March had the highest delinquency rate of 9.7%, making it the month with the most serious record delinquency problem.
March with a delinquency rate of 9.7%.March had the highest delinquency rate of 9.7%, which was significantly higher than the other months in the table. This indicates a more serious record delinquency problem in March than in the other months, and suggests that lenders should take extra care when issuing loans during this time.
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which information would the nurse provide a client with diabetes mellitus (dm) regarding alcohol consumption? before meals
The nurse would advise the client with diabetes mellitus (DM) to limit alcohol consumption, especially before meals.
What is Diabetes mellitus?Diabetes Mellitus (DM) is a chronic metabolic disorder characterized by high levels of glucose (sugar) in the blood. This is caused by the body's inability to produce enough insulin, or the inability of the cells to effectively use the insulin produced. There are two main types of diabetes, type 1 and type 2.
Type 1 diabetes typically develops in childhood and requires daily insulin injections, while type 2 diabetes is more common in adulthood and is often managed through lifestyle changes such as diet and exercise, along with medication. Both types of diabetes can lead to serious health complications, such as heart disease, kidney failure, blindness, and neuropathy, if not properly managed. Treatment and management of diabetes involves monitoring blood glucose levels, following a healthy diet, getting regular physical activity, and taking medication as prescribed by a healthcare provider.
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a nurse teaches a group of nursing students about nurse practice acts. which information is most important to include in the teaching session about nurse practice acts?
Nurse practice acts need to be taught with emphasis on definition, licensure, and standards of practice, ethics, legal responsibilities, and penalties.
Nurse practice acts govern the scope of nursing practice and provide a basis for the standards of practice, ethical considerations, and legal responsibilities of nurses. It is important to include information about the requirements for licensure and how to maintain a license, as well as any penalties for violating the nurse practice act and procedures for filing complaints. Understanding the nurse practice act is essential for nurses to provide safe and effective care.
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several patients that have been involved in a bombing are unlikely to survive. what priority are these patients given during triage?
Several patients that have been involved in a bombing are unlikely to survive. Priority 4 are these patients given during triage.
Priority 4 (black) triage category "Expectant" is used for patients with severe injuries who are unlikely to survive even with treatment that is effective, such as unresponsive patients with penetrating head wounds, severe spinal cord injuries, and wounds affecting numerous anatomic sites and organs. Although there is a lot of room for interpretation and multiple ideas of the Hippocratic oath's nature at once, triage always adheres to the modern understanding of it. A shattered bone certainly counts for less than uncontrolled arterial bleeding, which is likely to result in death; the most established ideas and practical scoring systems utilised in this originate from the field of acute physical trauma in an emergency department scenario.
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Complete Question is:
Several patients that have been involved in a bombing are unlikely to survive. What priority are these patients given during triage?
a) Priority 3
b) Priority 4
c) Priority 1
d) Priority 2
which intervention would the nurse include in the plan of care for a client admitted with herpes zoster? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct. acyclovir
The interventions that a nurse would include in the care plan of a client with herpes zoster are wet compresses, contact isolation, silvadene, acyclovir, and gabapentin.
Herpes zoster, also known as shingles, is a disease caused by a virus that is characterized by a skin rash with blisters that appear in a localized area on the skin. The virus that causes this disease is the varicella-zoster virus (VZV), the same virus that also may cause chickenpox.
The symptoms that appear with this disease are fever, headache, and malaise. After a while, these symptoms are followed by itching, oversensitivity, the feeling of burning pain, tingling, or even numbness. The pain can be mild to severe.
Attached below is an image of shingles that appears around the base of a person's neck.
Your question seems incomplete. The completed version is most likely as follows:
Which intervention would the nurse include in the plan of care for a client admitted with herpes zoster? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct.
A. Acyclovir
B. Silvadene
C. Gabapentin
D. Wet compresses
E. Contact isolation
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Major nutrition organizations put together a list of red flags that signal poor nutrition advice. These include which of the following?-Recommendations based on a single study-Claims that sound too good to be true-Recommendations that promise a quick fix
The list of red flags signaling poor nutrition advice put together by major nutrition organizations is: (1) Recommendations based on a single study; (2) Claims that sound too good to be true; (4) Recommendations that promise a quick fix.
Nutrition is the presence of all the major nutrients in the diet an individual consumes. A food is said tp be nutritious if it fulfils the body's demand of nutrients and does not act as junk inside the body. The requirement of certain nutrient differs in every individual.
Nutrition organizations are the part of healthcare system who functions to develop the health standards for people by counseling, evaluating and examining several factors like disease, food products, etc. These organizations may be private or run by the government of the country.
The given question is incomplete, the complete question is:
Major nutrition organizations put together a list of red flags that signal poor nutrition advice. These include which of the following?
Recommendations based on a single studyClaims that sound too good to be trueRecommendations made after referring several studies.Recommendations that promise a quick fixTo know more about nutrition organizations, here
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Which test result would be normal in a patient with dysfibrinogenemia?
A. Thrombin time
B. APTT
C. PT
D. Immunologic fibrinogen level
B. APTT test result would be normal in a patient with dysfibrinogenemia.
APTT (Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time) is a test that measures the time it takes for a blood clot to form in a sample of citrated plasma after an activator (such as partial thromboplastin) has been added.
The APTT test provides an indication of the extrinsic and common pathway of coagulation and is sensitive to deficiencies in factors VIII, IX, XI and XII.
In dysfibrinogenemia, a fibrinogen dysfunction results in decreased fibrin formation, which increases APTT. Therefore, a normal APTT result would suggest that the extrinsic and common pathway is functioning normally in a patient with dysfibrinogenemia.
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the nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with diabetes. the family of the patient asks the nurse for resources about this chronic illness. what should the nurse do? the nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with diabetes. the family of the patient asks the nurse for resources about this chronic illness. what should the nurse do? inform them that few options are cu
Providing the family with the information is the primary work of the nurse. Long-lasting disorders known as chronic diseases can typically be managed but not cured.
What symptoms indicate a chronic illness?Although they can also cause subtle symptoms like pain, exhaustion, and mood issues, chronic illnesses can cause symptoms specific to the disease itself. Your day can start to include pain and exhaustion rather frequently. You undoubtedly have certain self-care obligations in addition to your disease, such as taking medication or exercising.
Is depression a long-term illness?The recurrent and chronic nature of depression has come into greater prominence in theory and research during the last few decades. Studying these recurrent and chronic forms of depression is crucial since they can be the main contributors to the disorder's burden.
What should the nurse do after the examination is finished?This can help prevent delays and confusion. The nurse should take brief notes throughout the assessment and complete longer notes after the conclusion of the visit.
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sandra wants to improve her body composition. four of her friends have given her advice. analyze the sentences to determine which friend gave her the best piece of advice? a. sanchez told her to take diet pills and to eat less than 1,000 calories a day. b. john says to eat several, balanced, low-calorie meals throughout the day and to exercise regularly. c. laurie says to eat only fruits and vegetables and to exercise regularly. d. shelia told her to eat whatever she wants as long as she exercises five days a week for 60 minutes./328034555/determining-and-controlling-body-composition-flash-cards/
The sentence that determines which friend gave her the best piece of advice is b) john says to eat several, balanced, low-calorie meals throughout the day and to exercise regularly.
A balanced diet is a type of eating pattern that includes a variety of foods from all the food groups in the right amounts. A balanced diet typically includes:
Fruits and vegetablesWhole grainsProteins such as lean meats, poultry, fish, legumes, and tofuLow-fat dairy productsNuts, seeds, and healthy oils.The goal of a balanced diet is to provide the body with the nutrients it needs to function properly while maintaining a healthy weight.
Therefore, The sentence that determines which friend gave her the best piece of advice is b) john says to eat several, balanced, low-calorie meals throughout the day and to exercise regularly.
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Which intervention would the nurse include in the plan of care for a client after total hip replacement?
The nurse will include several interventions in the plan of care for a client after total hip replacement, including pain management, mobility and physical therapy, wound care, and patient education.
Pain management: It is common for patients to experience pain after total hip replacement surgery. The nurse will develop a plan to manage the patient's pain using various methods such as medications, ice, and heat therapy. The nurse will also monitor the patient's pain levels regularly and adjust the pain management plan as needed.
Mobility and physical therapy: After total hip replacement, the patient needs to start moving and walking as soon as possible to prevent stiffness and help with the healing process. The nurse will work with a physical therapist to develop an individualized plan for the patient, which may include exercises, gait training, and the use of assistive devices.
Wound care: The nurse will also monitor the patient's surgical incision site and check for any signs of infection. They will teach the patient how to properly clean and dress the wound, and provide instructions on when to return to the doctor for follow-up care.
Patient education: The nurse will provide the patient with information about what to expect during the recovery process, including the expected timeline for healing, and any limitations or restrictions on activities. They will also provide instruction on how to care for the surgical site and how to prevent complications.
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a licensed practical nurse reinforces information to a client with peripheral vascular disease about ways to limit the disease progression. which measures does the nurse tell the client to take
As a licensed practical nurse, it is my job to inform clients on ways to limit the progression of their peripheral vascular disease. To limit disease progression, the nurse provides the client with key measures they should take.
First, the nurse will advise the client to quit smoking, as smoking can aggravate the symptoms of peripheral vascular disease and increase the risk of complications.
The nurse will also emphasize the importance of exercising regularly, as physical activity can help improve symptoms and reduce disease progression. Additionally, the nurse will suggest that the client maintain a healthy diet with plenty of fruits, vegetables, and complex carbohydrates, as this can help reduce inflammation and improve blood flow.
The nurse will also recommend that the client take regular breaks from standing or sitting for long periods of time, as this can help reduce the risk of developing blood clots.
Finally, the nurse will stress the importance of monitoring blood sugar levels and blood pressure, as this can help the client keep their disease progression in check.
By implementing these key measures, the client will be able to effectively limit the progression of their peripheral vascular disease.
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a postpartum nurse is receiving report on a a patient who delivered 3 hours ago. the labor nurse states that the patient had a 3rd degree laceration during the vaginal birth of a 9 pound baby. the nurse knows that this patient:
the nurse knows that this patient is At the time of discharge.
The management of patients includes the use of contraception. When the patient is discharged, it should be mentioned. The patient should be given information on contraception at discharge because she can ovulate as soon as one month after giving birth.
It might be too late to discuss contraception with the patient and they might become pregnant again if you wait until the patient's follow-up appointment or for at least a month. Postpartum refers to the period following childbirth. Within the first days after giving birth, most mothers experience the "baby blues," or feelings of sadness or emptiness.
The newborn blues typically disappear in 3 to 5 days for most mothers. You may have postnatal depression if your baby blues persist or if you feel depressed, hopeless, feeling empty for more than two weeks.
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the nurse is reviewing the medication chart of an 82-year-old man who has recently moved to a long-term care facility. the record reveals that the man takes 1 to 2 mg of lorazepam bid prn. the nurse should recognize what consequence of this resident's drug regimen?
The last show to notice that the consequence of the drug is increased risk in fall.
Lorazepam can be used both regularly at specified times and on an as- demanded ( or" PRN") base. generally, your will limit the number of boluses you can take in a single day. Grounded on your response, your will determine the applicable remedy and cure authority for your medicine. Lorazepam belongs to the benzodiazepine medicine class. It's used to treat anxiety and sleep problems caused by anxiety. It can be used to palliate pressure before to surgery or other medical or dental treatments. Lorazepam can produce an unintended overdose, which can affect in coma or death, if taken inaptly. Lorazepam used in larger quantities than recommended may beget unconsciousness, breathing difficulty, cardiac arrest, and other side goods.
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the nurse is caring for a toddler diagnosed with hemangiomas. which action will the nurse take when preparing to administer a dose of interferon alpha-2b to this client?
The nurse's action when preparing to give a dose of interferon alfa-2b to a toddler client diagnosed with a hemangioma is to notify the parents of the side effects that will occur.
What are hemangiomas?Hemangiomas are reddish bumps that grow on a baby's skin. This lump is formed from a collection of blood vessels that grow abnormally and become one.
Hemangiomas are classified as birthmarks that often appear on the face, neck, scalp, chest, and back, in children aged 18 months and under. This condition is not cancerous and can go away on its own. However, treatment is needed if the lump causes vision and breathing problems.
There are various types of hemangioma treatment, one of which is giving a dose of interferon alpha-2b. However, before administering this drug, it is necessary to explain the side effects that may occur after administering the drug.
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the nurse is screening an expectant mother for the extent of current substance use. which statement made by the mother is most concerning?
Xanax is a powerful prescription drug and should not be used during pregnancy without medical supervision. The mother's use of it without a doctor's advice is concerning.
Most concerning statement made by the mother: Option D. "I take one Xanax every few days for anxiety."
Xanax is a powerful prescription drug that can potentially have dangerous side effects during pregnancy, so its use without a doctor's advice is a cause for concern. The mother should be encouraged to speak with her doctor to discuss any possible risks or alternatives to using the drug during her pregnancy. The nurse should also provide the expectant mother with information on the potential risks of using the drug while pregnant, as well as any available resources to help her manage her anxiety in a safe and healthy way.
Here's full task:
The nurse is screening an expectant mother for the extent of current substance use. Which statement made by the mother is most concerning?
Choose the right option:
A. "I've had up to three alcoholic drinks a week."B. "I haven't used any drugs since college."C. "I smoke about a pack of cigarettes a week."D. "I take one Xanax every few days for anxiety."Learn more about nursing: https://brainly.com/question/17428386
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a nurse is providing care at an ambulatory care center to a wide range of older adults from diverse racial and ethnic groups. based on recent statistics, which group would the nurse most likely identify as projected to be the largest?
A nurse is providing care at an ambulatory care center to a wide range of older adults from diverse racial and ethnic groups. based on recent statistics, the following group would the nurse most likely identify as projected to be the largest : Non-Hispanic Whites.
In 2012, 21% of those aged 65 and up belonged to a racial or ethnic minority group. Racial and ethnic minority groups grew from 6.1 million in 2002 (17% of the elderly generation) to 8.9 million in 2012 (21% of the older population) and are expected to grow to 20.2 million (28% of the older population) by 2030. The white non-Hispanic population aged 65 and over is predicted to increase by 54% between 2012 and 2030, compared to 123.5% for older racial and ethnic minorities, including Hispanics (155%), African Americans (104%), American Indian and Native Alaskans (116%), and Asians (119%).
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Complete question :
A nurse is providing care at an ambulatory care center to a wide range of older adults from diverse racial and ethnic groups. Based on recent statistics, which group would the nurse most likely identify as projected to be the largest?
a) Asians
b) Hispanics
c) African Americans
d) Non-Hispanic whites
47.based exclusively on your review of structured and unstructured data, do you think it should be possible to generate a list of all patients with a certain icd10 diagnosis? why or
Based my review of structured and unstructured data, yes it is possible to generate the list of all patients due to CPOE.
The ICD-10-CM, also referred to as the International Classification of Diseases, Tenth Revision, Clinical Modification, is a system for categorising diagnosis codes that represent conditions, diseases, related health issues, unusual research results, clinical manifestations, concussions, and uncontrollable factors of illnesses and injuries.
The practise of electronically entering medical practitioner orders for the treatment of patients who are under her care is known as computerised physician order entry (CPOE), sometimes known as computerised provider order entry or computerised provider order management. CPOE can make it more efficient when reporting medicine, lab, and radiology orders to their relevant departments or facilities by allowing healthcare practitioners to send orders electronically rapidly.
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Based exclusively on your review of structured and unstructured data, do you think it should be possible to generate a list of all patients with a certain ICD10 diagnosis? why or why not?
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which of the following is not characteristic of adolescent eating habits? a. preference for fast food and convenience foods b. low intake of fruits and vegetables c. increasing independence in decision-making concerning food d. regular consumption of three meals per day
Answer:
D
Explanation:
which medication would you question if ordered by the provider to treat a person that is complaining of nausea and vomiting
The medicine to treat people who complain of nausea and vomiting is famotidine (Pepcid).
Famotidine is a drug to treat conditions caused by excess stomach acids production, such as acid reflux disease (GERD) and stomach ulcers.
Famotidine works by inhibiting histamine substances on H2 receptors in the stomach so that stomach acid production can be reduced. This will relieve complaints due to excess stomach acid, such as bloating, nausea, vomiting, or heartburn.
With reduced stomach acid, famotidine can help repair damage to the stomach wall. Hence, it is also used in the treatment of stomach ulcers and duodenal ulcers.
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a stay-at-home father wants to purchase commercial toddler meals because his 16-month-old girl recently choked on table food. which food items will the nurse suggest not be given to this child? select all that apply.
A stay-at-home father wants to purchase commercial toddler meals because his 16-month-old girl recently choked on table food. The following food items will the nurse suggest not be given to this child :
Sticky foods include peanut butter aline, gummy candies, and marshmallows Round foods like hot dogs, entire grapes, and cherry tomatoesHard foods like almonds, raw carrots, and popcorn.To safely serve a soft round food, cut the hot dog into uneven chunks and quarter the grapes and cherry tomatoes he he. This prevents food from entering the respiratory tract. Avoid hard, sticky foods as they can cause aspiration and airway obstruction risks. Boiled vegetables listed are safe, as are soft fruits.
Babies learn how to chew and swallow food. This means that children can choke. By the age of 12 months, your child will be a good eater and able to eat on their own. Your child can now eat most foods, but some are a choking hazard. For example, some foods that come uncooked, whole, or in certain shapes and sizes can pose a choking hazard. Choking can be prevented by cutting food into small pieces and pureeing them.
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the nurse is caring for a client after transsphenoidal hypophysectomy and observes clear drainage from the nares. which statement is accurate in explaining the cause of this drainage? cerebral spinal fluid could be leaking from an opening to the brain
The statement that explains the cause of clear drainage from the nares of a client after trans-sphenoidal hypophysectomy is: (1) Cerebral spinal fluid could be leaking from an opening to the brain.
Hypophysectomy is the removal of the pituitary gland through surgery. Pituitary gland is also known by the name hypophysis. The process is performed for the removal of tumors.
Cerebral spinal fluid is the clear fluid that surrounds the tissues of the brain and spinal cord in vertebrates. Its function is to protect the internal body parts from injury and cushion them. It also provides nutrition and helps in removal of wastes.
The given question is incomplete, the complete question is:
The nurse is caring for a client after trans-sphenoidal hypophysectomy and observes clear drainage from the nares. which statement is accurate in explaining the cause of this drainage?
1) Cerebral spinal fluid could be leaking from an opening to the brain.
2) It is a normal occurrence for this client's procedure.
3) The client is developing an infection.
4) The client may have had a cold preoperatively, and the nurse will continue to monitor.
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a patient is admitted to a rehabilitation facility following a stroke. the patient has right-sided paralysis and is unable to speak. the patient will be receiving physical therapy and speech therapy. which level of preventive care is the patient receiving?
The correct answer is tertiary prevention.
Preventive care can be divided into three levels: primary, secondary, and tertiary.
Primary preventive care focuses on preventing the onset of disease or injury, such as through health promotion, risk factor modification, and routine screening.
Secondary preventive care focuses on the early detection and treatment of diseases or injuries, such as through screening tests, diagnostic tests, and treatments.
Tertiary preventive care focuses on rehabilitation and management of the consequences of chronic diseases or disabilities, such as through physical therapy, speech therapy, and other rehabilitation services.
In the case of the patient admitted to a rehabilitation facility following a stroke, the focus is on rehabilitation and management of the consequences of the stroke, such as right-sided paralysis and difficulty speaking, which is an example of tertiary preventive care.
The patient is receiving physical therapy and speech therapy to help improve their function and reduce the impact of their disabilities.
Therefore, The correct answer is tertiary prevention.
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What type of poisoning will cause burns around the mouth in children?
A) inhaled poison
B) alkaline poison
C) injected poison
D) plant poisoning
Alkaline poisoning is the type of poisoning will cause burns around the mouth in children so, option b is correct.
Alkaline poisoning is one type of poisoning that can beget becks around the mouth in children. Alkaline poisoning occurs when a child is exposed to a strong alkaline substance, similar as a soap or cleaning product. Alkaline poisoning can be caused by ingestion, inhalation or contact with the skin or eyes.
Symptoms of alkaline poisoning generally include backsour around the mouth, nausea, puking, abdominal pain and difficulty breathing. In severe cases, alkaline poisoning can lead to more serious health complications, similar as liver and order damage. The stylish way to help alkaline poisoning is to be apprehensive of the implicit pitfalls and take redundant care to duly store and use cleaning products and cleansers.
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which factor is unique to vascular dmentia when comparing assessment findings in clients with vascular dementia
The following factor is unique to vascular dmentia when comparing assessment findings in clients with vascular dementia : Abrupt onset of symptoms.
Vascular dementia is a general term that describes problems with reasoning, planning, judgment, memory, and other thought processes caused by brain damage due to impaired blood flow to the brain. Vascular dementia can develop after a stroke blocks an artery in the brain, but stroke does not always cause vascular dementia. Vascular dementia is commonly caused by disorders that are most common among older people, such as atherosclerosis (arteriosclerosis), heart disease, and stroke.
People with vascular dementia have a life expectancy of about 5 years from onset, which is shorter than the average for Alzheimer's disease. Because vascular dementia shares many of the same risk factors as heart attack and stroke, stroke or heart attack is often the cause of death in patients.
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An instructor is preparing a class that describes the toxic effects of drugs. Which effect would the instructor expect to include?
O Many drugs are potentially harmless if used correctly.
O Any effect results from the alteration of several chemical factors.
O Most reactions occurring with present-day therapy are less severe than before.
O Drugs cause unexpected or unacceptable reactions despite screening and testing.
Option A is correct.
It is essential to understand the potential toxic effects of drugs before using them. It's important to note that the severity of the toxic effect can vary greatly depending on various factors such as the dose, duration, and the individual's own characteristics.
Drugs are an important topic to study as they play a significant role in our daily lives and can impact our health and well-being. Understanding the toxic effects of drugs is essential to make informed decisions about their use.
The instructor would expect to include the toxic effect of drugs that can cause unexpected or unacceptable reactions despite screening and testing.
This is because not all drugs are completely safe, even if they undergo rigorous testing and screening before being made available to the public. Many drugs have side effects that can range from mild to severe and can cause harm to the individual taking them.
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A nurse is teaching a client who has HIV about the early manifestations of AIDS. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
a. "You can expect a persistent fever and swollen glands."
b. "You can expect an elevated white blood cell count."
c. "You can expect an increase in blood pressure and edema."
d. "You can expect weight gain."
You can expect a persistent fever and swollen glands the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching
The correct answer is A
What is the typical duration of swollen glands?Usually, swollen glands indicate that an infection is being fought by the body. In approximately two to three weeks, they typically get better on their own. Sometimes they may indicate a more serious ailment.
When do I need to worry about swollen glands?If your lymph nodes are swollen or you are worried, consult a doctor. have appeared without obvious cause. have either become bigger or have been around for between two and four weeks. Pushing on them causes them to feel stiff or rubbery or to remain still.
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the patient is afraid to have a thoracentesis at the bedside. the nurse sits with the patient and asks about the fears. during the procedure, the nurse stays with the patient, explaining each step and providing encouragement. what is the nurse displaying?
By staying with the patient, asking about the fears and explaining each step to a patient afraid to have thoracentesis at bedside, the nurse is displaying: her presence.
Thoracentesis is the removal of air or fluid from the lungs. It is an invasive procedure and is also known as needle thoracostomy, or needle decompression. The fluid removed belongs to the pleural space of lungs and is called pleural fluid.
Lungs are the main respiratory organs that mediate the exchange of air between the environment and the body. The lungs are two sac-like structures covered by small air sacs called alveoli that mediate the actual exchange.
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a 28-year-old patient is to receive a dose of lorazepam intravenously for sedation during a procedure. the nursing priority would be to assess for:
To provide the intravenous dose of lorazepam for sedation, the nurse should assess for: respiratory disturbances and partial airway obstruction.
Lorazepam is the medication used for the treatment of anxiety. It has a sedation effect and is often given to patients before any operative treatment to make them calm before the process begins. It is also prescribed to treat the sleep-related problems.
Respiratory disturbances are the diseases or disorders associated with the lungs or any part of the respiratory pathway. These may range from mild to severe. Some diseases are: asthma, cystic fibrosis, emphysema, lung cancer, mesothelioma, pulmonary hypertension, and tuberculosis.
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which informatio about a concept map would the nurse include when provideing education to a group of student nurse
Nursing concept maps are also a self-teaching strategy that can help students pre-plan their clinical assessments and provide valuable insight for post-clinical analysis this information about a concept map would the nurse include when provideing education to a group of student nurse.
A nursing idea map is a visual tool that aids in planning patient care for nursing students. Students can use this map to group and depict patient care topics in a single, simple-to-read diagram that emphasises the connections between diverse nursing principles.
Nursing concept maps are another self-teaching technique that students can use to plan out their clinical evaluations and offer insightful information for post-clinical analysis. While enhancing learning, this tool improves students' clinical reasoning and judgement. Nursing concept maps are useful teaching aids for material that may be categorised or when it's important to understand the connections between diverse concepts. They are most frequently used by nursing students in clinical settings.
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the nurse understands pacus are designed for which of the following? a. managing the transition from anesthesia to long-term care b. managing the transition from anesthesia through phase iii of recovery c. managing the transition from anesthesia through phase ii of recovery d. managing the transition from anesthesia through rehabilitation
The nurse understands pacus are designed for managing the transition from anesthesia through phase II of recovery.
Correct answer is option C.
The PACU performs a vital part in promoting patient health and recovery after the surgical procedure. The primary pretensions are patient safety, recovery from anesthesia, and treatment of postoperative complications. The PACU nanny performs an immediate assessment of the case's airway, respiratory, and circulatory status, also focuses on a more thorough assessment.
The case shall be observed and covered by styles applicable to the case's medical condition. Particular attention should be given to covering oxygenation, ventilation, rotation, position of knowledge and temperature. While airway is the first precedence, the educated PACU will be suitable to assess airway patency, breathing effectiveness and circulatory status incontinently before monitoring is set up.
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what are 20 questions to ask a patient
Answer: What brings you in today? What hurts?
What are your symptoms?
How long has this been going on?
Has the pain been getting better or worse? Do you smoke? Do you take any recreational drugs? Do you drink alcohol and how often? Do you have a family history of this?
Do you take any medicines or supplements? Are you sexually active? Have you had any previous surgeries? Does it hurt when I push here? Are you allergic to any medicines?
Explanation:
The 20 questions to ask a patient are:
Primary reason for seeking , symptoms ,How long have you had these symptoms ,seem to make your symptoms better or worse, taking any medications, recent changes in your diet.
What is patient?Patient is an adjective used to describe someone who is able to endure pain, difficulties, or delays without becoming annoyed or anxious. Patient people are able to calmly accept the challenges life presents and take appropriate action to resolve them. They tend to be resilient and have an ability to remain calm.
Any chronic health issues ,under any medical treatment , any recent hospitalizations ,any allergies, experiencing any pain, mental illness or substance abuse, smoker ,family history of any medical conditions ,any stress in your life ,exercise regularly, getting enough sleep Changes is weight, any recent exposure to anyone with a contagious illness, currently employed or in school.
To learn more about patient
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