an air-track glider attached to a spring oscillates between the 14.0 cm c m mark and the 65.0 cm c m mark on the track. the glider completes 11.0 oscillations in 37.0 s s .(a) period, (b) frequency. (c) amplitude, and (d) maximum speed of the glider?

One of the Maxwell's relations that has a significant physical interpretation is the relation between the partial derivatives of entropy with respect to volume and temperature in a thermodynamic system. This relation is given by:

([tex]∂S/∂V)_T = (∂P/∂T)_V[/tex]

Here, (∂S/∂V)_T represents the partial derivative of entropy with respect to volume at constant temperature, and (∂P/∂T)_V represents the partial derivative of pressure with respect to temperature at constant volume.

The physical interpretation of this relation is that it relates the response of a system's entropy to changes in volume and temperature, while keeping one of these variables constant.

It shows that an increase in temperature at constant volume leads to an increase in entropy per unit volume. Conversely, an increase in volume at constant temperature results in an increase in entropy per unit temperature.

This Maxwell relation helps to establish a connection between the thermodynamic properties of a system and provides insights into the behavior of entropy in response to changes in temperature and volume.

To know more about interpretation refer here:

https://brainly.com/question/28235829#

#SPJ11

To determine the area of a lot, we can multiply the length and width of the lot. The given length and width of the EKSU academic building lot is 150ft and 200ft respectively. so building lot in cm² is 27,847,232 cm² and in m² is 2795.7752 m².

To determine the area of this lot in cm² and m², we need to convert the given measurements from feet to centimeters and meters respectively.

Convert 150ft and 200ft to cm:1 ft = 30.48 cm So, 150ft = 150 x 30.48 = 4572 cm And 200ft = 200 x 30.48 = 6096 cm

Therefore, the area of the lot in

cm² = length x width = 4572 cm x 6096 cm = 27,847,232 cm².Convert 150ft and 200ft to meters:1 ft = 0.3048 mSo, 150ft = 150 x 0.3048 = 45.72 mAnd 200ft = 200 x 0.3048 = 60.96 m

Therefore, the area of the lot in m² = length x width = 45.72 m x 60.96 m = 2795.7752 m² (rounded to four decimal places)

Therefore, the area of the EKSU academic building lot in cm² is 27,847,232 cm² and in m² is 2795.7752 m².

For more question  the area of a lot

https://brainly.com/question/25828434

#SPJ8

a) On a wet basis, the molar composition of the gas is approximately 0.813 mol propane, 0.055 mol n-butane, and 0.132 mol water. The ratio of mol H₂O to mol dry gas is 0.162 mol H₂O/mol dry gas.

b) The required air feed rate is approximately 65.9 kmol/h. If the combustion were only 65% complete, the required air feed rate would increase to approximately 101.4 kmol/h.

a) To calculate the molar composition on a wet basis, we convert the weight percentages to mole fractions using the molar masses of propane, n-butane, and water. The molar composition is determined by dividing the weight percentage by the respective molar mass and normalizing the values to sum up to 1. The ratio of mol H₂O to mol dry gas is determined by dividing the mol water by the sum of mols of propane and n-butane.

b) To calculate the required air feed rate, we use the stoichiometry of the combustion reaction between butane and air. The balanced equation shows that 1 mol of butane reacts with 13.5 mol of air. Considering the 25% excess air requirement, we multiply the stoichiometric air requirement by 1.25. If the combustion is only 65% complete, the remaining butane requires additional air to achieve complete combustion. Therefore, the required air feed rate increases to account for the unreacted butane.

To learn more about molar composition, here

https://brainly.com/question/31099770

#SPJ4

It takes approximately 4 hours and 9 minutes for light from the Sun to reach Neptune, which is 30.1 AU away.

To calculate the time it takes for light to reach Neptune, we need to convert the distance between the Sun and Neptune from astronomical units (AU) to minutes.

Given that light from the Sun takes 8 minutes to reach Earth, we can set up a proportion to find the time it takes for light to reach Neptune:

(8 minutes / 1 AU) = (x minutes / 30.1 AU)

Cross-multiplying and solving for x, we have:

8 * 30.1 = x

x ≈ 240.8 minutes

However, this result is in minutes, and we need to convert it to hours and minutes. Since there are 60 minutes in an hour, we divide the result by 60 to get the number of hours and the remainder gives us the remaining minutes:

240.8 minutes ÷ 60 = 4 hours and 0.8 minutes

Converting 0.8 minutes to seconds (1 minute = 60 seconds), we have:

0.8 minutes * 60 seconds/minute = 48 seconds

Adding the hours and minutes together, we get:

4 hours + 0 minutes + 48 seconds ≈ 4 hours and 9 minutes

Therefore, it takes approximately 4 hours and 9 minutes for light from the Sun to reach Neptune, which is 30.1 AU away.

To know more about Neptune refer here:

https://brainly.com/question/28422859#

#SPJ11

Given Data: Mass of bowling ball, m₁ = 6.75 kg, Velocity of bowling ball, u₁ = 8.5 m/s, Mass of bowling pin  m₂ = 0.925 kg, Velocity of bowling pin, u₂ = 11.4 m/s. Therefore, the direction of the final velocity of the bowling ball is 9.52°.Hence, the required answer is option (b) 9.52°.

Angle between u₁ and u₂, θ = 22°

Direction of final velocity of bowling ball, Φ = ?

The momentum before the collision is equal to the momentum after the collision.

(m₁.u₁) + (m₂.u₂) = (m₁.v₁) + (m₂.v₂)

Where, v₁ = final velocity of the bowling ball, v₂ = final velocity of the bowling pin.

The momentum of the bowling ball in the vertical direction before the collision is zero.

So, momentum after the collision is also zero.

(m₁.u₁)sin(90°) = (m₁.v₁)sin(Φ) + (m₂.v₂)sin(θ)

∴ v₁ = [- (m₂.u₂)sin(θ) + (m₁.u₁)sin(90°)] / (m₁ sin Φ)

Since there is no external force acting on the system, the kinetic energy is conserved.

Kinetic energy before the collision is equal to the kinetic energy after the collision.

0.5m₁u₁² + 0.5m₂u₂² = 0.5m₁v₁² + 0.5m₂v₂²

Solving this equation gives the value of v₂ as

v₂ = √[ (m₁u₁² + m₂u₂² - 2m₁u₁v₁) / m₂ ]

Putting the given values in the equations, we get

v₁ = 5.81 m/sv₂ = 17.27 m/s

Direction of the final velocity of the bowling ball,

Φ = sin⁻¹ [ (m₂.u₂) cos(θ) / (m₁.u₁) - m₂ sin(θ) / (m₁ sin Φ) ]

The value of Φ comes out to be 9.52° (approx).

Note: When solving this question, it is important to remember that the final velocity of the bowling ball and bowling pin both have two components: horizontal and vertical. And both the momentum and the kinetic energy have to be conserved in both components.

to know more about collision visit:

https://brainly.com/question/2127019

#SPJ11

When one end is closed, the new wavelength is 1.154 m and the new fundamental frequency is 297 Hz.

The fundamental frequency of a pipe that is open at both ends is 594 Hz. In order to calculate the length of this pipe, we will use the formula v = fλ where v is the speed of sound, f is the frequency and λ is the wavelength.

The speed of sound in air is approximately 343 m/s.

We will therefore have: 594 = (343/λ)λ = (343/594)m = 0.577m or 57.7cm.

If one end of the pipe is now closed, it will act as a closed-end resonator which means that the wavelength will now be twice the length of the pipe.

Therefore, the new wavelength will be 2(0.577) = 1.154 m or 115.4 cm.

Using the formula v = fλ and substituting the new wavelength and speed of sound, we have 343 = f(1.154) which gives us the new fundamental frequency f as:

f = 297 Hz.

Thus, the length of the pipe that is open at both ends is 57.7 cm. When one end is closed, the new wavelength is 1.154 m and the new fundamental frequency is 297 Hz.

Learn more about fundamental frequency here:

https://brainly.com/question/31314205

#SPJ11

Two units of magnetic field named after famous Western scientists are Weber and Gauss.

In electromagnetism, the magnetic field is a vector field that represents the magnetic effects of electric charges in motion. The magnetic field is defined as a field in which an electric charge will experience a magnetic force. It is produced by electric charges and currents. A magnetic field is created by a magnet or a moving electric charge or other magnetic fields.

The strength of a magnetic field is determined by the number of magnetic field lines or magnetic fluxes that pass through a surface placed perpendicular to the direction of magnetic field lines. It is calculated in the unit of Tesla (T). In addition to Tesla, there are two other units of magnetic field named after famous Western scientists: Gauss and Weber. A magnetic field with a strength of one gauss is equivalent to one ten-thousandth (0.0001) of a Tesla.

Gauss is a unit of magnetic flux density and is named after the famous German mathematician Carl Friedrich Gauss. Weber is named after Wilhelm Eduard Weber, and it is a unit of magnetic flux. The Weber is equivalent to the magnetic flux that crosses one square meter of surface area at right angles to a magnetic field of one tesla.

To know more about electromagnetism visit:

https://brainly.com/question/31039466

#SPJ11

For the given problem, the electrical conductivity (σ) for an ohmic conductor is calculated as follows:

Electrical conductivity, σ is defined as the ratio of current density, J to the electric field intensity, Eσ = J/E

From Ohm’s law, we know that

J = σ × E where J is the current density, E is the electric field intensity and σ is the electrical conductivity. Now, consider a conductor with length l, cross-sectional area A, and number density of free electrons, n. The drift velocity, vd of electrons is given asvd = eEτ/m

where e is the charge of the electron, m is the mass of electron and τ is the relaxation time of electrons.

It can be written as J = nAe vd Putting the value of vd from the above equation, we getJ = nAe2τE/ml Now, we can substitute the value of J from Ohm’s lawσE = nAe2τE/ml

Thus,σ = ne2τ/m

The electrical conductivity for an Ohmic conductor with a number density of free electrons n = 1.1 × 1029 per cubic meter and the collision time τ of 1.9 × 10-14 s, is 4.21 × 107 S/m.

To know more about electrical conductivity, visit:

https://brainly.com/question/31668005

#SPJ11

The velocity of the wave is calculated as to be equal to 100 m/s. To calculate the velocity of a wave, we use the formula as : v = fλv.

The velocity of a wave that has a frequency of 200 Hz and a wavelength of 0.50 m is 100 m/s. The formula for calculating the velocity of a wave is given by:

v = fλ, where v is the velocity of the wave, f is the frequency of the wave, and λ is the wavelength of the wave.

To calculate the velocity of a wave, we use the formula : v = fλv

Substituting the given values into the formula

= (200 Hz)(0.50 m)v

= 100 m/s

Therefore, the velocity of the wave is 100 m/s.

To know more about velocity of the wave, refer

https://brainly.com/question/713613

#SPJ11

The hydrostatic difference in blood pressure between the brain and the foot is approximately 18,320 Pa.

The hydrostatic difference in blood pressure between the brain and the foot can be calculated using the formula
P = ρgh,
where P is the pressure difference,
ρ is the density of blood,
g is the acceleration due to gravity, and
h is the height difference.

Height (h) = 1.73 m

Density of blood (ρ) = 1.06 × 10³ kg/m³

Acceleration due to gravity (g) = 9.81 m/s²

Using the formula, we can calculate the pressure difference:

P = ρgh

P = (1.06 × 10³ kg/m³) × (9.81 m/s²) × (1.73 m)

P ≈ 18,320 Pa

To know more about "Hydrostatic" refer here:

https://brainly.com/question/28206120#

#SPJ11

Diameter punch is used to punch a hole through a steel plate that is in. thick and the force required to push the punch through the plate is 60,000 lb. The shear stress developed in the plate is 76,394 psi.

The objective is to calculate the shear stress developed in the plate. The formula for shear stress is given as follows:Shear stress (τ) = Force (F) / Area (A)The force required to drive the punch through the plate is 60,000 lb. The punch diameter is given as d = 1 inch.

The area of the punch can be calculated as follows:Area of the punch (A) = (π / 4) × d²where d = 1 inchA = (π / 4) × (1)²A = (3.1416 / 4) × 1A = 0.7854 in² The area of the punch is 0.7854 in².The area of the plate is equal to the area of the hole in the plate.

Area of the plate (A) = (π / 4) × d²where d = diameter of the hole in the plate.The diameter of the punch is 1 inch. Therefore, the diameter of the hole in the plate will also be 1 inch.The area of the plate is given by:A = (π / 4) × (1)²A = 0.7854 in²

The area of the plate is 0.7854 in².Substituting the values of force and area in the formula for shear stress, we get:Shear stress (τ) = Force (F) / Area (A)τ = 60,000 lb / 0.7854 in²τ = 76,394 psi  

Know more about Shear stress here:

https://brainly.com/question/20630976

#SPJ11

James (mass 81.0 kg) and Ramon (mass 67.0 kg) are 20.0 m apart on a frozen pond: James's speed is 0.91 m/s.

According to the law of conservation of momentum, the total momentum before and after an interaction remains constant if no external forces act on the system. In this scenario, the momentum of the system is conserved when Ramon pulls on the rope and gains a speed of 1.10 m/s.

We can start by calculating the total momentum of the system before the interaction. The momentum is given by the product of mass and velocity. Since there are no external forces, the initial total momentum is zero.

0 = (mass of James) * (velocity of James) + (mass of Ramon) * (velocity of Ramon)

We can rearrange the equation to solve for the velocity of James:

(velocity of James) = - [(mass of Ramon) * (velocity of Ramon)] / (mass of James)

Plugging in the given values:

(velocity of James) = - [(67.0 kg) * (1.10 m/s)] / (81.0 kg) ≈ -0.91 m/s

The negative sign indicates that James moves in the opposite direction of Ramon. Therefore, James's speed is approximately 0.91 m/s.

To know more about speed, refer here:

https://brainly.com/question/13263542#

#SPJ11

The primary effect of increasing the surface tension of the liquid is to increase the capillary force. Capillary forces arise due to the combined effects of adhesion and cohesion

When the surface tension of the liquid increases, the capillary rise will increase. It is because the increase in surface tension leads to an increase in the force that pulls the liquid upwards in a tube. is as follows;If you place a capillary tube in a beaker filled with water, the water surface inside the tube rises slightly higher than the level outside the tube.

This rise in water level is called capillary rise. The capillary rise is caused by the attraction between the molecules of the water and the molecules of the glass tube.This attraction is called capillary force or capillary action. The capillary force is due to the combined effect of adhesive and cohesive forces. The adhesive force is the attraction between the molecules of the liquid and the molecules of the solid surface, while the cohesive force is the attraction between the molecules of the liquid.

To know more about Capillary forces visit:-

https://brainly.com/question/31712223

#SPJ11

The field has a magnitude of 0.002 N/C when you are 1.8 meters away from a 40 NC point charge.

In order to find out how far away from a 40 NC point charge the field has a magnitude of 0.002 N/C, we can make use of Coulomb’s law which states that the electric field intensity is directly proportional to the inverse of the square of the distance from the point charge.

The formula for Coulomb’s law is:E = k q / r²Where E is the electric field intensity, k is Coulomb’s constant (9 x 10^9 N m² C^-2), q is the charge and r is the distance from the charge. We can use algebra to rearrange this formula to find the distance (r) from the charge: r = √(k q / E)

Plugging in the values we know, we get:r = √(9 x 10^9 x 40 x 10^-9 / 0.002)Simplifying this, we get:r = 1.8 m

Therefore, the field has a magnitude of 0.002 N/C when you are 1.8 meters away from a 40 NC point charge.

To learn more about charge visit;

brainly.com/question/13278945

#SPJ11

The results of Rutherford's experiment, in which alpha particles were fired toward thin metal foils, were surprising because (B) some of the alpha particles were reflected almost straight backward.

Rutherford's experiment, commonly known as the gold foil experiment, involved firing alpha particles (positively charged particles) at a thin metal foil. According to the prevailing model at the time, the plum pudding model, it was expected that the alpha particles would pass through the foil with minimal deflection.

However, the actual results of the experiment were surprising. Rutherford observed that some of the alpha particles were deflected at large angles, and, most notably, some were even reflected almost straight backward. This indicated that the positive charge and mass of the atom were concentrated in a small, dense region within the atom, which later became known as the atomic nucleus. This discovery led to the development of the nuclear model of the atom and revolutionized our understanding of atomic structure.

To know more about Rutherford's experiment, click here:

https://brainly.com/question/14996029

#SPJ11

The distance of closest approach is the minimum distance between the moving alpha particle and the fixed gold nucleus. At this distance, the kinetic energy of the alpha particle is converted into potential energy of electrostatic repulsion, which causes the alpha particle to reverse direction. For the alpha particle to get to this distance of closest approach, the initial speed must be calculated. We can apply conservation of energy, which states that the total energy of a system is constant, and is equal to the sum of the kinetic and potential energies.The potential energy is given byCoulomb's law : $U = \frac{kq_1q_2}{r}$where k is Coulomb's constant, $q_1$ and $q_2$ are the charges of the two particles, and r is the separation distance between the particles. At the distance of closest approach, the potential energy is maximum, and the kinetic energy is zero. Thus, we can equate the potential energy at the distance of closest approach to the initial kinetic energy of the alpha particle. That is,$U = \frac{kq_1q_2}{r} = \frac{2(79)e^2}{4\pi\epsilon_0(2.0\times10^{-10})}$ $= 9.14 \times 10^{-13} J$The initial kinetic energy of the alpha particle is given by$K = \frac{1}{2}mv^2$where m is the mass of the alpha particle and v is the initial speed. We can equate K to U. That is,$\frac{1}{2}mv^2 = \frac{kq_1q_2}{r}$Substituting the values,$\frac{1}{2}(6.64\times10^{-27})v^2 = 9.14\times10^{-13}$Solving for v,$v^2 = \frac{2(9.14\times10^{-13})}{6.64\times10^{-27}}$$v = 2.21\times10^7 m/s$Thus, the initial speed of the alpha particle is $2.21\times10^7 m/s$.

To know more about electrostatic repulsion visit

https://brainly.com/question/29425646

#SPJ11

The distance of a sensor from a charged electric field can be calculated by using Coulomb's law. Coulomb's law provides a mathematical expression for the electrostatic force between two charged objects. This law states that the force between two point charges is directly proportional to the product of the charges and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them.

The equation for Coulomb's law is:F = k q1 q2 / r²where F is the electrostatic force, q1 and q2 are the charges of the two objects, r is the distance between the two objects, and k is the Coulomb constant.

Using this equation, we can rearrange it to solve for the distance between two charged objects: r = sqrt(k q1 q2 / F)So, to calculate the distance of a sensor from a charged electric field, we need to know the electrostatic force between the two objects and the charges of the two objects.

Once we have these values, we can use the above equation to calculate the distance between them.

For more such questions on electric field, click on:

https://brainly.com/question/19878202

#SPJ8

A load cell is an essential sensor device used for converting a force, torque, pressure, or displacement into an electrical signal. It is a key component in electronic scales, force measuring instruments, and weighing devices. A student who designs an electric scooter uses a simple column type load cell with two strain gauges.

The load cell measures force or weight by converting the tension or compression acting on the load cell into an electrical signal. A load cell typically comprises four strain gauges that are arranged in a Wheatstone bridge configuration. A column type load cell is cylindrical in shape and is designed to measure loads in compression. It typically comprises two columns that are connected by a metal diaphragm. Two strain gauges are attached to the columns, one for measuring the compressive strain and the other for measuring the tensile strain.

The student designing an electric scooter uses a load cell to measure the weight of the rider and other loads on the scooter. The load cell is typically placed at the bottom of the scooter's frame, and the weight of the rider and the scooter is applied to it. The load cell measures the weight by converting the compression force acting on it into an electrical signal. The two strain gauges attached to the columns of the load cell measure the compressive and tensile strains, respectively. These strains are converted into an electrical signal using a Wheatstone bridge circuit, and the output of the bridge is proportional to the weight applied to the load cell.The student designing the electric scooter needs to select the right load cell for the application. The load cell must be able to measure the maximum weight that the scooter can carry. The column type load cell is suitable for measuring loads in compression, which is ideal for measuring the weight of the rider and the scooter. The two strain gauges attached to the columns of the load cell help to increase the sensitivity and accuracy of the load cell. The Wheatstone bridge circuit helps to convert the strain measurements into an electrical signal that can be processed by the scooter's control system.

To know more about sensor device visit :-

https://brainly.com/question/16980426

#SPJ11

The peak electromotive force (emf) generated in the coil is approximately 0.158 V.

To calculate the peak electromotive force (emf) generated in the coil, we can use Faraday's law of electromagnetic induction. The formula for the emf induced in a rotating coil is given by:

emf = N * A * ΔB / Δt

Where:

emf is the electromotive force (voltage)

N is the number of turns in the coil

A is the area of the coil

ΔB is the change in magnetic field strength

Δt is the change in time

In this case:

Number of turns (N) = 1000

Diameter of the coil (d) = 21 cm = 0.21 m

Radius of the coil (r) = 0.21 m / 2 = 0.105 m

Magnetic field strength (B) = 5.00 × 10⁻⁵ T

Change in time (Δt) = 11 ms = 11 × 10⁻³ s

First, let's calculate the area of the coil:

A = π * r²

A = π * (0.105 m)²

A ≈ 0.0347 m²

Next, let's calculate the change in magnetic field strength:

ΔB = B - 0

ΔB = 5.00 × 10⁻⁵ T - 0

ΔB = 5.00 × 10⁻⁵ T

Now we can calculate the peak emf:

emf = N * A * ΔB / Δt

emf = 1000 * 0.0347 m² * (5.00 × 10⁻⁵ T) / (11 × 10⁻³ s)

emf ≈ 0.158 V

Therefore, the peak electromotive force (emf) = 0.158 V.

Learn more about  electromotive force here:

https://brainly.com/question/30083242

#SPJ11

The peak emf generated in volts (V) by rotating a 1000-turn, 21 cm diameter coil in the Earth's 5.00 x 10-5 T magnetic field, given the plane of the coil is originally perpendicular to the Earth's field and is rotated to be parallel to the field in 11 ms is 3.3 V.

Given;

The number of turns, N = 1000

The diameter of the coil, d = 21 cm

Radius of the coil, r = 10.5 cm = 0.105 m

The Earth's magnetic field, B = 5.00 x 10^-5 T

Time of rotation, t = 11 ms = 11 x 10^-3 s

Area of the coil, A = πr^2

The initial angle between the plane of the coil and the Earth's magnetic field, θ1 = 90°The final angle between the plane of the coil and the Earth's magnetic field, θ2 = 0°

We know that the magnetic flux, φ = NBAcosθ

Where, A is the area of the coil, N is the number of turns, B is the magnetic field, and θ is the angle between the plane of the coil and the magnetic field.

dφ/dt = d(NBAcosθ)/dt = NBA(-sinθ)dθ/dt = NBA(-sinθ)(ω)

Now, the emf induced, ε = -dφ/dt = -NBAωsinθ

Using the values given, we have;

A = πr^2 = π(0.105)^2 m^2 = 0.0347 m^2N = 1000B = 5.00 x 10^-5 Tθ1 = 90°θ2 = 0°t = 11 x 10^-3 sω = θ2 - θ1/t = 90 - 0 / 11 x 10^-3 s = 8181.8 rad/sNow,ε = -NBAωsinθε = -(1000)(5.00 x 10^-5)(0.0347)(8181.8)sin90°ε = -15.8 V

Since emf is a scalar quantity, the peak emf induced = |ε|Peak emf = |-15.8| = 15.8 V

However, we know that the plane of the coil was rotated to be parallel to the field in 11 ms, hence, the time taken to move from an angle of 90° to 0° is t/4 = 11 x 10^-3/4 s = 2.75 x 10^-3 s

Therefore, the peak emf generated is;

Peak emf = ε/4 = -15.8/4Peak emf = 3.3 V

Therefore, the peak emf generated by rotating the coil in the Earth's magnetic field is 3.3 V.

Learn more about Earth's magnetic field: https://brainly.com/question/21475880

#SPJ11

It will take approximately 51 seconds to pump 11 gallons of gas at a rate of 49 liters per minute.

Given, 1 gallon = 3.78541 liters and the rate of the gasoline pumped is 49 liters per minute. We need to find out how many seconds it will take to pump 11 gallons of gas. In order to solve this problem, we can use the conversion factor method for the unit conversion.

First, we will convert gallons into liters, and then we will use the rate of gasoline to find the time taken to pump 11 gallons of gas.

Conversion of gallons into liters:11 gallons x 3.78541 liters per gallon = 41.63951 litersTo find the time taken to pump 41.63951 liters of gas:49 liters per minute = 1 minute/60 seconds = 0.8167 liters per second .Time taken to pump 41.63951 liters of gas= 41.63951/0.8167≈ 51 seconds . Therefore, it will take approximately 51 seconds to pump 11 gallons of gas at a rate of 49 liters per minute.

To know more about Pump  visit :

https://brainly.com/question/29760614

#SPJ11

The best coefficient of performance (COP) for a refrigerator that cools an environment at -28°C and transfers heat to another environment at 41°C is COP_ref = 5.74.

To find the coefficient of performance (COP_ref) of a refrigerator, we can use the formula:

COP_ref = Q_c / W

where Q_c represents the cooling capacity and W represents the work done.

Step 1: Finding the cooling capacity (Q_c):

The cooling capacity (Q_c) is given by the formula:

Q_c = m * C * ΔT

where m represents the mass of the substance being cooled, C represents the specific heat capacity of the substance, and ΔT represents the temperature difference.

Step 2: Finding the work done (W):

The work done (W) is given by the formula:

W = Q_h - Q_c

where Q_h represents the heat absorbed from the hot environment.

Step 3: Calculation:

Given that the cooling environment is at -28°C and the hot environment is at 41°C, we can calculate the temperature difference:

ΔT = T_h - T_c

   = (41 + 273) - (-28 + 273)

   = 314 K

Assuming a reversible refrigeration cycle, the work done (W) is equal to the heat absorbed from the hot environment (Q_h). Therefore:

W = Q_h

The best COP_ref occurs when W is minimized, which corresponds to a reversible process. In this case, the Carnot COP (COP_carnot) can be used as the maximum possible COP. The Carnot COP is given by:

COP_carnot = T_h / (T_h - T_c)

Substituting the given values:

COP_carnot = (41 + 273) / [(41 + 273) - (-28 + 273)]

          = 314 / 314

          = 1

Therefore, the best COP_ref for this refrigerator is equal to the Carnot COP, which is 1.

Note: If the COP_ref is given as a numerical value in the question, please provide that value for a more accurate calculation.

To know more about coefficient of performance refer here:

https://brainly.com/question/28175149#

#SPJ11

The object should be placed at a distance equal to the focal length of the mirror. In this case, the object should be placed at a distance of 25.4 cm from the mirror to produce an image that appears to be at infinity.

A concave mirror is a mirror with a curved reflective surface. When light rays hit a concave mirror, the mirror will reflect the rays inward, toward a focal point. A concave mirror's focal point is located along the mirror's axis of symmetry, halfway between the mirror's surface and its center of curvature. A concave mirror with a radius of curvature of 25.4 cm is used to project an image that appears to be at infinity. If the object is placed at a distance of 25.4 cm from the mirror, the image will be projected at infinity.

A concave mirror is a spherical mirror whose reflecting surface is curved inwards. A concave mirror is also known as a converging mirror since it reflects light that is converging towards the mirror's surface. The principal axis of a concave mirror is the line joining the center of curvature to the midpoint of the mirror's surface.A concave mirror is a curved mirror that is reflective on the inside of the curve. Because it reflects light inwards, it is also known as a converging mirror. The principal axis of a concave mirror is the line that connects the midpoint of the mirror to the center of curvature.

The formula for finding the distance from an object to a concave mirror when the image is at infinity is given as:1/f = 1/dob + 1/diwheref = focal length of the mirror;dob = distance of the object from the mirror; anddi = distance of the image from the mirror.If the image is at infinity, then the di can be taken as infinity. We can then simplify the above formula as:1/f = 1/dob + 0d_ob = fSo, the object should be placed at a distance equal to the focal length of the mirror. In this case, the object should be placed at a distance of 25.4 cm from the mirror to produce an image that appears to be at infinity.

To learn more about concave visit;

https://brainly.com/question/29142394

#SPJ11

The electric field strength at a distance of 2.0 cm from the surface of a 10-cm-diameter metal ball is 60,000 N/C.

The electric field strength measures the force experienced by a unit positive charge placed in an electric field. In this case, we have a metal ball with a diameter of 10 cm, which means its radius is 5 cm. The electric field strength is given as 60,000 N/C at a distance of 2.0 cm from the ball's surface.

The electric field strength near the surface of a charged conductor is directly proportional to the charge density on the surface. Since the metal ball is a conductor, the charge resides on the surface. The larger the charge density, the stronger the electric field will be.

Therefore, a high electric field strength of 60,000 N/C at a distance of 2.0 cm suggests a significant charge density on the ball's surface.

Learn more about electric field

brainly.com/question/11482745

#SPJ11

Water is in a compressed liquid state. Similar to the previous case, the entropy value can be obtained using the steam tables. Using the tables, the entropy value of water at 20oC and 10000 kPa is 0.5225 kJ/kg K. On the T-s diagram, the state is also indicated in the compressed liquid region.

Entropy is a measure of the degree of molecular disorder of a substance and can be calculated using the relationship:Delta S = \int\frac{\delta q}{T}where ΔS is the change in entropy, δq is the infinitesimal quantity of heat transferred, and T is the temperature.

At this point, water is a superheated vapor and therefore, its entropy value can be obtained using steam tables. Using the tables, the entropy value of water at 250oC and a specific volume of 0.02 m3/kg is 6.9109 kJ/kg K. On the T-s diagram, the state is indicated in the superheated vapor region.b) 20oC, 100 kPa: At this point, water is in a compressed liquid state

The entropy of compressed liquid water can also be found in the steam tables. Using the tables, the entropy value of water at 20oC and 100 kPa is 0.5225 kJ/kg K. On the T-s diagram, the state is indicated in the compressed liquid region.c) 20oC, 10 000 kPa: At this point, water is in a compressed liquid state. Similar to the previous case, the entropy value can be obtained using the steam tables.

To know more about entropy visit :

https://brainly.com/question/32484278

#SPJ11

The actual force of friction between the person’s shoes and the floor is 343 N.

To find out the actual force of friction between the person's shoes and the floor in the given scenario, we can use the formula of frictional force.

Frictional force = Normal force x coefficient of friction.

Here, the normal force is the force with which the person is pressing against the floor. It is equal to the person's weight (mass x gravity). Thus, Normal force = 70 kg x 9.8 m/s^2 = 686 N.

Now, we can substitute the given values in the formula of frictional force to get the actual force of friction.

Frictional force = 686 N x 0.5 = 343 N.

Thus, the actual force of friction between the person's shoes and the floor is 343 N.

For more such questions on force of friction, click on:

https://brainly.com/question/24386803

#SPJ8

The magnitude of the electric field at a location 2 cm away from a fly with a positive charge of 1.0 x 10⁽⁻¹⁰⁾ C is approximately 2.2475 x 10⁽⁻⁶⁾  N/C. The electric field is directed radially outward from the fly.

The magnitude and direction of the electric field at a location 2 cm away from the fly, we can use Coulomb's Law, which states that the electric field (E) created by a point charge is given by:

E = k * (|Q| / r²)

Where k is the electrostatic constant (k ≈ 8.99 × 10⁹ N m²/C²), |Q| is the magnitude of the charge, and r is the distance from the charge.

|Q| = 1.0 × 10⁽⁻¹⁰⁾) C

r = 2 cm = 0.02 m

Substituting the given values into the formula:

E = (8.99 × 10⁹ N m²/C²) * (1.0 × 10⁽⁻¹⁰⁾ C) / (0.02 m)²

E ≈ 2.2475 × 10⁽⁻⁶⁾  N/C

The magnitude of the electric field is approximately 2.2475 × 10⁽⁻⁶⁾  N/C.

Since the charge is positive, the direction of the electric field will be radially outward from the charge. Therefore, the direction of the electric field at a location 2 cm away from the fly is away from the fly, in the outward direction.

So, the magnitude of the electric field is approximately 2.2475 × 10⁽⁻⁶⁾ N/C, and its direction is away from the fly.

To learn more about electric field refer here:

https://brainly.com/question/11482745#

#SPJ11

The net gravitational force exerted by the 205 kg and 505 kg objects on a 37.0 kg object placed midway between them is: approximately 0.338 N and directed towards the center of the two objects.

To find the net gravitational force on the 37.0 kg object, we can use the formula for gravitational force:

F = G * (m1 * m2) / r²

Where:

F is the gravitational force,

G is the gravitational constant (approximately 6.674 × 10⁻¹¹) N(m/kg)²),

m1 and m2 are the masses of the objects, and

r is the distance between the centers of the objects.

In this case, we have two masses, 205 kg and 505 kg, and they are separated by a distance of 0.350 m. The 37.0 kg object is placed midway between them, so it is equidistant from both objects.

First, we calculate the force exerted by the 205 kg object on the 37.0 kg object:

F1 = G * (m1 * m3) / r²

= 6.674 × 10⁻¹¹ * (205 * 37.0) / (0.175)²

≈ 0.133 N

Next, we calculate the force exerted by the 505 kg object on the 37.0 kg object:

F2 = G * (m2 * m3) / r²

= 6.674 × 10⁻¹¹ * (505 * 37.0) / (0.175)²

≈ 0.205 N

The net gravitational force is the vector sum of these two forces:

Fnet = F1 + F2

= 0.133 N + 0.205 N

≈ 0.338 N

Since the 205 kg and 505 kg objects are symmetrically placed with respect to the 37.0 kg object, the net force is directed towards the center of the two objects.

To know more about gravitational force, refer here:

https://brainly.com/question/32609171#

#SPJ11

The initial point of the vector (3,5) with the terminal point (-20,9) is (23, -4).

Let's denote the initial point of the vector by (a, b). We can determine the initial point of the vector by subtracting the coordinates of the terminal point from the coordinates of the initial point as follows:(a, b) - (-20, 9) = (3, 5)So we have the following system of equations: a + 20 = 3b - 9 = 5Solving this system of equations, we get a = 23 and b = -4. Hence the initial point of the vector is (23, -4). The given vector has magnitude 8 and points in a direction 115 degrees counterclockwise from the positive x axis. Let's denote this vector by →v. To write the vector →v in terms of its components, we need to determine the horizontal and vertical components of the vector .Using the angle of 115 degrees, we can determine that the direction of the vector is the quadrant II.

Thus, the horizontal component of the vector is negative, and the vertical component of the vector is positive. We have:\[\begin{aligned} \cos(115^\circ) &= -\cos(180^\circ - 115^\circ) \\ &= -\cos(65^\circ) \\ &= -\frac{4}{5} \end{aligned}\]Thus, the horizontal component of the vector is -8cos(115°) = 6.4 (rounded to one decimal place).Similarly, we have:\[\begin{aligned} \sin(115^\circ) &= \sin(180^\circ - 115^\circ) \\ &= \sin(65^\circ) \\ &= \frac{3}{5} \end{aligned}\]Thus, the vertical component of the vector is 8sin(115°) = 4.8 (rounded to one decimal place).Therefore, the vector →v can be written as →v = (6.4, 4.8).

Know more about initial point, here:

https://brainly.com/question/31405084

#SPJ11

The child's angular displacement during a 1.0 s time interval is approximately 1.432 radians.

To determine the angular displacement of the child on the merry-go-round during a 1.0 s time interval, we can use the formula:

Angular Displacement (θ) = Angular Velocity (ω) × Time (t)

The angular velocity (ω) can be calculated by dividing the total angular displacement by the total time taken to complete one revolution.

In this case:

Time taken to go around once (T) = 4.4 s

Angular Velocity (ω) = 2π / T

Angular Velocity (ω) = 2π / 4.4 s ≈ 1.432 radians/s

Now, we can calculate the angular displacement during a 1.0 s time interval:

Angular Displacement (θ) = Angular Velocity (ω) × Time (t)

Angular Displacement (θ) = 1.432 radians/s × 1.0 s

Angular Displacement (θ) ≈ 1.432 radians

Learn more about angular displacement here:

https://brainly.com/question/31387317

#SPJ11

The angular displacement of the child during a 1.0 s time interval is 1.44 radian. The given values are, Time taken by the child to go around once, t = 4.4 s Time interval, t₁ = 1 s

Formula used: Angular displacement (θ) = (2π/t) × t₁. Substitute the given values in the formula, Angular displacement (θ) = (2π/t) × t₁= (2π/4.4) × 1= 1.44 radian. Thus, the angular displacement of the child during a 1.0 s time interval is 1.44 radian.

The change in the angular position of an object or a point in a rotational system is known as angular displacement and it measures the amount and direction of rotation from an initial position to a final position. Angular displacement is an important concept in physics and engineering, as it helps to describe a rotational motion.

To know more about angular displacement, refer

https://brainly.com/question/31150979

#SPJ11

The speed of the object after the interaction is approximately 2.24 m/s.

The total mechanical energy is conserved when no external forces, like friction or air resistance, act on a system. If energy is conserved, it means that the system's initial energy is equal to its final energy. The mechanical energy of a system is the sum of its kinetic energy and potential energy, which is written as follows:mechanical energy = kinetic energy + potential energy.

The mechanical energy of the system before interaction is the initial kinetic energy, which is expressed as follows:

[tex]KE_i = 0.5mv^2KE_i = 0.5(0.5 kg)(5 m/s)^2KE_i = 6.25 J[/tex].

The mechanical energy of the system after the interaction is the final kinetic energy, which can be found by subtracting the work released from the initial kinetic energy:

[tex]KE_f = KE_i - WKE_f = 6.25 J - 5 JKE_f = 1.25 J[/tex].

The final kinetic energy can now be used to find the final velocity of the object as follows:

[tex]KE_f = 0.5mv^2v^2[/tex]

        [tex]= (2KE_f) / mv^2[/tex]

        [tex]= (2 * 1.25 J) / 0.5 kgv^2[/tex]    

        [tex]= 5 JV_f[/tex]

        [tex]= \sqrt{v^2V_f}[/tex]

        [tex]= \sqrt{5 JV_f}[/tex]

        [tex]= 2.24 m/s[/tex]

Therefore, the speed of the object after the interaction is approximately 2.24 m/s.

For more such questions on speed, click on:

https://brainly.com/question/13943409

#SPJ8