Arteries closest to the heart have a greater pulse intensity is the strongest pulse because it is in an artery that is relatively large, close to the skin's surface to help distribute blood throughout the body.
What is Arteries?Arteries are blood vessels capable of supplying the organs of the body. Its main function is to carry blood rich in nutrients and oxygen, already pumped by the heart, throughout the body. These arterial vessels are part of the cardiovascular system and are of total importance for the functioning of the human body.
With this information, we can conclude that Arteries are blood vessels capable of supplying the organs of the body. Its main function is to carry blood rich in nutrients and oxygen, already pumped by the heart, throughout the body.
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About what percentage of college students reports drinking alcohol at least once within the past month?
About 60% of the students that were sampled admitted to drinking alcohol at least once within the past month. Option C
What is alcohol?Alcohol is a beverage that is know to have an intoxicating effect. This alcohol beverage contains the substance called ethanol. This is the substance that causes the intoxicating effect of alcoholic beverages.
Due to the intoxicating effect of ethanol, its use is restricted in public spaces especially during driving as well as in schools and colleges.
From the research, about 60% of the students that were sampled admitted to drinking alcohol at least once within the past month.
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Missing parts;
About what percentage of college students reports drinking alcohol at least once within the past month? A. 92 percent. B. 86 percent. C. 60 percent
26. A patient weighs 40.9 kg and
is 58 inchs. in height. The manufacturer
of erythromycin has a recommended
dose of 50mg/kg per day. The physician
has ordered 300 mg of erythrom
erythromycin tid. Is the physician's
Order safe according to the recommended
dose?
The physician's order is safe according to the recommended dose, but is well bellow recomended.
What is dosage?Dosage is the act of dosing; is the action of measuring the amount of dose that will be administered, at a certain frequency for a period of time.
That said, the manufacturer's recommendation is 50mg per kilogram, per day. The physician ordered 300mg of erythrom erythromycin tid, the patient weighs 40.9kg, so the recommended dose for him would be 2045mg. To achive this recommendation the patient would need to take six doses a day.
1kg -- 50mg
40,9 -- x
x = 2045mg/day
2045mg/300mg = 6
In this case, we can notice that the physician's order is safe according to the recommended dose, but is well bellow recomended.
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Why is it so important to follow the sterilization procedures?
Answer:
To make sure infectious pathogens are not transmitted into patients through surgical and medical instruments.
How can sterilization be important?Because patients are continually in contact with delicate devices, needles, and swaths, sanitizing equipment is an essential component of modern clinical treatment. To ensure the clinical welfare of your patients, clinical workers, and the environment, you should use clinical equipment safely, which includes keeping it perfect and disinfected. Cleaning these critical hardware elements with care and success is critical to avoiding the transfer of infection from patient to persistent.
In this section, we look at how to clean clinical hardware, including the benefits of doing so as well as the techniques and frills utilized to complete the sanitization cycle.
Advantages of Sterilizing Medical Equipment
Intrusive systems make contact between a patient's mucous layers or clean tissue and a precise tool or clinical device. A significant risk of these tactics is the introduction of harmful bacteria, which might lead to illness. When clinical hardware is not properly purified or cleaned, it increases the risk of sickness due to the penetration of host barriers.
Germs should be eradicated for both emergency clinic workers and patients to reduce contamination spread. Fighting medical care-related contaminations (HAIs), which are infections that emergency clinic patients receive as a result of their medical clinic stay, is a wonderful example of this. HAIs can be caused by careless instruments, contaminated equipment, or insufficient personnel hygiene.
A few advantages of disinfecting clinical gear include:
It disposes of discharge, blood, unfamiliar particles, and soil abandoned that could prompt perilous confusions for the following patient requiring a medical procedure where the clinical specialist utilizes the instrument.It diminishes bioburden - the quantity of non-sanitized microscopic organisms living on a surface.It forestalls the erosion of costly and exceptionally exact apparatuses that have sensitive turns and pivots.It eliminates a favorable place for the enduring germs.It guarantees the sheltered vehicle of gear waiting to be pressed and amassed for cleansing or sterilization.It eliminates discharge, blood, strange particles, and filth that might cause dangerous confusions for the next patient requiring a medical operation where the clinical professional uses the device.It reduces bioburden, which is the number of non-sanitized tiny organisms living on a surface.It prevents the deterioration of expensive and extremely precise equipment with delicate twists and pivots.It removes a breeding ground for lingering pathogens.It ensures the safe transportation of equipment ready to be pressed and gathered for cleaning or sterilizing.When used correctly, sanitization and purification can ensure the safe use of non-obtrusive and intrusive clinical devices.
The Most Effective Method of Medical Equipment Sterilization
To keep HAIs from spreading, every medical clinics must have a plan of attack. The clinic's germ-fighting system consists of two cycles performed in this exact order:
Cleaning must always come before a considerable amount of sanitization or cleaning.Purifying is the next step, which may entail the use of fluid synthetic substances to execute non-spore framing microorganisms.Sanitation: A variety of sanitization procedures can be used to eliminate disease-causing bacteria and infectious specialists such as tiny organisms and spores.The level of cleaning or sanitization depends on how you want to use the things. The classification of equipment determines whether it requires major level cleaning, low level purification, or high level sterilization:
Basic concepts: A model includes precise devices that interact with sterile tissue.Endoscopes that interact with mucous layers are incorporated into a model.Noncritical articles: A model uses stethoscopes that only interact with beautiful skin.When selecting a cleaning or sterilizing method, examine the benefits and drawbacks of different techniques. If you follow these recommendations, you should enhance cleaning and sterilizing practices in emergency clinics and other medical services offices, reducing infections associated with contaminated patient-care items.
Thank you,
Eddie
A drug that blocks ion channels will impede the normal function of which cellular structures? i. mitochondria ii. neuron cell membrane iii. muscle cell sarcoplasmic reticulum
In mitochondria, ATP synthase is a specialized ion channel,
In Neurons, sodium and potassium channels,
In muscle cells, calcium channels.
A channel blocker is the biological mechanism in which a particular molecule is used to prevent the opening of ion channels in order to produce a physiological response in a cell.
Channel blocking is conducted by different types of molecules, such as cations, anions, amino acids, and other chemicals.
Drugs bind to the extracellular regions of ion channels, causing the transmembrane opening to change in some way so as to allow specific ions to pass through.
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Walter Mischel designed the ________ to test will power, also known as _______
a. marshmallow test; locus of control
b. marshmallow test; self-regulation
c cupcake study; self-efficacy
d Bobo doll experiment; grit
Answer:
The answer is B.
He designed the marshmallow test to test "will power" which is also known as self regulation
Hope you understand :-)
Walter Mischel designed the marshmallow test to test willpower, also known as self-regulation. The correct option is b.
Walter Mischel and his associates carried out the well-known marshmallow test in the late 1960s and early 1970s.
The experiment was designed to examine young children's understanding of self-control and delayed gratification.
A child was put in a room with a marshmallow on a table for the test. The youngster was instructed that while they may consume the marshmallow right away if they waited for a little period (often 15 minutes) without doing so, they would receive a bonus marshmallow.
This experiment's main objective was to see how the kids handled the urge to consume the marshmallow immediately and quickly. Some children could wait for a second chance instead of getting what they wanted right away.
Thus, the correct option is b.
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You are the director of health information services in a major medical center that maintains both a psychiatric and substance abuse units in addition to general medical and surgical units. Your facility, under the direction of the CIO, plans to join a computer network with 15 hospitals throughout the state, which will allow online access to records, regardless of which facility they were generated. None of the other 15 facilities offers psychiatric or substance abuse treatment, and you have been asked to provide HIM analysis as the subject matter expert.
Identify access and confidentiality issues that may be present with such a network in the light of the statutory, regulatory, and accrediting requirements governing patients treated in these units.
What specific organizational recommendation(s) would you make to the CIO to ensure she has considered specialized records in her support of the network for all departments, including the HIM department?
Discuss psychotherapy notes as defined by HIPAA and how they are treated differently.
The simplest case in which medical confidentiality can be breached is when there is patient consent. However, this does not allow professionals to publish information or medical records in absentia on social media — as this is also prohibited by the Code of Medical Ethics in its section on the subject.
What specific organizational recommendations would you make to the CIO to ensure he considers specialist records in your network support for all departments, including the HIM department?The recommendations are to keep these patients confidential, so that their information is only available to doctors, and not open to the public.
Discuss psychotherapy notes as defined by HIPAA and how they are treated differently.In general, patients or their legal representatives should be able to view and obtain copies of their medical records and request corrections if errors or mistakes are identified. For purposes of the US Privacy Act, a patient's "authorized personal representative" is a legal guardian able to make health care decisions, a representative in possession of a power of attorney for dealing with health-related matters, or a family member or friend authorized to act as a representative for decisions under US state law. Patients also have the right to allow third parties access to all or part of their medical records upon signed written authorization.
With this information, we can conclude that Ethical medical treatment always includes the need to keep patients' medical information confidential. However, the Health Information Portability and Accountability Act codified this responsibility for health workers.
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low:
When telephoning patients who have not returned to the office for normal maintenance and recall appointments, several of the patients remark that the office has changed and that it isn’t as nice as it used to be. The dentist instructs the dental assistant to create a list of improvements that would enhance the dental office setting. What aspects and areas of the dental office should be assessed, and what factors should be considered when making changes to the dental office?
The aspects and areas of the dental office which should be assessed and factors which should be considered when making changes to the dental office include:
Improvement of public relations.Efficient user experience data gathering.Who is Dentist?This is a healthcare professional who specializes in the diagnosis and treatment of any defect related to the oral cavity in individuals.
There should be improvement of public relations so as to ensure customer satisfaction being enhanced. Customer data should also be stored appropriately to prevent it from being disclosed and to ensure that the data matches that of the patient.
The changes in dental officer should include it being user friendly so as to enable patients to be comfortable with visiting.
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Your brain is not constantly bombarded with signals telling it that you are wearing socks. This is because the touch receptors around your ankle are.
Your brain is not constantly bombarded with signals telling it that you are wearing socks. This is because the touch receptors around your ankle are "rapid adapting and phasic receptors."
What is sensory transduction?An action potential is produced when a stimulation toward a sensory receptor alters the ionic permeability of the cell membrane.
Sensory transduction is the process of transforming a sensory signal to an electrical signal.
A higher stimulus intensity will often result in more action potentials all along neurone.
However, certain receptor types will adjust to continuous stimulation in various ways:
Tonic receptors have a sluggish rate of adaptation. As long as the stimulus is present, they will react to it by producing an ongoing frequency with action potentials. As a result, they communicate information regarding the stimulus' duration.Phasic Receptors that are phasic adjust quickly. When stimulated, they react fast, but when stimulated repeatedly, they stop reacting. As a result, under sustained stimulation, the frequency of action potentials reduces. The information about changes to the stimulus, such as intensity, is communicated by this sort of receptor.To know more about sensory transduction and signal transduction, here
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From the esophagus to the anus, the walls of the alimentary canal have the same four basic tunics. The __________ is the outermost layer of the walls of the intraperitoneal organs.
The serosa is the outermost layer of the walls of the intraperitoneal organs.
What are the layers of the alimentary canal?The digestive tract's wall is composed of four layers, or tunics:
Mucosa: The innermost tunic of the wall is known as the mucosa, or mucous membrane layer. The digestive tract's lumen is lined with it. The mucosa is made up of epithelium, a layer of lamina propria, a loose layer of connective tissue, and the muscularis mucosa, a thin layer of smooth muscle.
Submucosa: The mucosa is surrounded by a substantial layer of loose connective tissue known as the submucosa. Blood arteries, lymphatic vessels, and neurons are also present in this stratum. This layer might contain glands.
Muscular layer: An inner circular layer and an outside longitudinal layer make up the two layers of the smooth muscle that moves the digestive tract. The two muscle layers are separated by the myenteric plexus.
Serous layer or serosa: The adventitia is a connective tissue that makes up the digestive tract's outermost layer above the diaphragm. It is referred to as serosa below the diaphragm.
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_____ are caused by insufficient physical activity, often in conjunction with inappropriate dietary practices.
Answer:
hypokinetic Diseases.
A baseball pitcher complains of pain that slowly developed along the inside of his elbow. He has pain when he throws and has point tenderness over the inside of his elbow. He also has pain when he is resting. He likely has what injury
The most likely which the baseball player has is a Growth plate fracture.
This is mainly because of Growth plate fracture is located near the end of the bone of the hand and it affects the layer of growing tissue near the ends of a person's bones
What is an Injury?This refers to the unfortunate incident that occurs to the body of a person that causes him not to have full use of his body or parts of his body.
Therefore, based on the described injury of the athlete, he has pain when he throws and has point tenderness over the inside of his elbow. He also has pain when he is resting.
This is most likely an injury that is called Growth plate fracture.
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What are the benefits of performing a clia-waived rapid test in the medical office?.
Giving the doctor a clear indication of the issue, enabling early therapy to begin, and being practical for the patient.
What does Clia-waived rapid test mean ?According to the CLIA law, tests that the CDC or FDA deem to be sufficiently straightforward that there is minimal danger of error are waived.
Pregnancy tests, faecal occult blood tests, some urine tests, and some tests for glucose and cholesterol are also exempt.The quick availability of results when the patient is present for fast follow-up, the requirement for little training in uncomplicated tests, and the portability of many waived tests all contribute to the advantages of performing themLearn more about Clia-waived test here:
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A 24-year-old woman presents with a rash to her left leg and swollen, painful knee joints. She tells you that she and her friends returned from a hiking trip in the mountains a week ago. She is conscious and alert with a blood pressure of 112/62 mm Hg, a pulse of 84 beats/min, and respirations of 14 breaths/min. What should you suspect
The patient's symptoms and her narrative of a recent hiking trip are compatible with Lyme disease, which was caused by a tick bite.
What is Lyme disease?
Lyme disease is caused by the bacteria Borrelia burgdorferi and, less frequently, Borrelia mayonii. Humans are bitten by infected blacklegged ticks, which spread the illness.The first symptom of Lyme disease is a rash that emerges three days after being bitten by an infected tick and can spread to other body parts. After a few more days or weeks, a painful swelling of the joints, particularly the knees, begins to form. Many people recover completely when given immediate antibiotic treatment after being detected and diagnosed.Learn more about the Lyme disease with the help of the given link:
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The nutrient that enhances iron absorption is ____. a. sodium b. vitamin c c. copper d. potassium
Vitamin C is the nutrient that improves iron absorption.
How iron absorption is boosted by vitamin C?
Iron absorption has been demonstrated to be improved by vitamin C. It takes non-heme iron and converts it into a form your body can more readily absorb. Citrus fruits, berries, bell peppers, melons, and dark-green leafy vegetables are among the foods high in vitamin C.According to one study, consuming 100 mg of vitamin C along with a meal boosted iron absorption by 67%.Consequently, increasing our body's absorption of iron by consuming citrus juice or other meals high in vitamin C at the same time as high-iron diets.By consuming vitamin C-rich vegetables with meals, iron absorption in vegetarian and vegan meals can be enhanced.Therefore, the correct choice is option B, i.e., vitamin C.
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Babies born to teen mothers have a higher risk for low birth weight and infant death.
Answer:
Absolutely correct
Explanation:
Babies born by teenage mom's often have a low birth weight and most suffer death thus bringing an increase in infants mortality.Teenagers are still in their growth and development stages then imagine if that same teenager houses a baby there will be internal competition for nutrients leading to low weight in the baby.Also hormones like human placental lactogen which is important for babies growth can not be properly produced and also oestrogen,human chorionic gonadotropin hormone (hcG), and progesterone
A side effect is an unintended, often problematic outcome resulting from a(n)
.
An accident is any
unplanned
occurrence that has potentially negative consequences.
An adverse effect is an unintended
effect of a medical treatment.
According to the research, the correct option is an adverse effect is an unintended effect of a medical treatment. A side effect is an unintended, often problematic outcome resulting from an adverse effect of a medical treatment.
What is a side effect?It is a toxic or unintentional reaction of a medication, which occurs as a consequence of the same mechanism that determines its therapeutic effect, altering the health of an organism, including the well-being of that organism.
These reactions are due to the undesirable pharmacological effect that appears in the recommended therapeutic doses or due to drug interaction where the patient presents headache, fever, cold symptoms, among others.
Therefore, we can conclude that according to the research, a side effect is an unintended, often problematic outcome resulting from an adverse effect is an unintended of a medical treatment.
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If a child younger than puberty, approximately 10-12 years old, is unconscious, and no one witnessed that person’s collapse, guidelines call for performing two minutes of cpr before you call 911 and use an aed. True or false?.
False
Call 911 first and then perform Cardiopulmonary resuscitation
How do you perform CPR on an infant up until puberty?30 rapid chest compressions should be given to your child with the heel of one or two hands placed over the bottom third of their breastbone (push fast). Make sure to apply enough pressure to cause their chest to descend by roughly 5 cm (2 inches) (push hard). Make a loud count. About 100–120 compressions per minute should be delivered.At what age can a youngster receive AED treatment?Most people are aware that a youngster, or someone between the ages of one and eight in First Aid parlance, can operate an AED. Pediatric/child pads are recommended because they lower the energy to about 50–75 joules.What is a child's CPR ratio?The youngster or infant will receive 15 compressions to every 2 breaths from a two-person CPR team.To learn more about handling an unconscious child visit:
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The last step in preparing to draw blood for testing is to review the written testing request
A. True
B. False
Answer: False
Explanation:
Reviewing the written testing request is one of the first steps in preparing to draw blood for testing.
If a child younger than puberty, approximately 10-12 years old, is unconscious, and no one witnessed that person’s collapse, guidelines call for performing two minutes of cpr before you call 911 and use an aed. True or false?.
If a child younger than puberty has collapsed, the right course of action would be to perform CPR and call 911 immediately. So the statement is false.
What is CPR?It is an emergency first aid procedure given when the need arises. CPR or cardiopulmonary resuscitation increases the chances of survival if a person has suffered a life-threatening problem.
CPR involves providing chest compressions and giving mouth-to-mouth breath to someone. This helps in increasing or maintaining the flow of blood in a patient until proper help can be given to them.
CPR is performed similarly for children and adults. It is done in the ratio of 30 chest compressions to 2 breaths. This process should be repeated until help arrives and proper medical assistance can be provided.
Therefore, while performing CPR, it's important that calls to paramedics should already have been made as it will ensure that the child is kept stable until proper medical assistance can be given to them. So the statement is false.
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Who should be concerned about dehydration? An athlete participating in a triathlon a child who is ill with diarrhea an elderly man all of these choices are correct
Answer:
A child who is I'll with diarrhea
All of these choices are correct and should be concerned about dehydration.
What is dehydration?Dehydration can occur in anyone who loses more fluid than they take in, and it can be particularly dangerous for athletes, children, and elderly individuals. Athletes participating in events such as triathlons can lose significant amounts of fluid through sweating, and may need to take extra precautions to stay hydrated.
Children who are ill with diarrhea can lose fluids quickly and become dehydrated, which can be particularly dangerous for their developing bodies. Elderly individuals may be at increased risk for dehydration due to a decreased sense of thirst, and may need extra support to ensure they are drinking enough fluids.
It is important for everyone to stay aware of their fluid intake and recognize the signs of dehydration to prevent complications.
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What organs work together in the human body or which organs are grouped together?.
Answer:
Nervous Tissue, Muscle Tissue, Epithelial Tissue,
Tissue, Organs, and Organ Systems
Explanation:
What organs work together in the human body or which organs are grouped together?.
Name one striking dilemma faced by military doctors in combat. how do you think you might reconcile this dilemma with your faith and with the military code of conduct?
These populations may lack enough medical resources and be more susceptible to maltreatment and exploitation.
What are the ways to reconcile striking dilemma faced by military doctors ?The medical officer should never undercut the community's medical services, even though he or she may support them. The doctor can better prioritise his or her responsibilities by using a human rights perspective and adhering to ethical medical standards
Conflict with one's own military superiors is possible from time to time. Before embarking on the expedition, it is advisable to consider any prospective obstacles. A violation of human rights cannot be disregarded. The medical officer has a responsibility to report any observations as accurately as possible in order to stop or avoid abuse.Learn more about Military doctors dilemma here:
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_____ are the cells of the innate immune system that digest cellular debris and pathogens.
Macrophages are the cells of the innate immune system that digest cellular debris and pathogens.
The two macrophages and dendritic cells immerse microbes and cell trash through phagocytosis. A neutrophil is likewise a phagocytic leukocyte that overwhelms and processes microorganisms. Neutrophils, are the most plentiful leukocytes of the resistant framework.
What is Innate Immune Response?Innate and adaptive immune responses are both part of the immune system.Innate immunity develops spontaneously as a result of genetic factors or physiology; it is not generated by illness or vaccination, but instead works to minimize the burden for the adaptive immune response. Secreted proteins, receptor-mediated signaling, and complicated cell-to-cell communication are all part of the immune response at both the innate and adaptive levels. The innate immune system evolved as a crucial response to infection early in animal history, around a billion years ago.To learn more about inate immune system from the given link
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What is used to prevent infections from being transferred or communicated from one person to another?
Prophylaxis is used to prevent infections from being transferred or communicated from one person to another.
Which drug is used for prophylaxis?Cephalosporin antibiotics, such as cefazolin and cefuroxime, are the most commonly used antibiotics prior to surgery. If you are allergic to cephalosporins, your doctor may prescribe vancomycin. If antibiotic resistance is an issue, they may also prescribe it.
Who Might Benefit from Prophylaxis?Artificial Heart valve A history of infective endocarditis, an uncommon but potentially fatal infection of the heart walls or heart valves.A heart transplant in which an issue with one of the heart's valves arises.Unrepaired cyanotic congenital heart disease, which includes persons with palliative shunts and conduits.Defects repaired with a prosthetic material or device, whether inserted through surgery or catheter intervention, within the first six months of repair.To learn more about Prophylaxis from the given link
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The nurse palpates the anterior fontanel of a newborn and notes that it feels soft. what does this datum indicate to the nurse?
The anterior fontanel is a diamond-shaped area where the frontal and parietal bones meet. It closes between 12 and 18 months of age. Vigorous crying may cause the fontanel to bulge, which is a normal finding. A nurse is performing an assessment on a postterm infant.
What is anterior fontanel?This is the junction where the 2 frontal and 2 parietal bones meet. The anterior fontanelle stays soft until about 18 months to 2 years of age. Doctors can consider if there is increased intracranial pressure by touching the anterior fontanelle.The fontanel can broaden in the first few months of life,18 and the median age of closure is 13.8 months. By three months of age, the anterior fontanel is secured in 1 percent of infants; by 12 months, it is closed in 38 percent; and by 24 months, it is closed in 96 percent.The fontanelle allows the skull to distort during birth to facilitate its passage through the birth canal and for expansion of the brain after birth. Skull at birth, showing frontal and occipital fonticuli. The anterior fontanelle normally closes between the periods of 12 and 18 months.To learn more about anterior fontanel, refer to:
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Which acoustic property causes the echogenic appearance of the pericardium related to surrounding structures?
Acoustic property are those govern that how many material respond to sound waves, which are what we perceive as sound . There are some example of acoustic property such as craking , crushing, sizzling , popping , frizzling and detonating.
It is an enhancement of localized increase of Eco amplitude distal to structure of low attenuation seen an area to increase brightness.Some notices are time depended combination of tones with different intensities.
Acoustic is the sense organs of hearing, to sound , or the science of sound. The qualities which determine a room's ability to reflects sound wave in way that produce distinct hearing.It is the science of sound which produce , effect, control and transmitted sound.
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________ is considered the “third force” in psychology because it rejects the notion that childhood experiences (psychoanalysis) or other forces in the environment (behaviorism) dictate a person’s personality.
a. Biological determinism
b. Feminism
c. Humanism
d. Social-cognition theory
The correct answer is Humanism.
What is the Humanistic Approach?In psychology, the phrases "humanistic," "humanism," and "humanist" refer to an approach that examines the whole person and the distinctiveness of each individual. These phrases essentially refer to the same psychological strategy.A humanistic psychological approach emphasizes the importance of each person's individuality and holistic worldview. Humanistic psychology examines human behavior, starting with the existential presumptions that humans have free will and are driven to fulfill their potential and self-actualize.As a reaction to what some psychologists perceived as the shortcomings of behaviorist and psychodynamic psychology, the humanistic approach to psychology emerged.
The humanistic approach is thus often called the “third force” in psychology after psychoanalysis and behaviorism (Maslow, 1968).
The correct answer is Humanism.
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5 examples of feelings that are likely to describe help
Answer:
1.Joy
2.Happiness
3.Pleasure
4.Satisfaction
5.Sacrifice
Explanation:
Serotonin is a neurotransmitter that mediates(arise) satisfaction, happiness and optimism. Some people lose this hormone therefore become depressed thus start use of drugs.
Happy, anxious, sad, excited, and angry are five examples of feelings that are likely to describe individuals.
Feelings that are likely to describe individuals are:
Happy: Feeling content, joyful, or delighted in response to positive experiences or situations.Anxious: Feeling worried, nervous, or uneasy about uncertain or stressful events.Sad: Feeling sorrowful or downhearted in response to loss, disappointment, or negative experiences.Excited: Feeling enthusiastic, eager, or thrilled about something anticipated or enjoyable.Angry: Feeling irritated, frustrated, or resentful in response to perceived injustices or obstacles.Thus, a person may feel happy, nervous, sad, enthusiastic, furious, or any combination of these five feelings.
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Fatuous love includes passion and commitment, but is lacking in
a. privacy.
b. liking.
c. honesty.
d. intimacy.
Answer: D intamacy
Explanation:
Hybridomas, which produce monoclonal antibodies, are made by fusing cells of the immune system with.
Hybridomas, which produce monoclonal antibodies, are made by fusing cells of the immune system with B lymphocytes and myeloma cells.
What are Hybridomas?Large-scale production of monoclonal antibodies is made possible through hybridoma technology. An antigen that triggers an immune response is first injected into a mammal to begin the process.A specific sort of white blood cell called a B cell makes antibodies that bind to the antigen that has been injected. These antibody-producing B-cells are then removed from the animal and combined with immortal B cell cancer cells, or myeloma, to create a hybrid cell line known as a hybridoma.It possesses both longevity and procreative capacity of the myeloma and the antibody-producing capacity of the B-cell.
Hence, the creation of hybridomas, which result in the production of monoclonal antibodies, involves fusing immune system cells with B lymphocytes and myeloma cells.
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