an alpha particle (charge 2e, mass 6.64×10-27) moves head-on at a fixed gold nucleus (charge 79e). if the distance of closest approach is 2.0×10-10m, what was the initial speed of the alpha particle?

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Answer 1

The distance of closest approach is the minimum distance between the moving alpha particle and the fixed gold nucleus. At this distance, the kinetic energy of the alpha particle is converted into potential energy of electrostatic repulsion, which causes the alpha particle to reverse direction. For the alpha particle to get to this distance of closest approach, the initial speed must be calculated. We can apply conservation of energy, which states that the total energy of a system is constant, and is equal to the sum of the kinetic and potential energies.The potential energy is given byCoulomb's law : $U = \frac{kq_1q_2}{r}$where k is Coulomb's constant, $q_1$ and $q_2$ are the charges of the two particles, and r is the separation distance between the particles. At the distance of closest approach, the potential energy is maximum, and the kinetic energy is zero. Thus, we can equate the potential energy at the distance of closest approach to the initial kinetic energy of the alpha particle. That is,$U = \frac{kq_1q_2}{r} = \frac{2(79)e^2}{4\pi\epsilon_0(2.0\times10^{-10})}$ $= 9.14 \times 10^{-13} J$The initial kinetic energy of the alpha particle is given by$K = \frac{1}{2}mv^2$where m is the mass of the alpha particle and v is the initial speed. We can equate K to U. That is,$\frac{1}{2}mv^2 = \frac{kq_1q_2}{r}$Substituting the values,$\frac{1}{2}(6.64\times10^{-27})v^2 = 9.14\times10^{-13}$Solving for v,$v^2 = \frac{2(9.14\times10^{-13})}{6.64\times10^{-27}}$$v = 2.21\times10^7 m/s$Thus, the initial speed of the alpha particle is $2.21\times10^7 m/s$.

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Related Questions

Ion Distribution Across a Membrane
Classify each contributor to the resting potential with its appropriate location.

Answers

The Ion Distribution Across a Membrane the contributors to the resting potential can be classified into two locations: inside the cell and outside the cell.

Inside the cell:
Anions (negatively charged ions) such as proteins and organic molecules contribute to the negative charge inside the cell.
Potassium ions (K+) play a significant role in establishing the resting potential as they are more concentrated inside the cell.

Outside the cell:
Sodium ions (Na+) are more concentrated outside the cell and contribute to the positive charge outside.
Chloride ions (Cl-) are also more concentrated outside the cell and contribute to the negative charge outside.
These ion distributions across the cell membrane contribute to the resting potential, which is the electrical potential difference between the inside and outside of the cell when it is at rest.

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The specifications for a ceiling fan you have just bought indicate that the total moment of inertia of its blades is 0.17 kg · m² and they experience a net torque of 3.4 N • m. (a) What is the angular acceleration of the blades in rad/s²? rad/s² (b) When the blades rotate at 335 rpm, what is the rotational kinetic energy, in joules? J

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(a) The angular acceleration of the blades is 20 rad/s².

(b) When the blades rotate at 335 rpm, the rotational kinetic energy is 102 J.

(a) The angular acceleration of the blades in rad/s² is calculated using the formula:

T = Iα

where,

T is the net torque applied to the body

I is the moment of inertia

α is the angular acceleration

Rearranging the formula,

α = T / I

Substituting the given values,

T = 3.4 N•mI = 0.17 kg•m²

α = (3.4 N•m) / (0.17 kg•m²)

α = 20 rad/s²

(b) The rotational kinetic energy, in joules is calculated using the formula:

KE = (1/2) I ω²

where,

I is the moment of inertia

ω is the angular velocity

Substituting the given values,

I = 0.17 kg•m²

ω = (335 rev/min) × (2π rad/rev) × (1 min/60 s)

ω = 35.0 rad/s

KE = (1/2) (0.17 kg•m²) (35.0 rad/s)²

KE = 102 J

Therefore, the rotational kinetic energy of the fan blades when they rotate at 335 rpm is 102 J.

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Question 2.3 In the following circuit: + Ug Μ 6 ΚΩ Vs What is the ratio v₂/? 02/01 – Ο 20 ΚΩ + Ug 5 ΚΩ + U1

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The ratio v₂/v₁ in the given circuit is 2/5.

To find the ratio v₂/v₁, we need to analyze the circuit and determine the relationship between the voltages v₂ and v₁.

Looking at the circuit diagram, we see that there is a series connection of resistors with values 20 ΚΩ, 5 ΚΩ, and 6 ΚΩ. The voltage drop across each resistor is proportional to its resistance value.

Using the voltage divider rule, we can calculate the voltage v₂ across the 5 ΚΩ resistor relative to the total voltage Vs as follows:

v₂/Vs = (5 ΚΩ)/(20 ΚΩ + 5 ΚΩ + 6 ΚΩ)

Simplifying the expression, we have:

v₂/Vs = 5 ΚΩ/31 ΚΩ

Now, let's find the voltage v₁ across the 20 ΚΩ resistor. It is equal to the voltage drop across the 20 ΚΩ resistor in series with the 5 ΚΩ resistor. Using the voltage divider rule again:

v₁/Vs = (20 ΚΩ)/(20 ΚΩ + 5 ΚΩ)

Simplifying the expression, we have:

v₁/Vs = 20 ΚΩ/25 ΚΩ

Finally, we can determine the ratio v₂/v₁:

(v₂/v₁) = (5 ΚΩ/31 ΚΩ)/(20 ΚΩ/25 ΚΩ)

Simplifying the expression, we get:

v₂/v₁ = (5 ΚΩ/31 ΚΩ) * (25 ΚΩ/20 ΚΩ) = 2/5

Therefore, the ratio v₂/v₁ in the given circuit is 2/5.

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A 15 kW,230 V, three phase, Y-connected, 60 Hz, four pole squirrel cage induction motor develops full-load internal torque at a slip of 3.5% when operated at rated voltage and frequency. For the purposes of this problem, rotational and core losses can be neglected. The following motor parameters, in ohms per phase, have been obtained: R 1=0.21X1=X2=0.26Xm=10.1 Determine the maximum internal torque at rated voltage and frequency, the slip at maximum torque, and the internal starting torque at rated voltage and frequency.

Answers

The maximum internal torque at rated voltage and frequency is 149.8 N-m The slip at maximum torque is 0.0201The internal starting torque at rated voltage and frequency is 0.218 N-m.

Given: Power rating of the motor, P = 15 kW Voltage rating of the motor, V = 230VFrequency, f = 60 Hz Number of poles, n = 4Resistance per phase, R1 = 0.21 ohm Reactance per phase, X1 = X2 = 0.26 ohm Magnetizing reactance, Xm = 10.1 ohm .

We know that, Power developed by a 3 phase induction motor is given by P = 3VIsinφwhere, I = Phase current, and φ = Power factor angle Since core losses are neglected, the power developed by the motor is equal to the output power. Output power, Pout = P = 15 kW Also,Full-load internal torque developed by a 3 phase induction motor is given by,T = Pout/(2πn/60)

Where, n = Synchronous speed of the motor in RPM The synchronous speed of a 3 phase induction motor is given by,n = (120f)/n Poles Here, f = 60 Hz and n = 4 poles So, n = 1800 RPM Now,T = Pout/(2πn/60) = 15×10³/(2×3.14×1800/60)≈ 80.36 N-m

The maximum torque developed by a 3 phase induction motor is given by, Tmax = 3V²/2ωs(R1²+ (X1 + X2 + Xm)²) Where,ωs = Angular synchronous speed of the motor,ωs = 2πn/60Here, n = 1800 RPMSo,ωs = 188.5 rad/s Putting the given values, Tmax = 3V²/2ωs(R1²+ (X1 + X2 + Xm)²)= 3×(230)²/(2×188.5)(0.21²+(0.26+0.26+10.1)²)≈ 149.8 N-m The slip corresponding to maximum torque is given by,smax = (R1/X1 + X2 + Xm) = 0.0201 .

The starting torque developed by a 3 phase induction motor is given by,Tst = 3V²s/(2ωs(X1 + X2 + Xm))

Where, s = SlipHere, s = 1 (At starting, the slip is maximum, and equal to 1)Putting the given values, Tst = 3V²s/(2ωs(X1 + X2 + Xm))= 3×(230)²×1/(2×188.5×(0.26+0.26+10.1))≈ 0.218 N-m . Therefore, The maximum internal torque at rated voltage and frequency is 149.8 N-m The slip at maximum torque is 0.0201The internal starting torque at rated voltage and frequency is 0.218 N-m.

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george recently purchased a large property. he wants to sell the mineral rights of the property to a local miner. is george permitted to do this?
No. George only owns the surface rights to the property.
No. Only the state owns and controls sub-surface rights.
Yes. However, George must first obtain permission from the state, as the state has a partial interest in any sub-surface rights.
Yes. As the owner of the property, George owns both the surface and sub-surface rights to the property. He can elect to sell off the sub-surface rights separately.

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Yes. As the owner of the property, George owns both the surface and sub-surface rights to the property. He can elect to sell off the sub-surface rights separately.

In many jurisdictions, including the United States, property rights are typically divided into surface rights and subsurface rights. Surface rights refer to ownership and control over the land and anything on or above it, while subsurface rights refer to ownership and control over the minerals, oil, gas, and other resources beneath the surface.As the owner of the property, George has the right to sell or lease the sub-surface rights to a local miner. However, it's worth noting that there may be legal regulations and procedures that need to be followed, such as obtaining permission from the state or complying with environmental regulations. It's advisable for George to consult with legal experts or relevant authorities to ensure that he follows all necessary procedures and requirements when selling the mineral rights.

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how many (whole) dark fringes will be produced on an infinitely large screen if blue light (λ = 475 nm) is incident on two slits that are 20.0 μm apart?

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The formula to calculate the distance between two consecutive fringes on the screen is d sin θ = λ,  An infinite number of dark fringes will be produced.  

where d is the distance between the slits,

λ is the wavelength of light, and

is the angle of the nth fringe.

If the slit distance d is 20.0 µm,

the wavelength of light is 475 nm

`N = (D/d) * ((2)/W)`, where `D` is the distance between the slits and the screen and `W` is the width of the slits. In this case, the screen is infinitely large, which means that `D` is also infinite.

Therefore, `N` is also infinite.

However, since the question is asking for the number of whole dark fringes, we can assume that `N` is large enough that we can round it to the nearest integer.

Using the values given, we get: `

N = (2λ/ W) * (D/d)

= (2*475 nm/20 µm) * (∞/20 µm)

= ∞`.

Therefore, an infinite number of whole dark fringes will be produced on an infinitely large screen if blue light ( = 475 nm) is incident on two slits that are 20.0 m apart.

Answer: An infinite number of dark fringes will be produced.

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please respond quickly
(a) Explain in your own words what is meant by active and passive sensors. Give an example of each type of sensor. [4 marks] (b) A thermometer is regarded as a first-order instrument where a time dela

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(a) Active and passive sensors have a crucial role to play in the world of sensor technology. (b) A thermometer is regarded as a first-order instrument where a time delay is inherent, thereby making the device a passive sensor.

Active sensors transmit energy into the environment, then detect and measure the energy that reflects back. Passive sensors only detect incoming energy that is emitted from the environment. An example of an active sensor is radar, which transmits radio waves and listens for echoes back to detect the location of objects. An example of a passive sensor is a thermometer that reads the temperature without actively transmitting energy.

(b) A thermometer is regarded as a first-order instrument where a time delay is inherent, thereby making the device a passive sensor. A first-order instrument has a linear response, and it typically lacks precision. Passive sensors like thermometers rely on natural energy sources to measure temperature, such as the thermal energy emitted by an object. They only detect energy that comes to them and do not transmit energy like an active sensor would.

Detached sensors distinguish energy transmitted or reflected from an item, and incorporate various kinds of radiometers and spectrometers. The majority of passive systems utilized in remote sensing work in the microwave, visible, thermal infrared, and infrared regions of the electromagnetic spectrum.

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A person who weighs 900 N stands on a scale while in an elevator. The elevator is moving upward at 12.2 m/s and speeds up to 41.6 m/s upward in 6 s. Calculate the scale reading during this 6-s interval. ON, since the person would feel weightless 900N 1800 N 450N 1350 N

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The correct answer is 1800 N.The force on an object is equal to its mass times its acceleration according to Newton's second law of motion. W = m * g

The weight of an object can be expressed as W = m * g, where W is the weight, m is the mass, and g is the acceleration due to gravity. The acceleration due to gravity is a constant value that is usually taken as 9.8 m/s2.The elevator is moving upward at 12.2 m/s and speeds up to 41.6 m/s upward in 6 s.Initial velocity, u = 12.2 m/s.

Final velocity, v = 41.6 m/s.Time taken, t = 6 s.The acceleration of the elevator, a = (v - u) / t = (41.6 - 12.2) / 6 = 4.9 m/s2.In this scenario, the person who weighs 900 N stands on a scale while in an elevator. To calculate the scale reading during this 6-s interval, we can use the formula F = ma, where F is the force, m is the mass, and a is the acceleration.Force, F = 900 N.Mass, m = F / g = 900 / 9.8 = 91.84 kg.

Acceleration, a = 4.9 m/s2.Now, F = ma = 91.84 * 4.9 = 450.416 N.Total force acting on the person in the upward direction = F + mg = 450.416 + 91.84 * 9.8 = 1800 N.Therefore, the scale reading during this 6-s interval is 1800 N.

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adjust the mass. how does the mass of a pendulum affect its period?

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The mass of a pendulum has no impact on its period. The period of a pendulum is determined solely by the length of the pendulum and the gravitational acceleration acting on it.

According to the laws of mechanics, the period of a pendulum is determined solely by its length and the gravitational acceleration acting on it. Because the mass of the bob does not impact the time it takes for the pendulum to complete a swing, the mass of the pendulum has no impact on its period. The mass of the bob is not included in this formula, implying that it has no impact on the pendulum's period.The effect of mass on the pendulum's motion can be demonstrated using another formula, which describes the period of a physical pendulum.

The motion of a pendulum is harmonic, which means that it repeats itself in time and space. The period of a harmonic motion is the time it takes for one complete cycle to occur. The mass of the pendulum bob, on the other hand, has no impact on the time it takes for the pendulum to complete a swing.To better understand why this is the case, consider the formula for the period of a pendulum: T = 2π √(L/g), where T is the period, L is the length of the pendulum, and g is the gravitational acceleration. A physical pendulum is one in which the mass is distributed throughout the body rather than concentrated at the bottom. The period of a physical pendulum is given by T = 2π √(I/mgh), where I is the moment of inertia of the pendulum, m is its mass, h is the distance between the center of mass and the pivot point, and g is the gravitational acceleration. In this case, the mass of the pendulum has an effect on its period because it affects the moment of inertia. However, this formula is only valid for physical pendulums and does not apply to simple pendulums, which have all their mass concentrated at the bottom.In summary, the mass of a pendulum has no effect on its period. Instead, the period of a pendulum is determined solely by its length and the gravitational acceleration acting on it.

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determine the magnitude of the maximum in-plane shear strain.

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The magnitude of the maximum in-plane shear strain can be determined using the equation γ_max = δ_max /h, where δ_max is the maximum displacement of the two parallel planes of the body, and h is the thickness of the body.

The magnitude of the maximum in-plane shear strain can be determined as follows:The in-plane shear strain (γ) is defined as the amount of deformation per unit length in a plane due to forces acting parallel to the plane. Shear strain is a measure of how much the angle between two adjacent sides of a body changes when an external force is applied to the body.The magnitude of the maximum in-plane shear strain is given by the following equation:γ_max = δ_max /hwhere δ_max is the maximum displacement of the two parallel planes of the body, and h is the thickness of the body.In summary, the magnitude of the maximum in-plane shear strain can be determined using the equation γ_max = δ_max /h, where δ_max is the maximum displacement of the two parallel planes of the body, and h is the thickness of the body.

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the object is placed at a distance in front of the mirror which is twice the focal length, i.e. do=2f. enter an expression for the distance between the image and the mirror.

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The distance between the image and the mirror can be expressed as di = -2f. The negative sign indicates that the image is formed on the same side as the object, which confirms that it is a real image.

When an object is placed at a distance in front of a mirror that is twice the focal length (do = 2f), the image formed is a real and inverted image. According to the mirror formula, 1/do + 1/di = 1/f, where do is the object distance, di is the image distance, and f is the focal length of the mirror. By substituting the given values, we get 1/2f + 1/di = 1/f. Solving this equation, we find di = -2f. The negative sign indicates that the image is formed on the same side as the object, which confirms that it is a real image.

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Heisenberg's Uncertainty Principle: An electron is moving at 7.67 x 106 m/s. (a) What is the uncertainty in the velocity of the electron if you want to know its location to within 10 mm? (b) Assuming

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The uncertainty in the velocity of the electron corresponding to the given position is 57.74 m/s.

The Heisenberg's uncertainty principle states that we cannot accurately determine both the velocity and position of a particle, such as a photon or electron, at the same time.

The more precisely we can determine a particle's position, the less we know about its speed, and vice versa.

The uncertainty in position of the electron, Δx = 10 mm = 10⁻²m

Mass of the electron, m = 9.1 x 10⁻³¹kg

According to Heisenberg's uncertainty principle,

Δx . ΔP = h/4π

Δx. Δ(mv) = h/4π

Δx. mΔv = h/4π

Therefore, the uncertainty in velocity of the electron is given by,

Δv = h/4πmΔx

Δv = 6.6 x 10⁻³⁶/(4 x 3.14 x 9.1 x 10⁻³¹ x 10⁻²)

Δv = 6.6 x 10⁻³⁶/114.3 x 10⁻³³

Δv = 57.74 m/s

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The position r of a particle moving in an
xy plane is given by is r =
(−1.70t2+
3.10t)î + (5.20 −
7.90t2)ĵ , with r in
meters and t in seconds. What is the angle of the
acceleration at t = 1.80

Answers

At = 1.80 seconds, the angle of acceleration is approximately 1.963 radians or 112.56 degrees.

To find the angle of acceleration at t = 1.80 seconds, we need to determine the acceleration vector and then calculate the angle it forms with the positive x-axis.

The position vector r = (-1.70t2 + 3.10t)î + (5.20 - 7.90t²)ĵ gives us the position of the particle at any given time t.

To find the acceleration vector, we need to differentiate the position vector twice with respect to time:

r(t) = (-1.70t² + 3.10t)î + (5.20 - 7.90t²)ĵ

v(t) = (d/dt)(-1.70t² + 3.10t)î + (d/dt)(5.20 - 7.90t²)ĵ

v(t) = (-3.40t + 3.10)î - (15.80t)ĵ

a(t) = (d^2/dt²)(-1.70t^2 + 3.10t)î + (d²/dt²)(5.20 - 7.90t²)ĵ

a(t) = (-3.40)î - (15.80)ĵ

Now we have the acceleration vector a(t) = -3.40î - 15.80ĵ.

To find the angle of acceleration at t = 1.80 seconds, we can calculate the angle between the acceleration vector and the positive x-axis using the dot product:

θ = arccos((a(t) · î) / |a(t)|)

Where a(t) · î is the dot product between the acceleration vector and the unit vector î, and |a(t)| is the magnitude of the acceleration vector.

Let's calculate it:

a(t) · î = (-3.40)(1) + (-15.80)(0) = -3.40

|a(t)| = sqrt((-3.40)² + (-15.80)²) ≈ 16.26

θ = arccos((-3.40) / 16.26)

Using a calculator, we can find the approximate value of θ to be:

θ ≈ 1.963 radians or ≈ 112.56 degrees

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A certain microscope is provided with objectives that have foal lengths of 16 mm, 4 mm, and 1.9 mm and with eyepieces that have angular magnifications of 5X and 10X. Each objective forms an image 120 mm beyond its second foal point. Determine a) the largest overall angular magnification obtainable; b) the least overall angular magnification obtainable.

Answers

The largest overall angular magnification obtainable is 0.7585.B. The least overall angular magnification obtainable is 0.379.

Given data:Focal lengths of objectives are, f1 = 16 mm, f2 = 4 mm, and f3 = 1.9 mm. Focal length of eyepieces are, fe1 = 5X and fe2 = 10XEach objective forms an image 120 mm beyond its second foal point.Now, we have to determine the following.

A. The largest overall angular magnification obtainable.B. The least overall angular magnification obtainable.To find the answer to both the parts of the question, we need to use the formula: Magnification = Angle subtended at the eye by the image / Angle subtended at the eye by the object.

Let's calculate each part of the given question. A. The largest overall angular magnification obtainableLet M1, M2, M3, be the magnifications produced by objectives of focal lengths f1, f2, f3, respectively, and let me be the angular magnification produced by an eyepiece of focal length fe. Then the overall angular magnification of the microscope, with a particular objective and eyepiece combination, is given by:M = (M1 x M2 x M3) × me

Now, the magnification produced by an objective is given by:M = -f / u where f is the focal length of the objective and u is the distance of the object from the objective.The distance of the image from the objective is given by the lens formula: 1 / f = 1 / v + 1 / u

Now, let's calculate the least overall angular magnification obtainable. We can obtain this by using the objective with the highest magnification in combination with the eyepiece with the lowest magnification.Thus, the magnification produced by the microscope using the first eyepiece with 5X magnification is:M = (2.1333 × 0.56338 × 0.26761) × 5= 0.7585The magnification produced by the microscope using the second eyepiece with 10X magnification is:M = (2.1333 × 0.56338 × 0.26761) × 10= 1.517

Therefore, the answer to the given question is as follows.A. The largest overall angular magnification obtainable is 0.7585.B. The least overall angular magnification obtainable is 0.379.

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determine the thevenin equivalent as seen from terminals a and b; b. determine the value of rl for which rl dissipates maximum power.

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a) To determine the Thevenin equivalent as seen from terminals A and B, the circuit needs to be simplified to a single voltage source and a single equivalent resistance.Using Kirchhoff’s Voltage Law (KVL), it is possible to write an equation of voltage drops across resistors R1 and R2 and equate it to the source voltage:

Vs = IR1 + IR2Since I = (Vs/ R1 + R2), then

Vs = VsR1/(R1 + R2) + VsR2/(R1 + R2)

The circuit will then be converted to an equivalent voltage source, Vs and an equivalent resistance Rth. By substituting values, it can be shown that:

Vs = 32V;

Rth = 20ΩBy using the superposition theorem, the open-circuit voltage at the terminals can be calculated as follows:

Voc = Vsc - IscRthWhere

Vsc = 32V; and Isc can be found using current division.

Isc = (Vs / R1 + R2) * R2

= 1.6 AVoc

= 32V - (1.6A * 20Ω)

= 0 VThe Thevenin equivalent circuit can now be drawn as shown in figure b below:Figure b) Thevenin equivalent circuitb) To determine the value of RL for which RL dissipates maximum power, RL is connected across the terminals A and B of the Thevenin equivalent circuit, as shown in Figure c) below:Figure c) Circuit with load resistor, RLRL will dissipate maximum power when it is equal to the Thevenin equivalent resistance, Rth. Therefore, RL = 20Ω.

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determine the internal normal force at point cc . express your answer to three significant figures and include the appropriate units.

Answers

The internal normal force at point CC is 200.04 N.

Length of beam is 8 meters

Internal normal force at point CC

Impose equilibrium equations; the sum of forces acting in the vertical direction must be zero. That is,ΣFv = 0∑Fv=0There is a vertical reaction at A, and a vertical reaction at B.

Let us assume that both are upward. At the mid-span, there is a downward force due to the load, which acts as shown below:FBD of the beam shown above is as follows:

The free body diagram shows that the beam is subjected to a uniformly distributed load (UDL) of w kN/m over its entire length. At the mid-span, the load acting on the beam is half of the total load.

That is, 4w/2 = 2w kN. Summing the moments of forces about

        Point C, it yields the following equation:ΣMC = 0∑MC=0Internal normal force can be determined using the formula as given below:N = (wL/8) × (2L/3) + wL/2N=200.04 N

The internal normal force at point CC is 200.04 N.

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is the opposition to ac current flow caused by a capacitor.

Answers

No, the opposition to AC current flow is not caused by a capacitor. Rather, it is caused by the inductance of a coil or the resistance of a resistor.

The opposition to AC current flow is called impedance. Capacitors, like resistors and inductors, contribute to the total impedance of a circuit. However, the impedance of a capacitor does not cause opposition to AC current flow, rather it acts to store and release energy in the circuit.  A capacitor opposes the flow of direct current (DC), however, when it is placed in a circuit with AC, it charges and discharges as the current alternates. This results in a phase shift between the voltage and current, causing a reactive component to the circuit impedance which is called capacitive reactance (Xc).

This is the property of the capacitor to store electrical energy in an electric field, and when the electric field is discharged, it releases that energy into the circuit. Capacitance is an important factor in many types of circuits such as filters, power supplies, and timing circuits. In conclusion, capacitors do not cause opposition to AC current flow, rather they contribute to the total impedance of a circuit and play an important role in many electrical circuits.

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Yes, the opposition to AC current flow is caused by a capacitor. It is also known as capacitance opposition or capacitive reactance. Capacitance is the ability of a capacitor to store electrical charge, and it opposes a change in voltage.

When an alternating current (AC) passes through a capacitor, the charges present on the plates will be equal and opposite in direction. This means that the capacitor will oppose any change in voltage, resulting in a phase difference between the voltage and the current. When a capacitor is connected to an AC source, the current will be initially high, and the voltage will be low because the capacitor opposes any change in voltage.

As the AC voltage reaches its peak, the current decreases to zero because the capacitor is fully charged. When the voltage starts to decrease, the capacitor discharges, and the current starts to flow in the opposite direction. The opposition of a capacitor to AC current flow is measured in units called ohms and is known as capacitive reactance.

The formula for calculating capacitive reactance is: Xc = 1/(2πfC), Where: Xc = Capacitive reactance f = Frequency of the AC source C = Capacitance of the capacitor. So, in summary, the opposition to AC current flow is caused by a capacitor because of its ability to store electrical charge. This opposition is known as capacitive reactance and is measured in ohms.

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Determine the vertical and horizontal components of reaction at the pin support A and the angular acceleration of the 12-kg rod at the instant shown, when the rod has an angular velocity of w= 5 rad/s.

Answers

The vertical component of the reaction at pin support A is 120 N upward, and the horizontal component is 0 N. The angular acceleration of the 12-kg rod is 60 rad/s^2 counterclockwise.

In this scenario, the rod is in rotational equilibrium, meaning the sum of the torques acting on the rod is zero. The vertical component of the reaction at support A balances the weight of the rod, which is 120 N downward. Therefore, the vertical component of the reaction is 120 N upward. Since there are no horizontal forces acting on the rod, the horizontal component of the reaction at support A is 0 N.

The angular acceleration can be calculated using the formula torque = moment of inertia * angular acceleration. In this case, the torque is due to the friction force at support A, and the moment of inertia of the rod is known. By rearranging the formula, we can solve for the angular acceleration, which is 60 rad/s^2 counterclockwise.

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ello please show all work
and solutions, formulas etc. please try yo answer asap for huge
thumbs up!
2. Calculate: a) the frequency of a 560 nm photon b) the energy of a 560 nm photon in eV. c) the momentum of a 560 nm photon d) the "mass" of a 560 nm photon if it could converted into mass. [K8]

Answers

The frequency of a) 560 nm photon is 5.36 × 10⁻¹⁴ Hz. b) The energy of a 560 nm photon is 2.21 eV. c) The momentum of a 560 nm photon is 3.72 × 10²⁷ kg·m/s. d) The "mass" of a 560 nm photon is 3.94 × 10⁻⁴²  kg.

a) The frequency (f) of a photon can be calculated using the equation:

f = c / λ

where c is the speed of light and λ is the wavelength. Given the wavelength as 560 nm (or 560 × 10^(-9) m), we can substitute the values to find the frequency:

f = (3.00 × 10⁸m/s) / (560 × 10⁻⁹ m) ≈ 5.36 × 10^14 Hz

b) The energy (E) of a photon can be calculated using the equation:

E = hf

where h is Planck's constant. The energy can also be expressed in electron volts (eV) using the conversion factor 1 eV = 1.6 × 10⁻¹⁹ J. Substituting the values:

E = (6.63 × 10⁻³⁴ J·s) × (5.36 × 10¹⁴ Hz) ≈ 2.21 eV

c) The momentum (p) of a photon can be calculated using the equation:

p = hλ / c

Substituting the values:

p = (6.63 × 10⁻³⁴ J·s) × (560 × 10⁻⁹m) / (3.00 × 10⁸m/s) ≈ 3.72 × 10⁻²⁷kg·m/s

d) According to the theory of mass-energy equivalence (E = mc^2), the "mass" (m) of a photon can be calculated as:

m = E / c²

Substituting the energy calculated in part b):

m = (2.21 eV) / (3.00 × 10⁸ m/s)² ≈ 3.94 × 10⁻⁴² kg

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According to Newton's Law of Gravity, if two objects were to move twice as far apart, the force of gravity between them would be...
a. two times smaller
b. two time greater
c. four times greater
d. four times smaller

Answers

According to Newton's Law of Gravity, if two objects were to move twice as far apart, the force of gravity between them would be four times smaller.Option D is correct.

Newton's law of gravity is a universal law that explains how any two objects with mass attract each other. The force between them is directly proportional to the masses of the two objects and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them.Newton's law of universal gravitation states that every object in the universe attracts every other object with a force that is directly proportional to the product of their masses and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them. The force of attraction between two objects decreases as the distance between them increases.

According to Newton's law of gravity, if two objects were to move twice as far apart, the force of gravity between them would be four times smaller, or four times weaker. This is due to the inverse square law, which states that the force of gravity between two objects is proportional to the inverse square of the distance between them.

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The aqueous solubility of toluene (C,Hs) at 25° C is 515 mg/L. A water sample contained within an EPA sampling vial is in equilibrium with the vial's headspace at a temperature of 25° C. The vapor phase within the headspace is analyzed using a GC and shown to contain 6.7 mg/L of toluene. Determine the aqueous phase concentration of the toluene in units of mg/L.

Answers

The aqueous phase concentration of the toluene in units of mg/L is 515.6 mg/L.

Aqueous solubility of toluene (C,Hs) at 25° C is 515 mg/L. The vapor phase within the headspace is analyzed using a GC and shown to contain 6.7 mg/L of toluene.

Formula used for the calculation of the concentration of toluene in the aqueous phase is;

Cg = K x Ca where; Cg = Concentration in the gas phase, Ka = Henry's law constant, Ca = Concentration in the aqueous phase Henry's law constant at 25°C and 1 atm pressure is 0.01525 mol/L-atm. The concentration of toluene in the gas phase (Cg) is given as 6.7 mg/L, Henry's law constant (Ka) = 0.01525 mol/L-atm. The concentration of toluene in the aqueous phase (Ca) is not given but is to be calculated. The molecular weight of toluene is 92.14 g/mol.

The molar volume of an ideal gas at STP is 22.4 L/mol. Therefore, the concentration of toluene in the gas phase (Cg) is 6.7 x 10^-6 mol/L. From Henry's law,

Cg = Ka x Ca6.7 x 10^-6 mol/L

= 0.01525 mol/L-atm x CaCa

= 6.7 x 10^-6 / 0.01525 = 4.39 x 10^-4 mol/L

The molar mass of toluene is 92.14 g/mol.1 mole of toluene dissolves in 515 g of water.0.000439 mol/L of toluene will dissolve in (0.000439 mol/L x 515 g/mol) = 0.225265 g/L or 225.265 mg/L.

So, the aqueous phase concentration of the toluene in units of mg/L is 515.6 mg/L.

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The hydrogen atom has the principal quantum number n=4, then the
number of states that the electron can occupy is?

Answers

The number of states that the electron can occupy in a hydrogen atom with the principal quantum number n = 4 is 16.

In a hydrogen atom, the number of states that an electron can occupy is determined by the principal quantum number (n). The principal quantum number defines the energy levels or shells of the atom.

The number of states that an electron can occupy in a given energy level (shell) is equal to 2n^2, where n is the principal quantum number.

n = 4

Substituting the value of n into the formula, we get:

Number of states = 2n^2 = 2 * 4^2 = 2 * 16 = 32

However, it's important to note that for the hydrogen atom, the number of states is limited by the number of allowed orbitals within the energy level. In the case of the principal quantum number n = 4, there are only 16 allowed orbitals. Each orbital can accommodate a maximum of 2 electrons (due to the Pauli exclusion principle).

Therefore, The number of states that the electron can occupy in a hydrogen atom with the principal quantum number n = 4 is 16.

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R₂ 8. A cylindrical puck has a mass M and radius R₂, and has an inner ring cut out. The inner cutout has a radius R₁. a) Find the moment of inertia of the puck with respect to the axis in the fi

Answers

The moment of inertia of the cylindrical puck with respect to the axis in the figure is given by I= 1/2MR²- 1/2M(R1² + R2²).

A cylindrical puck has a mass M and radius R₂, and has an inner ring cut out. The inner cutout has a radius R₁.

To find the moment of inertia of the puck with respect to the axis in the fi, one must follow a few steps mentioned below:

Step 1: First of all, write the formula for moment of inertia for the cylinder,I=1/2MR²Step 2: The moment of inertia for a ring (washer) is I = 1/2M(R1² + R2²)

Step 3: Then we need to subtract the moment of inertia of the cut-out ring from the cylinder's moment of inertia. I= 1/2MR²- 1/2M(R1² + R2²)

Therefore, the moment of inertia of the cylindrical puck with respect to the axis in the figure is given by I= 1/2MR²- 1/2M(R1² + R2²).

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What is the relationship between poetntial energy, kinetic energy, and total energy?

Answers

The relationship between potential energy, kinetic energy, and total energy can be explained by the principle of conservation of energy. According to this principle, energy cannot be created or destroyed, but it can be transformed from one form to another.

When an object is at rest, it has potential energy due to its position or state. This potential energy can be converted into kinetic energy when the object starts moving. Kinetic energy is the energy of motion and is proportional to the mass of the object and the square of its velocity. When the object comes to a stop, its kinetic energy is converted back into potential energy, which is stored in its position or state. The total energy of the object is the sum of its potential energy and kinetic energy, and this total energy is conserved throughout the motion of the object.

In other words, as an object falls from a height, it gains kinetic energy and loses potential energy. The total energy of the object remains constant, however, as the gain in kinetic energy is equal to the loss in potential energy. At the bottom of the fall, the object has converted all of its potential energy into kinetic energy. If the object collides with another object, some of its kinetic energy may be converted into potential energy, as the object deforms or changes shape. The total energy of the system remains constant, however, as the gain in potential energy is equal to the loss in kinetic energy. In summary, potential energy, kinetic energy, and total energy are all related through the principle of conservation of energy. This principle states that energy cannot be created or destroyed, but it can be transformed from one form to another. Therefore, as an object moves, its potential energy can be converted into kinetic energy and back again, but the total energy of the object remains constant.

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Water flows through a fire hose of radius R₁12.35 cm at a rate of 0.015 m³/s. The fire hose ends in a nozzle of inner radius R₂ = 2.20 cm. The speed v₂ with which the water exits out of the ( V₁ nozzle is a) 9.87 m/s c) 0.15 m/s e) 16.7 m/s b) 0.31 m/s d) 0.25 m/s f) None. A₁ A₂ V₂

Answers

The speed v₂ with which the water exits out of the nozzle is (c) 0.15 m/s. The correct option is c.

The speed of water flowing through a hose can be calculated using the principle of conservation of mass. Since the volume flow rate is given as 0.015 m³/s, and the hose and nozzle are connected, the volume flow rate is constant throughout.

The equation for volume flow rate is:

A₁ * v₁ = A₂ * v₂

where A₁ and A₂ are the cross-sectional areas of the hose and nozzle, and v₁ and v₂ are the speeds of water at those points, respectively.

Given the radius R₁ of the hose as 12.35 cm, we can calculate the cross-sectional area of the hose as:

A₁ = π * R₁²

Similarly, given the radius R₂ of the nozzle as 2.20 cm, we can calculate the cross-sectional area of the nozzle as:

A₂ = π * R₂²

Substituting these values into the equation for volume flow rate, we have:

π * R₁² * v₁ = π * R₂² * v₂

Simplifying and solving for v₂, we get:

v₂ = (R₁² * v₁) / R₂²

Plugging in the values, we have:

v₂ = (0.1235² * v₁) / 0.022² = 0.15 m/s

Therefore, the speed v₂ with which the water exits out of the nozzle is 0.15 m/s. The correct option is c.

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QUESTION 13 A ball is dropped off the top of a building and hits the ground 3.75 seconds later. How far did it fall? Round your answer to 2 decimal places. 4 points QUESTION 14 Ranking the following p

Answers

The ball falls a distance of approximately 68.43 meters.

To calculate the distance the ball falls, we can use the equation for the distance traveled by a freely falling object:

d = 0.5 * g * t²

where d is the distance, g is the acceleration due to gravity (approximately 9.8 m/s²), and t is the time taken.

In this case, the ball falls for a time of 3.75 seconds. Plugging the values into the equation, we have:

d = 0.5 * 9.8 m/s² * (3.75 s)²

d = 0.5 * 9.8 m/s² * 14.06 s²

d = 68.43 m

Rounding the answer to two decimal places, we find that the ball falls approximately 68.43 meters.

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The period of a pendulum depends on the mass of the pendulum.

True
False

Answers

The statement "The period of a pendulum depends on the mass of the pendulum" is FALSE.

A pendulum is a weight suspended from a pivot so that it can swing freely. The period of a pendulum is the time it takes for one full swing or one oscillation to occur.

The period of a pendulum is affected by the length of the pendulum, but not by the mass of the pendulum. The period of a pendulum depends only on the pendulum's length, which is the distance between the pivot point and the pendulum's center of mass. It has nothing to do with the mass of the bob (pendulum).

The period of a pendulum can be calculated using the following formula:

T = 2π√(l/g)

Where: T = the period of the pendulum, l = the length of the pendulum, g = the acceleration due to gravity (9.81 m/s² at sea level)The main answer to the question "The period of a pendulum depends on the mass of the pendulum" is FALSE because the period of a pendulum depends on the length of the pendulum and not the mass of the pendulum.

The explanation for the main answer is that the period of a pendulum depends only on the length of the pendulum, which is the distance between the pivot point and the pendulum's center of mass. It has nothing to do with the mass of the bob (pendulum).

The period of a pendulum is not affected by the mass of the pendulum, but only by the length of the pendulum. Therefore, the statement "The period of a pendulum depends on the mass of the pendulum" is false.

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A 1.50kg snowball is shot upward at an angle of 34.0° to the horizontal with an initial speed of 20.0m/s. a. What is its initial kinetic energy? b. By how much does the gravitational potential energy

Answers

a. The initial kinetic energy of the snowball is 300 Joules.

b. The initial gravitational potential energy is zero.

a. To calculate the initial kinetic energy of the snowball, we can use the formula:

Kinetic Energy (KE) = (1/2) * mass * velocity^2

Given:

Mass (m) = 1.50 kg

Velocity (v) = 20.0 m/s

Substituting these values into the formula, we get:

KE = (1/2) * 1.50 kg * (20.0 m/s)^2

= 0.5 * 1.50 kg * 400 m^2/s^2

= 300 J

Therefore, the initial kinetic energy of the snowball is 300 Joules.

b. The gravitational potential energy (PE) of an object is given by the formula:

PE = mass * gravity * height

Since the snowball is shot upward, its initial height is zero. Therefore, the initial gravitational potential energy is also zero.

Therefore,

a. The initial kinetic energy of the snowball is 300 Joules.

b. The initial gravitational potential energy is zero.

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what is the maximum distance, in meters, that the ships can be from the photographer to get a resolvable picture?

Answers

The maximum distance, in meters, that the ships can be from the photographer to get a resolvable picture is 2.26 × 10-5 m or 22.6 μm.

To determine the maximum distance that the ships can be from the photographer to get a resolvable picture, we need to use the Rayleigh criterion. Rayleigh criterion is the minimum angular separation between two point sources required to resolve the details of the object.

This criterion is given as;θ=1.22λ/Dwhereθ is the angular resolutionλ is the wavelength of light D is the diameter of the objective lens. For a single-lens camera, we can use the diameter of the lens aperture instead of the objective diameter. The resolving power is inversely proportional to the diameter of the lens aperture and the wavelength of the light used. In addition, the resolving power is also proportional to the focal length of the lens being used.

The maximum distance, in meters, that the ships can be from the photographer to get a resolvable picture is calculated as follows:

θ=1.22λ/D …………Eq.1

Rearranging the equation to get D;D=1.22λ/θ  …………Eq.2

Given that the angular resolution, θ = 3.0 × 10-5 radians, the wavelength of light λ = 555 nm = 555 × 10-9 m.

D = 0.0254 m = 25.4 mm

Substituting the values into equation 2;

D=1.22 × 555 × 10-9 / (3.0 × 10-5)D = 22.6 μm (micrometers)

In meters; 1 μm = 1 × 10-6 m∴ 22.6 μm = 22.6 × 10-6 m = 2.26 × 10-5 m.

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if a chain of 50 identical short springs linked end-to-end has a stiffness of 460 n/m, what is the stiffness of one short spring?

Answers

A spring’s stiffness is determined by the material it is made of, the size and shape of the spring, and the number of coils on it. The stiffness is defined as the force required to extend the spring by a unit length. It is calculated by dividing the change in force by the change in length. Therefore, the stiffness of one short spring is 9.2 N/m.

Spring constant or spring stiffness is a measure of the force required to deform a spring by one unit length. The spring constant of a chain of 50 identical short springs linked end-to-end is 460 n/m. We need to determine the stiffness of one short spring in this case. We can use the formula for stiffness (spring constant) to calculate it. The stiffness of one short spring is calculated as follows:

Let k be the stiffness of one short spring.

Then, the stiffness of 50 short springs connected in series is given as follows:

K = k₁ + k₂ + k₃ + … + kn For 50

identical springs connected in series

:k = K/50

Therefore, the stiffness of one short spring is:

k = 460/50k = 9.2 n/m

Therefore, the stiffness of one short spring is 9.2 N/m.

Another way of solving it is using the formula for stiffness (spring constant).

The stiffness of a spring is equal to the force required to extend the spring by a unit length.

The formula for the spring constant k is given by:

k = F/x

Where, F is the force applied, x is the displacement of the spring.

Assuming that the displacement of the chain of 50 identical short springs connected in series is x, then the force required to deform the chain of 50 identical short springs is F.

The stiffness of one short spring is given as:

k₁ = F/x₁

where k₁ is the spring constant of one short spring.

The stiffness of 50 short springs connected in series is given as follows:

k = F/x

where k is the spring constant of the 50 short springs connected in series.

Now, since 50 identical short springs are connected in series,

k = 50k₁

Therefore,

k₁ = k/50

Substituting the value of k = 460 N/m,

we get:

k₁ = 460/50

k₁ = 9.2 N/m

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