within 30 days of the invoicing date. The discount field is cleared for expired amounts during the daily updating. You have determined that this is properly executed. Required: From the data files shown, list the information that you would include on the confirmation requests. If the information should be included from the Master file, select Yes. If not, select No. The magnetic field on the earth that protects us from solar wind is caused by [BLANK]. (Select all that apply)a. the earth's revolutionb. the liquid outer corec. the earth's tilt on its axisd. the seasonse. the solid inner coref. the earth's rotation Here's a dot plot showing the player attendance forClub practice.Choose all answers that apply:4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15Number of playersACoach Eddie wants to describe the attendance distribuclusters, gaps, and peaks.Which of these statements could Coach Eddie use?A.There is a gap from 11 to 12 players.B.There is a cluster from 7 to 8 players.C. None of the above According to Homer Hoyt's sector model, once a district with high-class housing is established, the most expensive new housing is built If a polynomial function f(x) has roots 6 and-3, what must be a factor of f(x)?o(x-3)o(x-6)o(x-(-3+6))o(x+(-3+6)) What did the environment become when Salam and Lucy lived 2 million years ago? Select the correct answer from each drop down menu:The Approximate length of segment WX is _____ UnitsChoices:A. 2B. 4.12C. 4.47D. 5The Approximate length of segment XY is _____ UnitsChoices:A. 2B. 4.12C. 4.47D. 5The Approximate length of segment YZ is _____ UnitsChoices:A. 2B. 4C. 4.47D. 5The Approximate Perimeter of quadrilateral WXYZ is _____ UnitsChoices:A. 14B. 14.47C. 15D. 15.59 the nurse administers an iv vesicant chemotherapeutic agent to a client. which action by the nurse is most important to take? Wall of Prizesa carnival game is set up with a board containing pictures of prizes. if a student throws a dart and hits within a shape with a prize, they win that prize a(n) ___ is a special-purpose workbook you can create and then use as a pattern to create new, similar workbooks or worksheets which of the following elements must be established to create an implied-in-fact contract? the five steps of risk management process include indentify hazards. true or false? which of the following is the term for hues opposite each other on the color wheel? a telescope has a circular aperture of diameter d = 3.2 m. a light with wavelength = 660 nm travels through the telescope. express the limiting angle of resolution which brain structure has not been implicated in borderline personality disorder?