A region of a dna strand (or a sequence of nucleotides) that codes for a particular protein (form of a trait) is called a coding region.
The coding region of a gene, also called the coding sequence (CDS), is the portion of the gene's DNA or RNA that encodes a protein.
The coding region of a gene is the part of the gene that is ultimately transcribed and translated into protein.Sum of its exons. The remainder of the gene is dotted with introns or regions that are clipped and ejected during RNA splicing.
The code for each gene uses four nucleotide bases of DNA.
Adenine (A), Cytosine (C), Guanine (G), and Thymine (T) - different ways to spell the three-letter "codon" that indicates which amino acid is required at each position in the protein.
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elizabeth knows her blood type is a, but andy does not know his blood type. however, andy knows that his mother and father both had type a blood. elizabeth and andy's first child is a boy with type o blood. based on this information, andy's blood type could be .
Andy's blood group might be A (Heterozygous [tex]I^{A} I^{O}[/tex]) or O ( Homozygous
[tex]I^{A} I^{O}[/tex]).
Which blood type has the best health?The risk of developing heart disease is lowest in people with type O blood, out of the eight major blood types. The greatest risk is associated with blood types AB and B, which may be due to higher rates of inflammation in these blood types. For those with blood types AB and B, maintaining a heart-healthy lifestyle is especially crucial.
The rarest blood types are: B negative(B -ve), which is found in 1.5 percent of the total population. AB negative(AB -ve), which is found in 0.6 percent of the total population. AB positive(AB +ve), which is found in 3.4 percent of the total population.
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How does smoking damage the lungs GCSE?.
Smoking harms the bronchioles and can eventually cause the loss of many lung alveoli.
The lining of arteries, notably the coronary arteries, is harmed by smoking. The injury promotes fatty material accumulation in the arteries. An attack on the heart or stroke may result from this. The amount of oxygen that the blood can carry is decreased by the inhalation of carbon monoxide found in cigarette smoke. Smoking cigarettes causes the heart to work harder because nicotine speeds up heart rate. It is possible for someone to get illnesses like emphysema. mucus, which typically traps particles in the lungs, builds up when the airways swell. Mucus is frequently infected, and injured alveoli lose some of their flexibility and surface area.
Hence, smoking is injurious to health.
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which answer choice correctly matches the horizon name with its composition? elimination tool select one answer a e horizon - this is called the bedrock layer. this is the parent material for the soil. b c horizon - this layer contains some mineral components with a large amount of organic material. c a horizon - this is called the topsoil. this is where seeds germinate, and worms and nematodes are likely to live. d b horizon - this is called the organic layer. this is where dead leaves and other detritus accumulate and form a nutrient rich layer. this incorporates into the soil as substances are broken down through decomposition and are carried into the soil.
The bedrock layer is located at the e horizon. This is the soil's original constituent material. A layer of mineral or organic soil material that is roughly parallel to the land surface is known as a soil horizon.
Which of the following statements most accurately sums up the makeup of the Earth's atmosphere?About 78% of the gases in the Earth's atmosphere are nitrogen, 21% are oxygen, 0.9 % are argon, and 0.1 % are other gases. trace amounts of water, methane, and carbon dioxide
Which of the following statements most accurately sums up an upwelling's water?Which of the following statements is accurate regarding the waters in an upwelling area. This region is chilly and nutrient-rich because, periodically (often in the spring), water from the body's bottom is pulled up to mingle with the surface water.
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which of the following does not introduce dna into a bacterial cell? multiple choice transcription conjugation transduction transformation all of these introduce dna into a cell.
a)Transcription is not used to introduce DNA into a bacterial cell.
Bacterial transcription is the process by which the RNA polymerase enzyme copies a section of bacterial DNA into a freshly generated strand of messenger RNA (mRNA).
There are various ways that bacterial transcription is different from eukaryotic transcription. While transcription and translation can both happen at the same time in bacteria, in eukaryotes, transcription takes place in the nucleus and translation happens in the cytoplasm. [14] In contrast to the three varieties seen in eukaryotes, bacteria have just one type of RNA polymerase.
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mitosis is most similar to because in both stages, . choose one: a. meiosis i, sister chromatids separate. b. meiosis ii, homologous chromosomes separate. c. meiosis i, homologous chromosomes separate. d. meiosis ii, sister chromatids separate.
Sister chromatids separate in both stages, making meiosis II and mitosis most similar to one another. Sister chromatids split during meiosis II and mitosis.
What other cell cycle is most like mitosis?As opposed to meiosis I, where the chiasma connecting two homologous chromosomes lines up on the metaphasal equator, meiosis II aligns the centromere between two sister chromatids on the equator.
DNA duplication occurs during both meiosis and mitosis in a cell. Each chromosome, or strand of DNA, is replicated and kept connected, creating two sister chromatids for each chromosome. Meiosis and mitosis both aim to divide the nucleus and its DNA content between two daughter cells.
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After gel electrophoresis is complete for a crime scene sample, what must be done in order to analyze the results?.
Answer: After the electrophoresis is complete, REMOVE the gel and casting tray from the electrophoresis chamber and VISUALIZE the results. No staining is necessary.
when celular respiration occurs in an organism the organism breathes in oxygen which is converted to
By oxidizing an electron donor and reducing oxygen, cellular respiration is an oxidative process that creates carbon dioxide, water, and energy.
Where does cellular respiration occur throughout organisms?While the majority of the cell's anaerobic (oxygen-free) and aerobic (oxygen-containing) respiration takes place in its cytoplasm and mitochondria, respectively.
Cellular respiration takes place where?Because they produce the majority of a cell's ATP, mitochondria are frequently referred to as the "powerhouses" of the cell and are where cellular respiration occurs. By dividing glucose into two molecules with three carbons each, glycolysis creates two molecules of ATP. In the cytoplasm of a cell, glycolysis takes place without the requirement for oxygen.
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which one of the following cells are the product of meiosis? group of answer choices bacterial cells blood stem cells sperm cells liver cells all of thesea) sperm cellsb) liver cellsc) red blood cellsd) all of the above
sperm cells are the product of meiosis whereas liver cells, red blood cells are the product if mitosis.
What is meiosis?In sexually reproducing organisms, meiosis is the process of a unique type of cell division of germ cells that results in the production of gametes, such as sperm or egg cells. Two rounds of division are necessary, and the end product is four cells with just one copy of each chromosome.
What is mitosis?Chromosomes that have been duplicated are divided into two new nuclei during the cell cycle phase known as mitosis. Mitosis, the process of cell division, creates genetically identical cells with a constant number of chromosomes. Thus, equational division is another name for mitosis.
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The definition of a ______ is a population whose members can interbreed and produce fertile offspring.
A species is a group of organisms that have the ability to interbreed or mate with one another and produce viable, fertile offspring.
What are Species?
A species is a members of populations that actually or potentially interbreed in nature, not on the basis of physical similarity.
The concept of biological species is widely used in biology and related fields of study. There are over 20 different species concepts.
The designation of species stems from taxonomy, where the species is recognized as the fundamental unit of classification by the International Commission of Zoological Nomenclature.
Every species is given a standard two-part name consisting of genus and species. The genus is the generic name for closely related species; for example, the gray wolf is classified as Canis lupus and is a close relative of the North American coyote.
Organisms are classified into species based on morphological, or external, similarities, but the ability of sexually reproducing organisms to successfully interbreed is more important.
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A typical human cell expresses about what portion of its protein-coding genes at any given time?.
A typical human cell expresses about 20% portion of its protein-coding genes at any given time.
What are Protein-coding genes ?DNA sequences that are translated into mRNA and from which the appropriate mRNA molecules are translated into polypeptide chains are known as protein-coding sequences. In a protein coding sequence, known as a codon, one amino acid in the polypeptide chain is encoded every three nucleotides.
The bulk of RNA sequences come from protein-coding genes, according to the conventional theory. They are translated into messenger RNAs (mRNAs), which are then exported to the cytoplasm and translated into proteins.
In mRNA, each trio of nucleotides is referred to as a codon, and each codon designates a specific amino acid (hence, it is a triplet code). Thus, the chain of amino acids that makes up a protein is assembled in order using the mRNA sequence as a template.
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downy hair similar to peach fuzz that grows on the body to counteract the heat loss associated with a lack of insulating subcutaneous fat is/are called: group of answer choices endorphins lanugo amenorrhea hypothyroidism
Lanugo is called downy hair similar to peach fuzz that grows on the body to counteract the heat loss associated with a lack of insulating subcutaneous fat develops by the end of 16 weeks of the fetus's development.
Some babies have lanugo, which is body hair. The earliest type of hair to emerge from hair follicles is this unpigmented, downy hair. Except for the palms, lips, and bottoms of the feet, it can be found everywhere over a baby's body. Around the fourth or fifth month of pregnancy, most fetuses start to develop lanugo.
On the bodies of human embryos as they develop in the womb, lanugo, a type of fine hair, grows. When vellus hairs take their place, either at birth or soon after, these hairs vanish. Although thicker than lanugo hairs, vellus hairs are also naturally thin and translucent.
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All of the following cell components are found in prokaryotic cells EXCEPT
a. DNA
b. ribosomes
c. cell membrane
d. nuclear envelope
e. enzymes
d. nuclear envelope
With the exception of the nuclear envelope, prokaryotic cells have all of the following cell components.
What cellular elements are found in all prokaryotic cells?All prokaryotes lack membrane-bound organelles but do have cytoplasm, ribosomes, a cell wall, and DNA. Polysaccharide capsules are also common. Diameters of prokaryotic cells range from 0.1 to 5.0 m.
Are prokaryotic cells DNA-based?A free-floating, typically circular chromosome that is not protected by a nuclear membrane is seen in prokaryotic organisms, including bacteria. The nucleoid, a part of the cell, is where the DNA merely resides. Only prokaryotic cells have mesosomes, which are folded portions of the plasma membrane.
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Answer:
Nuclear envelope
Explanation:
Simpler answer to the one above.↑↑↑
What type of point mutations result in a frameshift mutation?.
Either the insertion or deletion of one or more additional nucleotides results in a frameshift mutation.
Any mRNA generated from a mutant DNA sequence will be read out of frame after the location of the insertion or deletion since the reading frame starts at the start site, resulting in a nonsense protein.
Frameshift mutations, which alter the ribosome reading frame and induce premature translation termination at a new nonsense or chain termination codon, are deletions or additions of 1, 2, or 4 nucleotides (TAA, TAG, and TGA). Similar to point mutations, insertions, deletions, and deletions can all result in nonsense codon alterations that obstruct translation. Most frequently, chain termination mutations cause a shorter, frequently unstable, and quickly degrading -mRNA.
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1 eq br2 acetic acid draw the structure(s) of the major organic product(s) of the following reaction.
Br2 = +1 eq. acetic acid. The concept of stereochemistry is not required. Draw each significant product that is conceivable, if there are any. For each of the following reactions, identify the main organic product. (Minor or inorganic side products don't necessarily need to be drawn.) Br2. Br + NaOH + hv.
What does food acetic acid do?Vinegar, which includes 4 to 18% acetic acid, is primarily made up of acetic acid. It serves as a food ingredient and preservative (known as E260)
What are the adverse effects of acetic acid?The most frequent adverse reactions to acetic acid are moderate stinging or burning at first use.
Serious adverse reactions from acetic acid can include hives, breathing problems, and facial swelling.
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What hormone is responsible for the fight or flight response in the alarm stage of a stress response?.
Answer: The correct answer is adrenaline.
Explanation: I hope this helps!!! : D
What is the relationship between meiosis and genetic variation?.
The relationship between these two is Genetic variation is increased by meiosis.
I hope this helps!!!
plasmids containing which combination of operator and promoter allow activation of gene expression in response to an added metabolite?
By turning on the so-called transcription factors, a class of DNA-binding proteins, signal transduction starts the transcription process.
The pace at which a gene is transcribed—the process by which RNA polymerase creates a messenger RNA—controls the majority of a gene's activity.
Which two procedures impact gene expression?The two main procedures are transcription and translation. Gene expression is the result of both transcription and translation. The information contained in a gene's DNA is transferred to RNA (ribonucleic acid), a molecule comparable to DNA, in the cell nucleus during transcription.
Activators of transcription factors increase a gene's transcription. Transcriptional activity is suppressed. A gene can be turned on in particular body regions via clusters of enhancers, or transcription factor binding sites.
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All of the following are functions of smooth muscles except:a. Heartbeatb. Breathingc. Perspirationd. Digestion please select the best answer from the choices provided. Abcd.
They evolve the control of the following functions breathing, digestion, perspiration, and urination. So option A heartbeat does not belong to this group.
Digestion is the breakdown of large insoluble food molecules into small water-soluble food molecules so that they can be absorbed into the watery blood plasma. In certain organisms, these smaller substances are absorbed through the small intestine into the bloodstream.
Digestion is the breakdown of large insoluble food molecules into small water-soluble food molecules so that they can be absorbed into the watery blood plasma. In certain organisms, these smaller substances are absorbed through the small intestine into the bloodstream.
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If transcription and translation were not coupled in bacteria, what type of regulation would be affected?.
Attenuative gene regulation would not be conceivable in bacteria if transcription and translation were not linked. By attaching to it, a certain protein (a repressor) can stop transcription from occurring.
If transcription and translation were not connected in bacteria, gene control through attenuation would not occur.
Premature transcription termination is caused by attenuation, a suggested mechanism of regulation in some bacterial operons. In conditions of high tryptophan, attenuation is a process that also decreases the expression of the trp operon.
The physical separation of the chromosomal DNA from the cytosolic environment in the absence of the nuclear membrane, however, can lead to the idea that transcription and translation in bacteria and archaea are temporally connected.
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the proccess of meiosis produces: question 2 options: 2 genetically identical daughter cells 4 genetically identical daughter cells 2 geneticall different daughter cells 4 genetically different daughter cells
Chromosomes cross across during prophase 1 of meiosis. The four daughter cells that are produced at the conclusion of meiosis are genetically different as a result of this process.
In meiosis, are there two or four daughter cells?Two identical daughter cells are produced during mitosis, and both of these cells have the same amount of chromosomes as their parent cell. But during meiosis, four distinct daughter cells are produced, each of which contains half as many chromosomes as the parent cell.
What is the result of meiosis?Meiosis is a type of cell division that results in the formation of four gamete cells and a halving of the parent cell's chromosome count. In order to reproduce sexually, egg and sperm cells must be produced.
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although social groups vary tremendously (e.g., families, sororities, sports teams, religious congregations), they are all alike in that .members share the same space at the same timeactions are guided by normsthey tend to be heterogeneousthey convey competitive advantage
Even while social groupings (such as family, sorority, sports teams, and religious congregations) differ greatly from one another, all of their behaviors are governed by standards.
Deindividuation & social loafing both refer to the spreading of responsibility, which is one element they have in common. The definition of a social family by social psychologists as a family of interdependent people implies that group members have an impact on one another. Social facilitation & social loafing are two instances of how the company of others affects our actions. Propinquity become used to via simple exposure. If something is similar, it will also appear similar. Reciprocal Liking: We often become used to the individuals we like and begin to know. In addition to assisting us in defining who we are, groups serve as a source for social standards that establish what is appropriate.
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true or false? changes in our diet are accompanied by changes in the composition of our gut microbes, suggesting that our microbial populations are influenced by both environmental and genetic factors.
As stated in the above sentence, "changes in our food are accompanied by changes in the composition of our gut bacteria, demonstrating that our microbial populations are influenced by both environmental and genetic variables" is true.
Gut Microbiota:Numerous pieces of evidence point to the gut microbiota's potential role in the emergence of obesity and its related comorbidities. It has been noted that the gut microbiota of obese and lean individuals differs, indicating that microbiome dysbiosis may be a factor in changes in body weight. Uncertainty exists regarding the exact processes by which the gut bacteria contributes to energy balance. Different dietary and lifestyle choices can have a beneficial or detrimental impact on the gut microbiota. It's interesting to note that complicated connections between nutrition, gut flora, and genetic makeup have also been linked to the likelihood of acquiring obesity and metabolic syndrome symptoms. Additionally, microbial metabolites have the ability to cause epigenetic alterations (such as adjustments to micro-RNA expression and DNA methylation), which may have an impact on one's health and susceptibility to obesity.
Additionally, microbial byproducts such membrane proteins or short-chain fatty acids may influence host metabolism by controlling hunger, lipogenesis, gluconeogenesis, inflammation, and other processes. In order to find new postbiotics with biological activity in the host and identify new targets and tools for inclusion in individualized therapeutics, metabolomic methods are being explored.
Therefore, Our gut microorganisms' makeup fluctuates along with changes in our food, indicating that environmental and genetic variables affect our microbial populations.
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Hom many chromoome would each new cell have after a human body cell divide by mitoi? i the new cell haploid or diploid
In humans, mitosis often results in two diploid cells. Since a diploid cell has both sets of homologous chromosomes, each of the two produced cells has the identical set of chromosomes as the parent.
The cell has two 46-chromosome groups when mitosis is finished, each encased in its own nuclear membrane. The cell then divides in two by a process known as cytokinesis, producing two clones of the original cell, each with 46 monovalent chromosomes.
A typical diploid human cell has 23 pairs of chromosomes, for a total of 46 chromosomes, half of which are of paternal and maternal descent. Haploid gametes with a single set of 23 chromosomes are created during meiosis.
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some pathogens, such as hiv, can be transmitted both vertically and horizontally. how do you expect their virulence to compare with that of pathogens that are transmitted only horizontally or only vertically?
Some pathogens are transmitted by a single route and others by several, the more transmission routes are recorded, the more pathogens they are, in the HIV virus the transmission is vertical and horizontal therefore it has high pathogenicity, on the other hand, the varicella virus is transmitted only by inhalation.
What do you mean by HIV?
HIV is the virus that causes AIDS. It damages your immune system, making it easier for you to get sick. HIV is spread during sex, but condoms can help protect you.
HIV stands for Human Immunodeficiency Virus. It’s a virus that breaks down certain cells in your immune system (your body’s defense against diseases that helps you stay healthy). When HIV damages your immune system, it’s easier to get really sick and even die from infections that your body could normally fight off.
This is because, The vertical route is the transmission through childbirth, it is the moment in which the mother contacts the child's blood and transmits the virus, nowadays the vertical contagion of HIV is highly controlled.
On the other hand, the horizontal route is also called parenteral, it is one that consists of the inoculation of the virus through uncontrolled blood transfusions, intravenous drug addiction by syringe compartment, or uncontrolled injections.
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for the following question. match the valve of the heart with its anatomical location for auscultation.
Aortic: Right sternal boundary, second intercostal gap
Pulmonic: Left sternal boundary, second intercostal gap
Tricuspid: Lower left sternal boundary, fourth-fifth intercostal space
Mitral: Fifth intercostal space left midclavicular line
What is Auscultation?
Auscultation, which derives from the Latin verb auscultate, meaning "to listen," involves listening to bodily sounds internally while typically using a stethoscope. Auscultation is a procedure used to examine the alimentary canal as well as the respiratory and circulatory systems (heart and breath sounds).
A fine stethoscope, good listening abilities, and a lot of clinical expertise are necessary for auscultation. The heart, lungs, and gastrointestinal system are the three main organs and organ systems that healthcare professionals (doctors, nurses, etc.) listen to during auscultation.
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the arteries that branch from the aorta and provide oxygenated blood to the heart muscle itself are arteries. the arteries that branch from the aorta and provide oxygenated blood to the heart muscle itself are arteries. pulmonary capillary coronary systemic
Blood is delivered to your heart through the right and
left coronary arteries. They are the first arteries to branch off your body's major artery, the aorta.
Your heart muscle is surrounded by and contains your coronary arteries. They diverge from your aorta, the principal artery in your body. They begin at the aortic root, which is the first section of your aorta to leave your heart's left ventricle. Your heart's left ventricle is where oxygenated blood exits and begins to travel through your body. Your aorta has many branches, the coronary artery branches being the first.
cardiovascular artery anatomy
Two coronary arteries exist, and each has a number of branches:RCA: Right coronary artery Blood is delivered to your right atrium and right ventricle by the RCA (where deoxygenated blood goes before heading to the lungs). Its branches feed the atrioventricular (AV) and sinoatrial (SA) nodes.
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in living organisms, atp is the most commonly used practical form of energy. review your knowledge of the structure of atp by analyzing its components.
The most prevalent energy-carrying molecule in your body is ATP, which uses the chemical energy contained in food molecules to fuel work.
What word best defines organisms that oxidize to produce energy?Chemotrophs are living things that get their energy from the oxidation of environmental electron sources. Chemoautotrophs use inorganic energy sources to transform carbon dioxide into organic compounds. Chemoheterotrophs cannot utilise carbon dioxide to make their own organic compounds.
What provides all living things with their primary energy?The Sun is the main source of energy for all living things and the ecosystems they are a part of. Producers like plants, algae, and cyanobacteria use solar energy to transform carbon dioxide and water into organic matter. This establishes the beginning of energy transmission in almost all food webs.
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Does mitosis help with cancer?.
Cancer is a complex and heterogeneous disease. However, it is generally accepted that mitosis, or the process of cell division, plays an important role in the development and progression of cancer.
Mitosis is a critical process for the growth and development of all tissues and organs in the body. In cancer, this process is dysregulated, leading to the uncontrolled growth and spread of cancer cells.
There is evidence to suggest that mitosis is involved in the initiation of cancer, as well as its progression and metastasis. For example, cancer cells typically have a higher rate of cell division than normal cells. This means that they are more likely to accumulate DNA mutations, which can lead to the development of cancer.
In addition, cancer cells often hijack the normal process of cell division to their own advantage. For instance, they may use mitosis to rapidly divide and spread throughout the body.
Ultimately, the role of mitosis in cancer is complex and still not fully understood. However, it is clear that this process plays a significant role in the development and progression of the disease.
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Consider this animal cell. Which organelles are labeled g? centrioles lysosomes ribosomes mitochondria.
Animal cells are eukaryotic cells that do not have a cell wall. In labeled animal cell diagrams, G is mitochondria. So variant d is correct.
The image with the missing annotations is attached below.
What is mitochondria? Mitochondria are the major organelles of animal and plant cells, have membranes and are responsible for producing the energy needed to power cellular functions.
Biochemical reactions and processes take place in mitochondria. Mitochondria produce energy in the form of ATP and are tiny finger-like structures in the cytoplasm of cells.
Therefore, the marked organelle is option d. Mitochondria.
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Answer: D)mitochondria
Explanation: i just completed this and got 100%....Hope this helps and ty to the person above!
proteins are made up of 20 different amino acids. how many fewer amino acids would have to be used in order to have the genetic code be made up of two-letter words?
The gene that codes for the enzyme required to produce the next intermediate in the pathway is deleted. Proteins are made up of 20 different amino acids.
The genetic code contains 61 codons that specify twenty amino acids. Remember that the initiation codon is always AUG and the three stop codons are UAA, UGA, and UAG.
Each group of three consecutive nucleotides in RNA is called a codon, and each codon specifies an amino acid or a stop in the translation process. How many nucleotides are needed to code for a 450 amino acid protein? At least 1,350. In many cases, more than one codon codes for the same amino acid. Because amino acids can be arranged in many different combinations, it is possible for your body to make thousands of different types of protein from the same 21 amino acids.
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