an example of negative feedback is: group of answer choices oxytocin receptor upregulation on the uterus during labor and child birth cortisol inhibiting corticotropin releasing hormone (crh) secretion from the hypothalamus testosterone increasing muscle mass estrogen encouraging follicle development in the ovarytestosterone increasing muscle mass thyroid hormone increasing metabolism in muscle tissue

Answers

Answer 1

The thyroid hormone increases metabolism in muscle tissue is an example of negative feedback.

Negative feedback homeostatic processes occur when changes in the environment affect the body and trigger negative feedback.

Negative feedback is a mechanism for regulating hormone concentrations in the blood. when the hormone concentration increases, hormone production will be inhibited. Conversely, when the concentration of hormones decreases, hormone production will increase.

The regulation of thyroid hormone synthesis and resistance is a negative feedback mechanism. Normally TSH from the pituitary stimulates the thyroid gland to secrete T3 and T4. TSH release increases when thyroid hormone decreases and vice versa. The increase in thyroid hormone provides a feedback signal to the pituitary.

Correct question writing:

An example of negative feedback is: a group of answer choices

oxytocin receptor upregulation on the uterus during labor and childbirth.cortisol inhibiting corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) secretion from the hypothalamus.testosterone increasing muscle mass.estrogen encouraging follicle development in the ovary.thyroid hormone increasing metabolism in muscle tissue.

The true answer is fifth option.

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Related Questions

Which one of the following is the least likely conclusion that could be drawn from research in mice on how postnatal exposure to endotoxin affects susceptibility to dust mite allergies later in life?
a. Postnatal exposure to endotoxin inhibits immune signaling pathways mediated by toll-like receptors.
b .Like the nervous system, postnatal development of the immune system depends on experience, i.e., how the system is used.
c. Postnatal development of the immune system in mice is affected by exposure to bacteria during a critical period immediately following birth.
d. Early exposure to one allergen does not affect later responses to other allergens, thereby demonstrating that immune responses are very specific.
e. Results from these studies support the hygiene hypothesis as it is used to explain the rising incidence of allergies and chronic inflammatory diseases in some human populations.

Answers

The conclusion that can be drawn from studies in rats about how endotoxin exposure after birth susceptibility to dust mite allergy in later life is early exposure to one allergen does not affect subsequent responses to other allergens, indicating that the immune response is highly specific.

The true choice is D.

Mites can cause allergies to the skin by using female mites entering and then burrowing under the skin and creating channels to lay eggs. After the eggs hatch, the mite larvae then move to the surface of the skin to grow. The mites, their eggs, and excrement make the skin itch as an allergic reaction of the body to the presence of mites.

The immune response is very specific, namely the immune system that your body forms after being exposed to certain foreign substances. So from this study, there was no significant relationship between the density of house dust mites and the degree of allergic rhinitis.

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In Vitro Fertilization (IVF) is a method used to assist couples in forming an embryo, in order to have a child of their own. This method is legal, and the mother can sometimes serve as the person who carries the baby in their uterus or she has the option of having another female carry the baby for her. Which of the following types of biotechnology does IVF MOST CLOSELY resemble?

Answers

A process in which sperm and eggs are joined outside the body to create embryos after being taken from a woman's ovary.

Unborn child or embryo?

An embryo is created when an egg and sperm combine, forming a zygote that then divides rapidly. The embryo matures into a fetus as pregnancy goes on. A newborn or neonate is what the fetus is when it is born.

What materials make up an embryo?

Two cells are formed when the fertilized egg cell divides. After a few days of cell division, a small embryo emerges from each cell after it splits into two more cells, and so forth. The embryo is a microscopic structure consisting of cells that have the capacity to differentiate into all kinds of cells in its early stages.

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Speculate on the reasons Mrs. F has developed her present meal pattern. Whatadditions would you make to the care plan to take those reasons intoconsideration

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We should all strive to eat properly. When it comes to assisting their patients in getting the right diet, home health aides and personal care aides play a crucial role.

What does a donation example for a meal plan entail?

The amount of acceptable meat/meat alternative, grain, fruit, vegetable, or milk per serving makes up the meal pattern contribution. All schools that take part in school lunch programs are required by federal regulations to keep a record of the food that is produced.

Which eating habits are present?

Dietary patterns are characterized by the amounts, ratios, variety, or combinations of various foods, beverages, and nutrients that make up a person's diet as well as the regularity with which they are consumed.

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When comparing the dermis with the hypodermis, the dermis has more fat cells than the hypodermis. the dermis is a less vascular tissue than the hypodermis. the dermis and the hypodermis do not contain collagen. the dermis contains melanocytes; the hypodermis does not. the dermis is a less vascular tissue than the hypodermis.

Answers

When comparing the dermis with the hypodermis it is found that the dermis contains melanocytes; the hypodermis does not.

The deeper part of the skin's two primary layers is called the dermis. Connective tissue, blood vessels, oil and sweat glands, nerves, hair follicles, and other structures can all be found in the dermis layer of the skin.

The papillary dermis is the name given to the uppermost layer, and the reticular dermis is the name given to the lowermost layer. Together, these two layers make up the dermis.

Deeper than the dermis lies a layer of skin known as the hypodermis, which is often referred to as the subcutaneous fascia. It is the layer of skin that is the deepest, and it contains adipose lobules as well as some skin appendages including hair follicles, sensory neurons, and blood vessels.

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Which of the following makes the most sense….

Answers

Answer:

D or c

Explanation:

a carefully thought-out explanation for observations of the natural world that has been constructed using the scientific method, and which brings together many facts and hypotheses.

kupicoo / Getty Images What is true about this pathway for forming ATP? Check all that apply. Compared to oxidative phosphorylation, this pathway can generate ATP more rapidly but also depletes glycogen stores more rapidly. This pathway typically utilizes creatine phosphate supplies to provide short bursts of high-intensity contractile effort. known as glycolysis, this pathway is ideal for endurance-type exercises, where glycogent stores are slowly and steadily depleted to provide a consistent rate of ATP production. This pathway is typically used when oxygen delivery or oxidative phosphorylation capacity is exceeded. kupicoo / Getty Images What is true about this pathway for forming ATP? Check all that apply. Compared to oxidative phosphorylation, this pathway can generate ATP more rapidly but also depletes glycogen stores more rapidly. This pathway typically utilizes creatine phosphate supplies to provide short bursts of high-intensity contractile effort. Known as glycolysis, this pathway is ideal for endurance-type exercises, where glycogen stores are slowly and steadily depleted to provide a consistent rate of ATP production. This pathway is typically used when oxygen delivery or oxidative phosphorylation capacity is exceeded. Grade It Now Save & Continue

Answers

The true statements about the pathway for forming ATP are

a. Compared to oxidative phosphorylation, this pathway can generate ATP more rapidly but also depletes glycogen stores more rapidly.

d. This pathway is typically used when oxygen delivery or oxidative phosphorylation capacity is exceeded.

Thus, the correct options are A and D.

Adenosine triphosphаte (АTP), the energy currency in cells, is continuously hydrolyzed to fuel cellulаr functions such аs ion chаnnel regulаtion, signаl trаnsduction, аnd gene trаnscription. Becаuse the stores of АTP in а skeletаl muscle аre limited аnd would be exhаusted аfter а few muscle twitches without replаcement, АTP-regenerаting pаthwаys аre criticаl for mаintаining АTP homeostаsis.

The immediаte metаbolic pаthwаy for producing АTP is the degrаdаtion of phosphocreаtine (PCr). Phosphocreаtine or creаtine phosphаte is а high energy-storing molecule in muscle cells thаt donаtes its high-energy phosphаte group to АDP to form АTP аnd creаtine. The combinаtion of decreаsed АTP content аnd high energy demаnd in postmortem muscle triggers other metаbolic pаthwаys to synthesize АTP. Two pаthwаys, аnаerobic glycolysis аnd mitochondriаl oxidаtive respirаtion, аre the mаjor mechаnisms for АTP production.

Your options aren't well arranged, but most probably your options were

a. Compared to oxidative phosphorylation, this pathway can generate ATP more rapidly but also depletes glycogen stores more rapidly.

b. This pathway typically utilizes creatine phosphate supplies to provide short bursts of high-intensity contractile effort.

c. Known as glycolysis, this pathway is ideal for endurance-type exercises, where glycogent stores are slowly and steadily depleted to provide a consistent rate of ATP production.

d. This pathway is typically used when oxygen delivery or oxidative phosphorylation capacity is exceeded.

Thus, the correct options are A and D.

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9. draw and explain flexor withdrawal and crossed extensor. use the terms ipsilateral and contralateral.

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The flexor withdrawal and crossed extensor use the terms ipsilateral and contralateral is

During а withdrаwаl reflex, the flexors in the withdrаwing limb contrаct аnd the extensors relаx, while in the other limb, the opposite occurs аs pаrt of the crossed extensor reflex.Besides shifting the body weight to the other side, the reflex pаthwаy is аlso аssociаted with leg coordinаtion when wаlking by flexing muscle on one side, while extending muscle on the other side.

Spinаl reflexes include the stretch reflex, the Golgi tendon reflex, the crossed extensor reflex, аnd the withdrаwаl reflex.

The crossed extensor reflex is а withdrаwаl reflex where the contrаlаterаl (opposite side) limb mаkes up for the loss of support creаted when the ipsilаterаl (sаme side) limb withdrаws from а pаinful externаl stimulus. When this reflex is occurring, flexors in the withdrаwing limb would contrаct аnd extensors relаx, while the opposite would occur in the contrаlаterаl limb.The withdrаwаl reflex, аlso known аs the flexor withdrаwаl reflex or nociceptive flexion reflex, is а spinаl reflex thаt functions in protecting the body from dаmаging stimuli. This reflex is polysynаptic, аnd involves the stimulаtion of аssociаtion, sensory, аnd motor neurons.

Your question is incomplete, but most probably your full question and answer can be seen in the Attachment.

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please help meeeeeeeeee

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Cytotoxic Natural killer (NK) cells, antiviral macrophages, and T lymphocytes can identify and eradicate virus-infected cells. Helper T cells have the ability to identify virus-infected cells.

What role do memory cells have in immune response?

For effective defense against invasive infections, particularly in immune-suppressed settings, memory T cells are essential. However, their existence also poses a risk to the survival of the transplant, making transplantation extremely difficult.

How can memory cells defend against microbes?

Immune memory: After the initial exposure to a pathogen, our immune systems produce a tiny number of cells that last for a long time, are particular to that pathogen, and circulate in the blood, spleen, and lymph nodes to keep an eye out for a second encounter.

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predict what would happen to an organism if food suddenly become more abundant?

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hunger or mutation!

hope this helps kiddo!

Give Reasons:
a. An ecosystem is a dynamic community comprising populations of plants, animals,microorganisms,and the non living environment interacting together as a functional unit.
b. Every plant and animal species, no matter how big or small , depends to some exents on another plant or animal species for its survival.
c Pyramid of energy is the only pyramid that is always upright.
Right answers only.
I will be waiting

Answers

An ecosystem is a dynamic community because it is  non-linear processes.

Every plant and animal species, depends on each other because  primary producers are the most basic source. Pyramid of energy is almost upright because of unidirectional flow of energy.

An ecosystem is a dynamic complex of plant, animal, and microbial populations as well as their non-living surroundings working together as a whole. Ecosystem processes are frequently non-linear, and the results frequently exhibit delays. Discontinuities as a result cause surprise and uncertainty. as a result cause surprise and uncertainty.

No matter how large or little, every plant and animal species relies on other plants and animals to some level in order to survive. The byproducts of photosynthesis are consumed by a wide variety of animals. Deer eating shrub leaves, bunnies eating carrots, or worms eating grass are a few examples.

The energy flow in a food chain is always unidirectional, making the pyramid of energy the only sort of ecological pyramid that is always upright. Additionally, some energy is lost into the environment and never returns to the sun with each higher trophic level.

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Would you expect a chromosome that has a large amount of repeated DNA sequence to have a high or low density of genes?

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All higher plants include repetitive DNA sequences, which can make up as much as 90% of some species' genomes. It is believed that these repeated DNA sequences produce significant variations in genomes, which may reflect the evolutionary gaps across species.

On a chromosome, a tandem repeat is a sequence of two or more DNA bases that is repeated frequently head-to-tail. Non-coding DNA frequently contains tandem repeats.

Tandem repeats can occasionally be used as genetic markers to trace family ancestry. The dinucleotide repeat (GT)n, with a total copy number of 100,000, is the most prevalent of these scattered repeats, occurring in the human genome on average every 30,000 bases.

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Connective tissue may contain which of the following components? Select all that apply. Correct answer. a.Intercellular substance
b.Collagen
c.Macrophages d. Fibriblast

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All options a,b,c, and d. As connective tissue might contain the accompanying parts: Intercellular substance, Collagen, Macrophages, and Fibroblasts.

These parts make up the extracellular grid of connective tissue, which offers help and design to the encompassing tissues.

The intercellular substance goes about as a gel-like grid that holds the cells set up, while collagen gives strength and versatility.

Macrophages are resistant cells that assist to protect against microbes and eliminate cell garbage, while fibroblasts are answerable for delivering and keeping up with the intercellular substance and collagen strands.

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thermal denaturation experiments can be used to follow the transition of double-stranded dna into single-stranded dna. which of the following parameters likely affects the tm of dsdna in this experiment? ionic concentration of solution c-g content of dna length of dna strands

Answers

Low pH causes hydrogen-bond acceptors to protonate, which reduces base-pairing interactions in I, II, and III. Positive ions (Mg2+) in the solution prevent the repulsion between phosphate groups in the DNA backbone, which stabilises the DNA fold.

Greater energy is needed to denature double-stranded DNA because longer DNA strands are bound together by more hydrogen bonds. The double-stranded DNA unravels to generate single-stranded DNA when the temperature of DNA in solution is raised above its melting point, which is typically higher than 80 °C.  Because the bases are no longer stacked, they may absorb more light. The DNA nucleotides in their natural condition absorb light in the 260-nm range.

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The __________________ break down fiber and produce nutrients such as vitamins and short chain fatty acids. intestinal microbiota

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The intestinal microbiota breaks down fiber and produces nutrients such as vitamins and short-chain fatty acids.

The gut microbiota, a complex and dynamic population of microorganisms found in the human GI tract, has a significant impact on the host both in times of homeostasis and disease. The development of the human gut microbiota during infancy depends on a variety of factors. The gut microbiota is thought to be shaped primarily throughout life by diet.

The preservation of immune and metabolic homeostasis as well as defense against pathogens depends heavily on intestinal bacteria. The pathogenesis of numerous inflammatory illnesses and infections has been linked to altered gut bacterial composition (dysbiosis).

A better understanding of inter-individual differences, the heterogeneity of bacterial communities in the GI tract and elsewhere, functional redundancy, and the need to distinguish cause from effect are all necessary for the interpretation of these studies.

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why do scientists think its unlikely that mariculture will allow a significant reducution in over fishing of wild stocks in foreseeable future?

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Answer:

Scientists believe that mariculture, or the cultivation of marine organisms in a controlled environment, is unlikely to significantly reduce overfishing of wild stocks in the foreseeable future because it is difficult to replicate the diversity and complexity of natural marine ecosystems in a controlled environment. Additionally, mariculture operations can have negative impacts on wild populations and their habitats, and may not be able to produce enough fish to meet global demand. Furthermore, it requires large amount of resources and expertise to maintain, scaling up could be a challenge and it's not yet a cost-effective solution for many species.

Imagine you work in a sports medicine clinic. A hockey player named Bayley comes to you complaining that she is having a problem with her quadriceps. These muscles do not contract very strongly, and they tire easily during short, two-minute shifts. Explain how the cause could be either a lack of calcium in Bayley’s diet or a problem with lactic acid build-up.

In your explanation, include references to:

muscle fibre anatomy
role of ATP
role of calcium in the sliding filament process
the difference between aerobic and anaerobic activity

Answers

The quadriceps muscles, like all muscles in the body, are made up of muscle fibers that contain contractile proteins such as actin and myosin.

How can lack of calcium affect the muscles?

These proteins work together through a process called the sliding filament mechanism to generate force and cause muscle contraction. The sliding filament mechanism requires a sufficient amount of ATP, which is the energy currency of the cell, to function properly.

Calcium ions play a critical role in the sliding filament mechanism by binding to the protein troponin, which then triggers the release of the actin-myosin bonds and the subsequent muscle contraction. Thus, a lack of calcium in Bayley's diet could result in a decrease in the amount of calcium available for the sliding filament mechanism, leading to weaker muscle contractions and fatigue during exercise.

In addition to the role of calcium, lactic acid build-up can also contribute to muscle fatigue. During intense exercise, the muscles switch from using oxygen to generate energy (aerobic activity) to using glucose without oxygen (anaerobic activity). The latter produces lactic acid as a byproduct, which can interfere with muscle function and cause muscle fatigue.

In conclusion, both a lack of calcium in Bayley's diet and lactic acid build-up can contribute to the problem with her quadriceps. To improve the situation, it may be necessary to address both issues by ensuring an adequate calcium intake in her diet and promoting adequate recovery between intense exercise sessions to reduce lactic acid build-up.

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describe how temperature is regulated using negative feedback​

Answers

Answer:

Negative feedback - example

If the hypothalamus detects that the body is too hot, the response is that the body begins to sweat to try and reduce the temperature back to the correct level. Once the body temperature is back to the correct level, sweating will stop.

negative feedback can regulate the temperature by allowing glands to begun the sweating process once the temperature becomes normal it stimulates the glands to stop the process of sweating

the grants performed genetic testing on 5110 and determined that he was a hybrid, with a mixture of g. fortis and g. scandens genes. he was most likely the product of a g. fortis-scandens hybrid backcrossed (mated back) to g. fortis.

Answers

g. fortis and g. scandens genes. A test cross is used to discover or pinpoint an organism's genotype. The term "test cross" was first used by the father of modern genetics, Gregor Mendel.

In the test cross, the recessive parent is crossed with the dominant phenotypic to determine the genotype of the hybrid. A test cross is a genetic experiment that involves crossing a homozygous recessive organism having a dominant phenotype with an unidentified genotype (and phenotype). The F1 hybrid's genotype is determined in part by this cross. If the hybrid is heterozygous dominant or homozygous dominant, all of the children will exhibit the dominant trait.

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Over the span of a decade, The amount of rain in ecosystem receives per year decreases 75%.
How is this change most likely to affect the ecosystem?

Answers

The most significant direct drivers of ecosystem change include habitat change (land use change, physical modification of rivers, or water extraction from rivers), overexploitation, invasive alien species, pollution, and climate change.

How do these changes impact the ecosystem?The effects of climate change on ecosystems decrease their capacity to enhance water quality and control water flows. Numerous species may be lost or displaced as a result of rapid environmental changes. The timing of biological processes is changing, which has an impact on species and environments.The most significant direct drivers of ecosystem change include habitat change (land use change, physical modification of rivers, or water extraction from rivers), overexploitation, invasive alien species, pollution, and climate change.The most significant direct drivers of ecosystem change include habitat change (land use change, physical modification of rivers, or water extraction from rivers), overexploitation, invasive alien species, pollution, and climate change.

The complete question is,

What has the greatest impact on the ecosystem?

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Answer:

It's B, Biotic factors will no longer be supported. Thus decreasing the stability of the system. Explanation: I just took the quiz.

What is the advantage for diatoms to form setae?
O Aids in photosynthesis
O Aids in bouancy
O Aids in steering
O Aids in respiration

Answers

The main advantage for diatoms to form setae is to aid in buoyancy (Option B).

What are diatoms setae?

The diatom setae can be defined as groups of algae generally observed in specialized taxonomic groups such as for example Chaetoceros and Bacteriastrum. This type of particular agreement is beneficial for diatoms in the sense it helps to maintain the buoyancy for different types of algae colonies located in a planktonic environment such as observed in various marine water enviroments.

Therefore, with this data, we can see that diatom setae are clusters of algae capable of maintaining buoyancy.

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Which of the following is TRUE about the functions of DNA?
A. A fragment of DNA responsible for an inherited character is called a gene.
B. The gene carries the genetic information and passes it on to the next generation.
C. DNA holds the code for synthesizing the proteins associated with the character.
D. All of the choices

Answers

Answer:

All of the choices.

Explanation:

gene passes from one gen to the next and transmits an inherited character by giving instructions on how to synthesis particular/specific proteins for that process.

for example: brown eyes. a son gets brown eyes from his father because of genes in DNA. the proteins read the gene and create proteins that make eyes brown

water is crucial to plant cells and growth. please examine the cartoon to the left and briefly explain how plant cells grow longer. your explanation should include the terms: cytoplasm, concentration of ions (k ), hyperosmotic, hypoosmotic, free water, and vacuole

Answers

Plant cells grow longer by increasing the volume of their cytoplasm. This is achieved by a process known as turgor growth.

When the concentration of K+ ions in the cytoplasm is greater than the concentration of K+ ions in the environment, the cell is said to be hyperosmotic. This causes the cell to absorb free water from the environment, which increases the volume of the cytoplasm. When the opposite is true, the cell is said to be hypoosmotic, and free water will move out of the cytoplasm into the environment.

This process is regulated by the vacuole, which can release ions into the cytoplasm, raising the concentration of K+ ions and causing water to enter the cell. The vacuole can also absorb ions from the cytoplasm, decreasing the concentration of K+ ions and causing water to leave the cell. This allows the plant cell to maintain an optimal level of turgor pressure, allowing it to grow longer.

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Which of the following is the primary psychoactive agent present in the cannabis plant?
A. 2-Arachidonoylglycerol
B. 5-(1,1-Dimethylheptyl)resorcinol
C. 1,1-Dimethylheptyl-11-hydroxytetrahydrocannabinol
D. Delta-9-tetrahydrocannabinol

Answers

The cannabis plant contains a number of psychotropic compounds, the most prominent of which being delta-9-tetrahydrocannabinol therefore, option D. is the right choice.

It is a psychoactive substance that may be found in marijuana and is responsible for the high that can be obtained from the drug. Cannabaceae is the family that contains the flowering plant genus known as Cannabis.

There is some debate on the accurate count of species contained within the genus. Cannabis sativa, Cannabis indica, and Cannabis ruderalis are the three species that have been identified.

Alternately, C. ruderalis may be included in C. sativa, all three may be considered to be subspecies of C. sativa,or C. sativa may be recognized as a single species that is not subdivided. It is generally agreed upon that the genus is indigenous to Asia and had its beginnings in their region.

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A parfocal microscope is one that keeps the specimen in focus (or very close to it) when a higher-power objective lens is rotated into position, after focusing with a lower-power objective.
True False

Answers

A parfocal microscope is one that keeps the specimen in focus (or very close to it) when a higher-power objective lens is rotated into position, after focusing with a lower-power objective. The given statement is true.

The high power objective lens on the compound light microscope provides the highest magnification. A parfocal microscope is one that retains the specimen in focus (or extremely close) after focusing with a lower-power objective lens.

A "parfocal" microscope is one that, if it is in focus with one objective, will remain (largely) in focus when the objective is rotated.

For example, if the focus of a microscope is changed from a low power objective (10x) to a higher power objective (40x or 100. x), the object remains in focus.

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which of the following unifying themes of biology is not matched correctly with an example of that theme?
a) nonequilibrium state - energy is constantly required to maintain the complexity of life
b) diversity of life arises by evolution - cells process environmental information
c) structure and function - the shape of a protein affects its function in a cell
d) cell theory - living organisms are made or one or more cells
e) information processing - DNA directs synthesis of cellular components

Answers

Answer:

That is correct. In transcription, the DNA strand is used as a template to create a complementary RNA strand. Adenine (A) in the DNA strand pairs with Uracil (U) in the RNA strand, Cytosine (C) in the DNA strand pairs with Guanine (G) in the RNA strand, and vice versa. Therefore, the correct mRNA strand for the given DNA strand AGGTACGTACTCATG is b. UCCAUGCAUGAGUAC.

prologue: the woman in the photograph the author uses several similes to describe cells. what simile does she use to describe the way a cell looks? what simile does she use to explain the functions of the different parts of a cell? what do these similes suggest about biology? what is mitosis? what beneficial biological processes involve mitosis? what simile does donald defler use to describe mitosis? what happens when there is a mistake during the process of mitosis? according to defler, how important was the discovery of hela cells? as a high school student, skloot began researching hela cells to find out more about henrietta lacks. examine pages 5 and 6 and write down each step that skloot took to begin her research.

Answers

The author uses the simile of a city to describe the way a cell looks, comparing its various parts to buildings and streets.

She compares the functions of the parts of the cell to a car, with the nucleus being the driver, the mitochondria being the engine, and the ribosomes being the wheels. These similes suggest that biology is complex and interconnected, much like the parts of a city or a car.

Mitosis can be likened to a factory assembly line, with replicated chromosomes moving along a conveyor belt to be separated into two daughter cells. This process is essential for many aspects of life, such as the growth and repair of tissue, the production of gametes in sexual reproduction, and the formation of new organisms. Mitosis is a vital component of cell division that occurs in eukaryotic cells, ensuring the continuation of life.

The discovery of HeLa cells was an important breakthrough, as it provided a reliable source of cells for scientific research, which allowed for greater understanding of diseases like cancer and Down syndrome. Mistakes that occur during mitosis can result in daughter cells having too much or too little genetic material, leading to these genetic disorders.

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the gills of a mushroom are . when the mushroom is first formed, a basidium is . following karyogamy, a basidium is .the basidium then undergoes meiosis, which produces spores.

Answers

Answer:

The gills of a mushroom are the structures that produce the spores of the fungus (spores). When the mushroom is first formed, a basidium is a single cell that will eventually produce spores of the fungus. Following karyogamy (the fusion of two nuclei), a basidium is a cell with a single nucleus that will divide to produce spores. The basidium then undergoes meiosis, which produces four haploid spores that will eventually develop into spores of the fungus.

if the percentage of homozygous recessive genotype aa in a population is 36%, which of the following would be the frequency of genotype aa?

Answers

The frequency of genotype aa can be calculated using the following formula:

Frequency of genotype aa = % of homozygous recessive genotype aa/100

So, the frequency of genotype aa in this population is 0.36.

In genetics, the frequency of a particular genotype refers to the proportion of individuals in a population that have that particular genotype. A homozygous recessive genotype is one in which both copies of a gene contain the recessive allele.

To calculate the percentage of homozygous recessive genotype aa in a population, one must divide the number of individuals with genotype aa by the total population size, and then multiply the result by 100. Therefore, the frequency of homozygous recessive genotype aa in a population can be calculated.

The frequency of genotype aa in a population can be calculated using the formula: Frequency of genotype aa = % of homozygous recessive genotype aa/100. If the percentage of homozygous recessive genotype aa in the population is 36%, then the frequency of genotype aa would be 0.36. This means that 0.36 of the population has the genotype aa. In other words, 36 out of every 100 individuals in the population have the genotype aa.

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lab the missing restaurant part two

Answers

No, because the mother and father do not share any alleles.

Explanation:

thnxx

explain how physical variation is expressed in human beings and how it relates to cultural groups and ethnicty

Answers

Answer:

Race refers to dividing people into groups, often based on physical characteristics. Ethnicity refers to the cultural expression and identification of people of different geographic regions, including their customs, history, language, and religion. In basic terms, race describes physical traits, and ethnicity refers to cultural identification.

Explanation:

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2 1/7 inches of thread can be cut from 8 3/4 your mass is 80 kg. the area of one of your shoes that is in contact with the ground is 0.012 . while standing stationary on your two feet, what is the pressure that you exert on the ground? For a single-price monopoly, price is:A) equal to marginal revenue.B) greater than marginal revenue.C) less than marginal revenue because the firm cannot increase its total revenue when the demand curve is downward sloping.D) equal to zero because the firm is not a price taker.E) less than marginal revenue because the firm must lower its price in order to sell another unit of output. it's only possible to use the liquidity available now; the future value of the liquidity is affected by three equal point charges of 1.2 nc are placed at the corners of an equilateral triangle whose sides are 0.500 m long. a. what is the potential energy of the system? (take as zero the potential energy of the three charges when they are infinitely far apart.) b. what is the electric potential at the the center of the triangle? Chemistry help please write paragraph on why the US ended its neutrality after WWI had been going on for almost 3 years on what interval is the function f (x) = e3xexincreasing? Explain how to convert SI units by using the prefixes. an environmental worldview is question 7 options: a belief in environmental stewardship a type of planetary management worldview a set of assumptions and values concerning how the natural world works and how humans should interact with it a way of studying conservation activities and human interactions with the natural world an example of environmentalism This assignment is designed to expand your understanding of sequencing diagnoses codes and how the Official Coding Guidelines and the Chapter-Specific Coding Guidelines direct code application and sequence. Review the following resources to expand your knowledge regarding the understanding of the selection of First-Listed or Principal Diagnosis as they pertain to outpatient or inpatient settings:Sequence ICD-10-CM Codes for Proper Payment (Links to an external site.)Diagnosis Codes and Sequencing (Links to an external site.)When You Can and Cannot Code a Diagnosis (Links to an external site.)Principal Diagnosis - ICD-10-CM Guidelines for Inpatient Coding (Links to an external site.)Only one group member should upload the discussion submission. Once the discussion is graded, all participating group members will receive a grade in Canvas. Once all discussions have been graded, you will be able to review all group submissions. Consider the experiment of rolling a die, S={1,2,3,4,5,6). Let the random variable X denote the outcome. What is the variance of X? A. 6 B. 7/2 C. 35/42D. None of the above contraceptive methods prevent ovulation or implantation, but they do not block the sperm from reaching the egg. true or false Students want to determine the impulse of an object. List the three ways the students can find the impulse. 2 have already been found: final momentum - initial momentum, and force x time. a) describe the motion of the object modeled in the graphb) describe the object's average velocity c) write the mathematical model which describes the object's motiond) determine the object's position at t=6.0s From the following complex phasor vectors, find the sinusoidal vector K() in terms of or: (a) K= j + (b) K = i(+ j) (c) Kre M f - je to z normal approximation for binomial distributionwhen n is large we can use this to determine probabilities for binomial settings a 2.00-cm-high object is placed 3.00 cm in front of a concave mirror. if the image is 5.00 cm high and virtual, what is the focal length of the mirror? How many 3/4 s are in 2? 1. Write a multiplication equation and a division equation that can be used to answer the question. 2. Draw a tape diagram and answer the question. Use the grid to help you draw, if needed. what is the speed, in meters per second, of the jet 4.84 s after it leaves the deck of the carrier