A polysome consists of multiple ____ bound to a single mRNA. O release factors O tRNAs O ribosomes O initiation factors O polymerases

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Answer 1

A polysome consists of multiple ribosomes bound to a single mRNA.

A ribosome is an intercellular structure made of both RNA and protein, and it is the site of protein synthesis in the cell. The ribosome reads the messenger RNA (mRNA) sequence and translates that genetic code into a specified string of amino acids, which grow into long chains that fold to form proteins.

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describe a pathway used for the degradation of carbohydrates by strict anaerobe

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The pathway used for carbohydrate degradation by strict anaerobes is called fermentation. Carbohydrates are broken down through this pathway to produce energy in the absence of oxygen.

This process allows strict anaerobes to generate energy in the absence of oxygen, which is essential for their survival in oxygen-free environments.

Fermentation occurs through a series of enzymatic reactions that do not require oxygen. During fermentation, glucose is broken down to pyruvate and ATP is generated. The pyruvate is then further metabolized into various end products, such as lactic acid, ethanol and carbon dioxide.

Strict anaerobes are bacteria that thrive only in environments where oxygen is not present, relying on hydrogen or carbon dioxide to survive.

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hich of the following statements regarding cryptosporidiosis is incorrect? a. infection may be acquired from swimming in a swimming pool in which the pool water has been contaminated by parasite cysts from the perianal skin of infected persons with diarrhea who

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The statement that is INCORRECT regarding cryptosporidiosis is; Parasite cysts are a quite fragile and do not survive normally outside of the intestinal tract of the infected persons. Option C is correct.

This statement is false because Cryptosporidium cysts are resistant to many environmental stresses and can survive outside of the host for extended periods of time. They are resistant to chlorine, which is commonly used to disinfect swimming pools and drinking water, and can survive in water for several months. Therefore, they can cause infections when water or food is contaminated with the cysts.

Cryptosporidium is a significant public health concern, especially in developing countries where access to clean water and sanitation facilities may be limited. Treatment for cryptosporidiosis typically involves supportive care, such as oral rehydration therapy, and in some cases, antiparasitic medication.

Hence, C. is the correct option.

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--The given question is incomplete, the complete question is

"Which of the following statements regarding cryptosporidiosis is INCORRECT? A) Infection may be acquired from drinking water contaminated with parasite cysts. B) Parasites are present in the intestinal tracts of cattle and many farm animals, and infectious cysts are excreted in their feces. C) Parasite cysts are quite fragile and do not normally survive outside of the intestinal tract of infected persons. D) Infection may be acquired from swimming in a swimming pool in which the pool water has been contaminated by parasite cysts from the perianal skin of infected persons with diarrhea who have also been swimming in the pool. E) Infection causes an acute self-limited diarrhea in immunocompetent persons, but may cause chronic life-threatening diarrhea in immunocompromised persons."--

at least some archaenas are called extremophiles because

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Some archaenas are called extremophiles because they are able to thrive and survive in extreme environments, such as high temperatures, acidic conditions, and high pressure. These environments are typically inhospitable to most animals and other forms of life.

Therefore, extremophiles have adapted to these extreme conditions, allowing them to live and even thrive in environments where other organisms cannot survive.Some archaeans are called extremophiles because they are microorganisms that thrive in extreme environments, such as high temperatures, high salinity, or extreme pressure, where most other organisms, including animals, cannot survive. These extremophiles have unique adaptations that allow them to live and reproduce in such harsh conditions.

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Why do you think the clay used to represent veins is thinner than the clay used to represent arteries?

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Arteries tend to have thicker walls and be thicker in diameter because the blood flowing through them is under much higher pressure than the blood flowing through veins.

Veins are blood vessels that carry blood back to the heart, and they have thinner walls than arteries. This is because the pressure of blood flow in veins is much lower than in arteries, so veins do not need as much structural support. In contrast, arteries are blood vessels that carry blood away from the heart, and they have thicker walls than veins. This is because arteries need to be able to withstand the high pressure of blood flow as it is pumped away from the heart.

It is possible that the difference in thickness between the clay used to represent veins and the clay used to represent arteries was chosen to reflect these physical differences. By making the veins thinner and the arteries thicker, the model may more accurately reflect the relative size and strength of these blood vessels in the human body.

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cAMP activates __________, which catalyzes the __________ of other enzymes in the cytoplasm.
a. protein kinase; phosphorylation
b. calcium; phosphorylation
c. calmodulin; hydrolysis
d. tyrosine kinase; hydrolysis

Answers

a. protein kinase; phosphorylation

Option (a) is the correct answer. cAMP activates protein kinase, which catalyzes the phosphorylation of other enzymes in the cytoplasm.

Cyclic AMP (cAMP) is a second messenger that is involved in intracellular signaling pathways. It activates protein kinase A (PKA), which is a serine/threonine kinase.

PKA phosphorylates various target proteins and enzymes, which can either activate or deactivate their function.

This process is important for regulating various cellular processes such as metabolism, gene expression, and cell proliferation.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer as it correctly describes the mechanism by which cAMP activates protein kinase, leading to the phosphorylation of other enzymes in the cytoplasm.

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6. a 19mm zone of inhibition of is considered as sensitive for cefazolin, but resistant to penicillin. why do different antibiotics have different measurement standards?

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Different antibiotics like cefazolin and penicillin have different measurement standards because they have different chemical structures and mechanisms of action.

The zone of inhibition is a measure of the effectiveness of an antibiotic against a particular bacterium. It represents the area around a disc containing a known concentration of the antibiotic where the bacterium is unable to grow. The size of the zone of inhibition is affected by several factors, including the concentration of the antibiotics, the diffusion rate of the antibiotic through the agar, and the susceptibility of the bacterium to the antibiotic.

Each antibiotic has its specific standard for determining its effectiveness against a particular bacterium. For example, cefazolin and penicillin have different standards because they are different types of antibiotics that work in different ways. Cefazolin is a cephalosporin antibiotic, while penicillin is a penicillin antibiotic.

Therefore, the size of the zone of inhibition for cefazolin may be different than that of penicillin due to differences in their mechanisms of action and their potency against the particular bacterium being tested.

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regulatory transcription factors influence the expression of genes by affecting the rate of transcription. they do so by binding directly to dna at or near the____site.

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Regulatory transcription factors regulate gene expression by directly binding to DNA at or near the promoter site.

Regulatory transcription factors are proteins that bind to certain DNA sequences in gene promoters and control the rate of RNA polymerase transcription. Depending on the exact DNA sequence to which they bind and the signalling pathways that activate them, these transcription factors can either activate or repress gene expression. These transcription factors, by binding to DNA, can attract additional proteins, such as co-activators or co-repressors, which further affect transcription rate.

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Which balancing exercise is best for improving dynamic balance?
O balancing with the hands on the floor and the knees resting on the elbows
O balancing on one knee and the opposite hand with the other leg and hand raised off the ground
O hopping back and forth on one foot over a line drawn on the ground
standing on one leg with the other lifted off the ground

Answers

Standing on one leg with the other lifted off the ground. is best for improving dynamic balance.

What is dynamic balance?

Dynamic balance is the ability to adjust one’s body and movement to changing external conditions, or to adjust to changing internal conditions. It is the ability to make changes in one’s posture and movement that are appropriate for the changing environment. It is associated with balance, coordination, postural control and motor control. It is an important skill that helps to maintain a person’s physical well-being and independence in the environment. It also helps to prevent falls and other injuries. Dynamic balance can be improved through physical activity, strength training, and balance exercises. Additionally, it can be enhanced through activities that involve sensory integration, such as yoga, tai chi, and Pilates. Dynamic balance helps us maintain our physical fitness and is an important factor in overall health and wellness.

Therefore, the correct option is D.

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Answer: hopping back and forth on one foot over a line drawn on the ground

Explanation: i did the test

Picea glauca is a seed-bearing plant. What other characteristics must be true of this species?(a) It produces flowers(b) It produces fruits(c) The gametophyte is the dominant generation(d) It has vascular tissue(e) Double-fertilization results in the production of the endosperm.

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Picea glauca is a plant that produces seeds. This species must also have vascular tissue as one of its additional traits. Option d is Correct.

Sediment-producing plants are referred to as "seed-bearing plants." Typically, spermatophytes generate seeds. Pollen is produced by land-based seed plants. Vascular tissue is another trait that seed plants have in common.

A blossoming plant has the following qualities: Flowers: One of the most distinctive characteristics of an angiosperm is its flower, which is the component of the plant that has evolved to aid in fertilization. The flower has fragrant petals that are colorful and draw bees to it. These plants' seeds grow inside the ovaries before being fertilized to produce a fruit. Option d is Correct.

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Given an ANOVA p-value of 0.03 for an experiment with five treatments, what conclusions can be drawn?

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Given an ANOVA p-value of 0.03 for an experiment with five treatments, At least two of the treatments are significantly different from the others, option A.

While doing an analysis of variance (ANOVA), we examine the differences between and within groups in terms of their respective mean squares (MS), which are determined by dividing each sum of squares by the corresponding degree of freedom. Although being called a mean square, the outcome is essentially a measure of variance, or standard deviation squared.

After that, the F-ratio is calculated by dividing MS(between) and MS (within). Even though the population averages are all equal, sampling error might result in significant variation between the samples, giving you an F-ratio that is significantly bigger than 1.0. (group).

Thus an F-value may even exceed the F-critical value from the F-probability distribution at the specified substantial Type I (alpha-) level of error and the degrees of freedom associated with the two MS.

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Complete question:

Given an ANOVA p-value of 0.03 for an experiment with five treatments, what conclusions can be drawn? a. At least two of the treatments are significantly different from the others. b. All five of the treatments are significantly different. c. At least four of the treatments are significantly different from the others. d. At least one of the treatments is significantly different from the others. e. At least three of the treatments are significantly different from the others. f. None of the conclusions are correct. g. None of the treatments are significantly different.

Which type of cellular transport is responsible for moving respiratory gases between the circulatory system and the rest of the body?

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The type of cellular transport responsible for moving respiratory gases between the circulatory system and the rest of the body is passive diffusion.

Passive diffusion is the movement of molecules from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration, down a concentration gradient, without the need for energy input. Oxygen and carbon dioxide, which are the main respiratory gases, move across cell membranes through passive diffusion, driven by differences in their partial pressures.

During respiration, oxygen is taken up by the lungs and transported by the circulatory system to the body tissues. At the tissue level, oxygen diffuses from the capillaries into the cells, where it is used for energy production. Carbon dioxide, which is a waste product of cellular respiration, diffuses out of the cells and into the capillaries, where it is transported back to the lungs for elimination.

Thus, passive diffusion is the primary mode of cellular transport responsible for moving respiratory gases between the circulatory system and the rest of the body, ensuring that cells receive the oxygen they need and waste carbon dioxide is eliminated from the body.

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How does the vegetation of india change from one region to another?

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The vegetation of India changes significantly from one region to another due to various environmental factors such as climate, topography, and soil conditions.

In general, India is home to a wide variety of vegetation ranging from tropical rainforests to alpine meadows. In the northern Himalayan region, the vegetation changes from subtropical broadleaf forests in the foothills to temperate forests at higher altitudes. The Himalayan region is also home to several alpine meadows and grasslands.

Moving southwards, the vegetation in the Indo-Gangetic plain is dominated by grasslands, shrubs, and deciduous forests. The Deccan plateau region is marked by forests, shrublands, and grasslands. The Western Ghats and the eastern coast of India have a significant amount of tropical evergreen and semi-evergreen forests, while the northeastern states of India are home to tropical rainforests.

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what cells decline in number during the final phase of hiv-1 infection, when an individual is said to have aids?

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During the last stage of HIV-1 infection, CD4+ T cells, also known as helper T cells, become less numerous, which compromises the immune system and causes a variety of AIDS-related health issues.

A significant percentage of CD4+ T cells, an essential part of the immune system, were targeted and decimated by the virus during the ultimate stage of HIV-1 infection, which can take years to mature. The body's CD4+ T cell count decreases as the virus multiplies and infects more cells, weakening the immune system and making it more challenging for the body to fight off infections and disorders. Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS), which is characterised by a variety of symptoms and health issues, including opportunistic infections and cancers that take advantage of the weakened immune system, is eventually diagnosed when the number of CD4+ T cells drops below a specific threshold.

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Taxol stabilizes microtubules so they cannot shorten, but can still grow. If taxol were added during anaphase of mitosis, what effect would y anaphase events? a. It would stop all anaphase events b. It would stop anaphase A but not anaphase B c. it would stop anaphase B but not anaphase A d. It would have no effect e. chromosomes would still appear to behave normally

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Taxol is a chemotherapy drug that stabilizes microtubules, which are important for the separation of chromosomes during cell division. During anaphase of mitosis, the microtubules shorten, 3

pulling the chromosomes apart. If taxol were added during anaphase, it would prevent the microtubules from shortening, which would ultimately stop the separation of chromosomes. This would lead to either a complete stop in anaphase events or only anaphase A or B being affected, depending on which microtubules are primarily responsible for pulling the chromosomes apart. The chromosomes would still appear normal since they would remain attached to the microtubules. However, the lack of proper chromosome separation could lead to abnormal cell division and potentially cell death. Taxol stabilizes microtubules so they cannot shorten, but can still grow. If taxol were added during anaphase of mitosis,

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a component of blood called____blood cells are called leukocytes and participate in immune responses.

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A component of blood called white blood cells are called leukocytes and participate in immune responses.

These cells are a crucial part of the immune system, working to defend the body against infections, viruses, and other harmful pathogens. White blood cells are produced in the bone marrow and circulate throughout the bloodstream, where they are able to identify and attack foreign substances that may pose a threat to the body.

There are several different types of white blood cells, including lymphocytes, monocytes, neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils, each of which has a specific role in the immune response. By working together, white blood cells help to keep the body healthy and free from infection.

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________ is the normal relationship between the refractive power of the eye and the shape of the eye that enables light rays to focus correctly on the retina.

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Emmetropia is a term used to describe the normal optical state of the eye, where the refractive power of the eye is perfectly matched with its shape, allowing light rays to focus accurately on the retina.

In an emmetropic eye, the cornea and lens work together to refract light, and the distance between the lens and the retina is precisely calibrated for perfect focus. This enables clear vision at all distances without the need for corrective lenses, and individuals with emmetropic eyes are considered to have "normal" vision. However, some individuals may have refractive errors that require glasses, contacts, or surgery to correct.

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The electrons that exit PSII are replenished by electrons from oxidized ____________, which yields oxygen gas that can be used by plant cells or released to the environment.

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The electrons that exit PSIi are replenished by electrons by electrons from oxidised water.

The electrons that yields oxygen gas that can be used by plant cells or released to the environment.

When water is oxidised, oxygen gas is produced that can be consumed by plant cells and discharged into the environment, replenishing the electrons that escape PSII.

Each photosystem is refilled with electrons from a different source after an electron is lost. Water provides electrons to the PSII reaction centre, whereas the PSI reaction centre receives electrons from PSII that travel down an electron transport chain to the PSI reaction centre.

Chlorophyll's PSII reaction centre is excited by light energy and loses one electron as a result (P680). To restore the lost electron, water is oxidised, resulting in the production of H+ ions and oxygen (O-2) ions. Together, these O-2 ions form diatomic O2.

The intersystem electron transfer chain is responsible for transferring electrons from PSII to PSI.

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Select all that are multicellular salivary glands external to the oral cavity.-buccal-parotid-lingual-submandibular-sublingual

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Parotid, submandibular, and sublingual are multicellular salivary glands external to the oral cavity. Buccal and lingual glands are not.

The salivary glands are responsible for producing and secreting saliva, which helps with the digestion process. There are three pairs of major salivary glands in the human body: parotid, submandibular, and sublingual. These glands are all located external to the oral cavity and are responsible for producing most of the saliva that is secreted into the mouth. The buccal and lingual glands, on the other hand, are small glands located inside the mouth and are not considered major salivary glands.

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in a hardy-weinberg population with 2 alleles, a and a, that are in equilibrium, the frequency of allele a is 0.2. what is the frequency of individuals with aa genotype?

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the frequency of individuals with the aa Genotype is 0.04 or 4% in this population.

It is important to note that the Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium is a theoretical model and deviations from it can occur due to various factors such as genetic drift, migration, and natural selection.

In a Hardy-Weinberg population, the frequency of alleles remains constant over time if certain conditions are met. These conditions include random mating, no migration, no mutation, no natural selection, and a large population size.

In this particular population, we know that there are two alleles, a and A. The frequency of allele a is given as 0.2, which means that the frequency of allele A must be 0.8 (since the sum of all allele frequencies must equal 1).

To calculate the frequency of individuals with the aa genotype, we use the Hardy-Weinberg equation: p^2 + 2pq + q^2 = 1, where p is the frequency of allele A, q is the frequency of allele a, and p^2, 2pq, and q^2 represent the frequencies of the AA, Aa, and aa genotypes, respectively.

Substituting in the given values, we get:
(0.8)^2 + 2(0.8)(0.2) + (0.2)^2 = 0.64 + 0.32 + 0.04 = 1

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A researcher is investigating a drug to prevent organ rejection; this drug selectively inhibits helper t cells. how would this help to prevent the rejection of a transplanted organ?

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Helper T cells are a type of immune cell that play a critical role in the immune response by activating other immune cells such as B cells and cytotoxic T cells.

However, in the case of organ transplantation, these immune cells can mistakenly recognize the transplanted organ as foreign and attack it, leading to organ rejection. By selectively inhibiting helper T cells, the drug can reduce the immune response and prevent the activation of other immune cells that would normally attack the transplanted organ. This can help to prevent organ rejection and increase the chances of a successful transplant.

However, inhibiting helper T cells can also increase the risk of infections, as these cells are also important in fighting off pathogens. Therefore, careful monitoring and management of the patient's immune response is necessary when using such a drug.

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A balanced force results when the sum of all forces is and does not cause the object to _____________.

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A balanced force results when the sum of all forces is equal to zero and does not cause the object to accelerate.

What is Acceleration?

Acceleration is the rate of change of velocity with respect to time. Velocity is a vector quantity that describes both the speed and direction of an object's motion, while acceleration describes how quickly the velocity of an object is changing. An object that is accelerating is experiencing a change in velocity, either in terms of its speed, its direction of motion, or both.

In other words, the forces acting on the object are in equilibrium, so there is no net force acting on the object. As a result, the object will either remain at rest or continue moving at a constant velocity (if it was already in motion). This is one of the fundamental principles of Newton's laws of motion, which describe how forces affect the motion of objects.

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Many promoter regions contain CAAT boxes containing consensus sequences CAAT or CCAAT approximately 70 to 80 bases upstream from the transcription start site. How would you determine if this region is important for transcription?
a. Delete the CAAT box sequence and measure the transcription rate.
b. Make mutations in the CAAT box sequence and measure the transcription rate.
c. Introduce extra CAAT box sequences and measure the transcription rate.
d. All of the above would be good ways to determine the influence of CAAT boxes on transcription rate.

Answers

Option D is the correct answer to the following question. Your answer: d. All of the above would be good ways to determine the influence of CAAT boxes on transcription rate.

Option d. All of the above would-be good ways to determine the influence of CAAT boxes on transcription rate. Deleting the CAAT box sequence or making mutations in it can help determine if it is essential for transcription initiation, while introducing extra CAAT box sequences can help determine if they enhance transcription. By measuring the transcription rate after performing these manipulations, we can determine the influence of CAAT boxes on transcription.

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The inferior colliculi are auditory reflex centers of the midbrain. The portion of the adult brain that includes the cerebrum is derived from which secondary brain vesicle?

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The cerebrum, which is the largest and most complex part of the human brain, is derived from the telencephalon, a secondary brain vesicle that forms during the embryonic stage.

The telencephalon undergoes significant growth and development, giving rise to several important structures, including the cerebral cortex, basal ganglia, and limbic system. The cerebral cortex is responsible for many higher cognitive functions, such as perception, memory, attention, and consciousness. The basal ganglia are involved in motor cerebrum control, while the limbic system plays a role in emotion, motivation, and learning. The inferior colliculi, on the other hand, are part of the midbrain, which is derived from the mesencephalon, another secondary brain vesicle that forms during embryonic development. The inferior colliculi are responsible for processing auditory information and coordinating reflexive responses to sound stimuli.

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a study that uses both manipulated (experimental) and measured (non-experimental) variables in a factorial design is called a(n) __________ design.

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A study that uses both manipulated (experimental) and measured (non-experimental) variables in a factorial design is called a(n) mixed factorial.

A review that involves both controlled and estimated factors in a factorial plan is known as a blended plan. In this sort of plan, scientists control at least one free factors while likewise estimating at least one different factors that are not influenced quite a bit by. The factorial part of the plan alludes to the way that scientists can concentrate on the impacts of various free factors and their collaborations on the reliant variable. By utilizing both trial and non-exploratory factors, specialists can acquire a more complete comprehension of the connections among factors and possibly distinguish causal connections between them.

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1. identify four derived characters that all chordates have at some point during their life.

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Characteristics that define chordates: The notochord, the dorsal hollow nerve cord, the pharyngeal slits, and the  tail are four traits that all chordates share.

The phylum Chordata is represented by four derived characters. Even though chordates have a wide range of appearances, they all have a notochord, a dorsal, hollow nerve cord, pharyngeal slits or clefts, and a muscular, tail at some point in their lives. The five distinguishing characteristics of chordates—a notochord, a dorsal hollow tubular nerve cord, pharyngeal slits, an endostyle/thyroid gland, and a tail—are all present at some point in their life cycles.

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what is one result of the bottleneck effect? a. balanced alleles b. disruptive selection c. random mating d. decreased genetic diversity e. heterozygosity

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One result of the bottleneck effect is decreased genetic diversity, as a reduced population size may result in the loss of certain alleles due to random chance, leading to a less diverse gene pool.

What is genetic diversity?

Genetic diversity refers to the variety of genes, alleles, and genetic traits that exist within a population or among different populations of a species. It includes variations in DNA sequences, gene expression, and chromosomal arrangements that occur naturally or as a result of mutations, gene flow, genetic drift, and natural selection. Genetic diversity plays a critical role in the survival and adaptation of species to changing environments, as it provides a wider range of traits and behaviors that can be selected for or against by natural selection. High genetic diversity is generally associated with greater fitness, resilience, and evolutionary potential, while low genetic diversity can increase the risk of inbreeding, genetic disorders, and extinction.

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what is the name of the condition characterized by accumulation of yellowish plaques of cholesterol, lipids, and cellular debris in the inner layers of large- and medium-sized arteries?

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The name of the condition characterized by the accumulation of plaques in the inner layers of arteries is known as Atherosclerosis.

The accumulation of plaque (fatty deposits) in your arteries is referred to as atherosclerosis. These deposits are composed of calcium, fibrin- which is a clotting material in the blood, cellular waste materials, fatty compounds, and cholesterol. The type of disease may vary person to person.

The medical term used to refer to hardening of arteries, usually called as sclerosis, is known as Arteriosclerosis. The wall of the blood artery thickens as plaque accumulates. As a result, the artery's channel narrows and blood flow is reduced. As a result, the body receives fewer oxygen and other nutrients.

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Plantations established to exploit labor and resources in the periphery are geared towardPlantations established to exploit labor and resources in the periphery are geared toward
a. staple crops like corn and potatoes.
b. industrial crops like hemp, flax and sunflowers.
c. high value crops like indigo, sugar and cocoa.
d. mixed fruits and vegetables like tomatoes and apples.
e. both staple crops like corn and potatoes and high value crops like indigo, sugar, and cocoa.

Answers

High value commodities like indigo, sugar, and cocoa are grown on plantations built to take advantage of labour and resources in the periphery. Hence (c) is the correct option.

You will get an understanding of how domesticated plants were created, introduced, and domesticated in this unit. Traditional farmers have created farming techniques that are friendly to the environment, such as crop rotation, mixed farming, and mixed cropping. It demonstrates that several crop species were domesticated in several geocentres. Thoughts on the areas where various crops were domesticated vary.As one of the key resources for sustainable development, the Convention places a high priority on the preservation and responsible use of biological diversity.

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From the short film Some Animals Are More Equal Than Others: Trophic Cascades and Keystone Species: The marine animal that preyed upon sea otters, creating a trophic cascade, was a great white shark, Carcharodon carcharias.
A. True
B. False

Answers

The given statement "the marine animal that preyed upon sea otters, creating a trophic cascade, was a great white shark, Carcharodon carcharias" is false because sea urchin was the marine animal that preyed upon sea otters.

From the short film Some Animals Are More Equal Than Others: the marine animal that preyed upon sea otters and created a trophic cascade was actually the sea urchin. When sea otter populations were reduced, the sea urchin population increased, leading to the decline of kelp forests and impacting the entire ecosystem.

The sea otter is a keystone species that controls the sea urchin population, and when sea otter populations decline, the sea urchin population increases, leading to a trophic cascade that affects the entire ecosystem.

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Margaret Oakley Dayhoff originated the idea of protein superfamilies after noticing that proteins with diverse amino acid sequences have similar tertiary structures. Why can protein structures be more highly conserved than individual amino acid sequences? A. Many different amino acid sequences can give rise to similar protein structures. B. The amino acid sequence of a protein is not related to the structure of the protein. C. Dysfunctional proteins primarily arise from changes to amino acid sequence, not changes to protein structure. D. Changes to protein structure occur independently of changes to the amino acid sequence.

Answers

The protein structures be more highly conserved than individual amino acid sequences because A. Many different amino acid sequences can give rise to similar protein structures.

Margaret Oakley Dayhoff observed that even though proteins may have diverse amino acid sequences, they can still have similar tertiary structures, this led to her proposal of protein superfamilies. The reason for this phenomenon is that protein structures can be more highly conserved than individual amino acid sequences due to the fact that many different amino acid sequences can give rise to similar protein structures.

Protein structure is dependent on the arrangement of amino acids and how they interact with each other. Therefore, even if the amino acid sequence changes, the overall structure may still remain similar. On the other hand, changes to the protein structure can lead to dysfunctional proteins, but these changes are not always related to changes in the amino acid sequence.  In summary, protein structures can be more highly conserved than individual amino acid sequences because many different amino acid sequences can give rise to similar protein structures.

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george is aware that he is dying, but has been thinking that if he follows all the doctor's orders, maybe god will let him live until his son's wedding. he has entered which of the stages of dying? sakari is afraid of clowns. she has been trying to overcome this fear by getting into a very relaxed state and then going to the circus. after month of this exposure, she is no longer afraid when se sees a clown. what ani-phobia treatment is this action similar to? a certain lightning bolt moves q = 99 c of charge. how many fundamental units of charge e is this? many beetles have developed characteristics that allow them to live with ants. what are these characteristics likely to be derived from Scientists used two sets of mustard seeds to study changes due to environmental conditions. One set of seeds wasproduced during a severe drought. The other set was produced during normal rainfall conditions.Part AWhen the two sets of seeds were grown together, the plants grown from the set of seeds produced during droughtconditions formed flowers much earlier than the plants grown from the other set. Which conclusion is supported bythese results?Part A Drought can affect future generations of some plant populations.Drought can benefit plants that produce flowers.Normal rainfall damages the roots of flowering plants.Normal rainfall reduces reproduction of plant populations.Part B( in the picture ) the emergence of the green movement has affected businesses by blank . multiple choice question. reducing regulations about labeling clarifying what green means offering consumers more product choices reducing most costs Companies recognize fixed manufacturing overhead costs as period costs (expenses) when incurred when usinga. product costing. b, variable costing. c. absorption costing. d. full costing. ecuador does not have its own currency. it uses the dollar as its official currency. this type of arrangement is known as:A.a quotaB.soft pegC.hard pegD.Ecuadorian agreementE.floating suppose that the 13th term of an arithmetic sequence is 46 and the fourth term is 100. find the expression for the general term. The demand curve for (pairs of) fancy leather shoes in a small island nation is given by Qp = 2000 4P The aggregate supply curve of the domestic manufacturers of fancy leather shoes is Qs = 6P a. What is the equilibrium price and quantity? Suppose the government allows foreign manufacturers to sell shoes in the country, and that the price in the world market is $140. The country can buy as many pairs of shoes as it wants at this price, being too small to influence it (by purchasing different amounts, that is). b. What would be the new price for pairs of shoes in the country? At this price, how many pairs of shoes would be produced domestically, and how many would be imported? C. Compute the corresponding domestic consumer surplus and domestic producer surplus. 30/50traffic congestion is a common example of a negative externality. in principle, it should be possible for drivers to negotiate the right to drive at particular times, thereby compensating those who would prefer not to drive at peak times and solving the externality. the most likely reason these negotiations do not occur is that: Stoplight A changes every 60 seconds and stoplight B changes color every 75 seconds. Both stoplights changed color 30 seconds ago. After how many seconds will the stoplights change color at the same time again. The interest accrued on $5,500 at 8% for 45 days is (Use 360 days a year. Do not round intermediate calculations):a. $44.b. $51.c. $220.d. $513.e. $55. at what quantity would a purely competitive firm cover all of its costs and earn only normal profits? q 5. A website administrator is considering using one of the two models above to predict thetotal number of purchases, P, made x weeks after the website's advertising campaignbegins. How many more purchases are predicted by the exponential model than by thelinear model 5 weeks after the advertising campaign begins?P = 2,000xP = 500(2) What disease has presented new and more difficult problems to the public health system in recent years because of the development of drug-resistant strains of the bacteria?A) SyphilisB) SmallpoxC) TuberculosisD) Pneumonia you are valuing a water utility company. you expect the stock to pay a dividend of $2 at the end of every year forever. what is the value of the stock? assume an interest rate of 8%. enter your answer in dollars rounded to 2 decimal places the central process for resolving the crisis of trust vs. mistrust in infancy is Why are fermentation tubes evaluated at 24 and 48 hours? PLEASE HELP ME I WILL FOREVER LOVE YOUTim's pay was $250, and Rita's pay was $370. Timalso earned $36 per package, and Rita also earned $28per package. How many packages will they have todeliver to earn the same amount?