People with this form of SCD (sickle cell disease) inherit two of their genes (one from each parent) that code for hemoglobin 'S'. Hemoglobin S is an abnormal form of hemoglobin that causes red blood cells to harden and sickle. This is commonly known as sickle cell anemia and is usually the most serious form of the disease. By blocking blood flow to organs, sickle cells deprive affected organs of blood and oxygen. During sickle cell anemia, the blood is also chronically depleted of oxygen. This lack of oxygenated blood can damage nerves and organs such as the kidneys, liver, and spleen, which can be fatal.
Stem cell or bone marrow transplantation is the only treatment for sickle cell disease, but it is not done very often because it carries significant risks.Stem cells are spongy tissue found in the center of some bones. It is a special cell produced by the bone marrow that is They can turn into different types of blood cells.
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The complete question is as follows:
Anemia is a condition where the blood does not have enough healthy, normal red blood cells. there are many anemias caused by factors not related to nutrition, but nutrient deficiencies can also be the culprit. the most common nutrient deficiencies that result in anemias are deficiencies of iron, folate, vitamin b12, and vitamin b6.
Identify the types of Anemia given the symptoms below:
1) A form of this anemia, called pernicious anemia, occurs when inadequate intrinsic factor is secreted into the stomach.
2) This type of anemia is caused by a recessive mutation that causes hemoglobin molecules to fold incorrectly.
3) Treatment may involve injections of vitamin B12.
4) Red blood cells may abnormally formed into half-moon shapes.
5) A deficiency of vitamin Bs or iron may cause this type of anemia.
6) Treatment often involves supplementation with iron and vitamin C.
7) This may be caused by a deficiency of folate.
8) Red blood cells are smaller than normal.
a test tube is inoculated with 100 cells of a bacterial strain that has a generation time of 30 minutes. the carrying capacity of the test tube for this strain is 6 billion cells. what will the bacterial population be after 90 minutes of culturing?
The bacterial population be after 90 minutes of culturing is 8 × 10².
What is generation time?In population biology and demography, generation time is the average time between two successive generations in the lineage of a population. Generation time is the time (usually hours or days) for the bacteria to divide. To convert this to a growth rate, divide 0.301 by the generation time.
For number of generation
G = t/n
Where, G = Generation time (30 minutes)
t = time (90 minutes)
n = number of generation
30 = 90/n
n = 90/30
n = 3
Now, for the final population:
Pₙ = P₀ × 2ⁿ
Where, Pₙ = Final population
P₀ = Initial population
n = number of generation
Pₙ = 100 × 2³
Pₙ = 8 × 10²
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What are the steps of cellular respiration quizlet?.
Glycolysis, the Krebs cycle, and the electron transport chain are the three steps of cellular respiration.
The Krebs cycle, glycolysis, and the electron transport chain, where oxidative phosphorylation takes place, are the three primary stages of cellular respiration. While glycolysis may take place in anaerobic environments, the TCA cycle and oxidative phosphorylation need oxygen to function.
The metabolic routes by which cells get energy from food molecules are known as cellular respiration. There are two types of cellular respiration processes: aerobic and anaerobic.
Your cells' cytoplasm is where glycolysis, the first phase of cellular respiration, takes place. A glucose molecule is split into two pyruvate molecules during this process (pyruvic acid).
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characteristics of the essential fatty acids include:
Answer:
They must be supplied by the diet, and they are polyunsaturated fatty acids. A deficiency of fatty acids can cause: abnormal brain development in infants.
Explanation:
The characteristics of the essential fatty acids include they must be supplied by the diet, and they are polyunsaturated fatty acids. A deficiency of fatty acids can cause abnormal brain development in infants.
What are essential fatty acids?The bulk of the fatty acids necessary by the body can be generated by the body from meals. Non-essential fats are the name given to these fats. Essential fatty acids are fatty acids that the body is unable to produce on its own.
Non-essential amino acids are those that the body can make on its own and do not need to be consumed in food. Of the 20 amino acids found in nature, nine are essential for preserving human health.
Therefore, the necessary fatty acids have the qualities of being polyunsaturated fatty acids and need to be obtained through diet. Infants' brain development might become aberrant due to a fatty acid shortage.
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in dna replication, each newly made strand is 1. identical in dna sequence to the strand from which it was copied. 2. an incomplete copy of one of the parental strands. 3. oriented in the same 3'-to-5' direction as the strand from which it was copied 4. complementary in sequence to the strand from which it was copied. 5. a hybrid molecule consisting of both ribo- and deoxyribonucleotides.
In DNA replication, each newly made strand isi n DNA replication, each newly made strand is complementary in sequence to the strand from which it was copied.
What is DNA replication ?A double-stranded DNA molecule is copied to create two identical DNA molecules through the process of DNA replication. Because every time a cell splits, the two new daughter cells must have the same genetic material, or DNA, as the parent cell, replication is a crucial process.Since DNA replication is a critical process, the freshly manufactured DNA is proofread by the cell to make sure no errors or mutations are added. Once a cell's DNA has been duplicated, it can divide into two identical copies, each of which has the original DNA.For more information on DNA replication kindly visit to
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A trait found in two or more species that is derived, with or without modification from a common ancestor is known as.
Analogous traits are traits that exist in and are shared by two or more species but are not derived from a common ancestor.
This is due to the fact that these traits have independently evolved in each species, without having any connection to the ancestors.
The Importance of Analogous Characteristics in EvolutionThese characteristics play a crucial role in how species evolve because they can aid biologists in understanding how new species emerge and how they adapt to their surroundings, developing traits that help them survive better through natural selection.
For instance, even though two bird species do not share a common ancestor, they might develop similar wings. This is due to the fact that they both require flight in order to survive, and natural selection pressure has caused them to develop similar wings. This demonstrates the crucial role that natural selection plays in the evolution of these traits and their contribution to the diversification of all species.
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What are the 4 types of point mutations?.
4 types of point mutations are frameshift, silent, nonsense, and missense.
A point mutation occurs in the genome when a single base pair is added, deleted, or altered. Most point mutations are benign, but they can also have various functional consequences, such as altered gene expression or altered protein encoding.
All mutations are changes in the nucleotide sequence of DNA caused by random errors. While some mutations affect large areas of DNA, point mutations are changes in gene sequence that occur at specific points along the DNA chain.
Point mutations, also called substitutions, are a type of genetic mutation in which nucleotide bases are inserted, deleted, or altered in the DNA or RNA of an organism's genome.
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What are the 4 transcription factors?.
The four transcription factors are Oct4, Sox2, Klf4 and Nanog.
Triggers for the conversion of somatic cells to pluripotent stem cells include the transcription factors Oct4, Sox2, Klf4, and Nanog. All of the stem cell proteins Oct4, Sox2, Klf4, and Nanog are crucial for biological functions and are present in all stem cells.
Since they often work in multi-subunit protein complexes, transcription factors are a tremendously varied family of proteins. In addition to directly attaching to the RNA polymerase enzyme, they can also bind specifically designated "promoter" DNA sequences that are located upstream of the coding area of a gene.
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cytotoxic t cells primarily are responsible for producing antibodies. cell-mediated immunity. producing haptens. humoral immunity.
Cytotoxic T cells are primarily responsible for cell-mediated immunity.
What are cytotoxic t-cells ?There are mainly two types of T cells: helper T cells and cytotoxic T cells. As the name indicates, helper T cells “help” other cells of the immune system, whereas cytotoxic T cells kill virus-infected cells and tumors. Cytotoxic T cells have so-called CD8 receptors on their surface. The CD8 receptor interacts with cells called major-histocompatibility-complex (MHC) class I molecules to recognize the infected cells. Recognition of infected cells by CD8 receptors activates cytotoxic T cells. Once activated, T cells undergo clonal expansion and differentiation, followed by stages of contraction when pathogens are cleared. Cell survival and cell death are important to control the numbers of naive, effector, and memory T cells.
Cytotoxic T cells kill targets by programming apoptosis. When cytotoxic T cells are mixed with target cells and brought into rapid contact by centrifugation, antigen-specific target cells can be programmed to die within five minutes of her, but not before death is fully apparent. may take several hours.
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is located between two pleural sacs and is the central compartment of the thoracic cavity? a. pleura b. thoracic cage c. mediastinum d. hilum
The compartment that spans the length of the thoracic cavity between the pleural sacs of the lungs is called the thoracic mediastinum. The superior surface of the diaphragm is located at the end of this compartment, which runs longitudinally from the thoracic inlet.
The mediastinum, which separates the lungs, contains the mediastinal pleura. It is frequently used on the area inside the sternum, which extends to the thoracic vertebral column and the diaphragm of lungs , mediastinum between the two pleural sacs.
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upon completion of glycolysis, what is the fate of the majority of the potential energy contained in the original glucose molecule?
In two pyruvate molecules, it is kept. Energy is released during glycolysis, and this energy is utilised to create four molecules of ATP.
What happens to the majority of the glucose's potential energy?The majority of the potential energy present in glucose is retained in the two pyruvates, which are formed during glycolysis when each molecule of glucose is catabolized into two molecules of pyruvate.
One glucose molecule initiates glycolysis, which culminates with two pyruvate (pyruvic acid) molecules, four ATP molecules overall, and two NADH molecules.
A glucose molecule has a storage capacity of 3,000 kJ. The stored potential energy in the bonds holding the atoms of a molecule together is known as chemical energy.
The enzyme Lactate dehydrogenase interacts with pyruvate.
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Place these mitotic events in the order that they occur, beginning with the earliest event at the top:
Nucleus envelope re-firms
Nuclear envelope breaks up and spindle fibers attach to chromosomes
Chromosomes align along the equator of the cell
Chromosomes condense and become visible
Sister chromatids separate
Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, and Telophase are the four basic phases of mitosis. Cytokinesis, the process of dividing the cell contents to create two new cells, begins in anaphase or telophase and occurs in this exact sequential order.
What is mitosis?The cell cycle's mitotic phase lasts only a brief time. It alternates with the considerably longer interphase, during which the cell gets ready to divide. The three phases of interphase are G1 (first gap), S (synthesis), and G2.
A cell prepares for cell division by replicating its chromosomes, segregating them, and creating two identical nuclei during the mitotic phase. The cell's contents are often evenly divided into two daughter cells with identical genomes after mitosis.
A cell copies each chromosome during mitosis and distributes one copy to each of its two daughter cells. With regard to our example of an instruction manual, it is crucial that each person receive a duplicate of each page.
Therefore, Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, and Telophase are the four basic phases of mitosis. Cytokinesis, the process of dividing the cell contents to create two new cells, begins in anaphase or telophase and occurs in this exact sequential order.
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which hormone produced by fat cells is one of the important regulatory signals for long-term weight maintenance?
The leptin hormone is produced by fat cells and is secreted into our bloodstream. Leptin reduces a person's appetite by acting on specific centers in their brain to reduce the urge to eat.
Leptin is a hormone your body releases that helps you maintain your normal weight over the long term. The level of leptin in your blood is directly related to the amount of body fat you have. Leptin resistance makes you feel hungry and eat more even though your body has enough fat stores.
Fat cells use leptin to tell your brain how much body fat they have. High leptin levels tell your brain that you have a lot of stored fat, while low levels tell your brain that fat stores are low and you need to eat
What hormones are involved in the long-term regulation of hunger?
Ghrelin and leptin are two of many hormones that control appetite and satiety. They are involved in the vast network of pathways that regulate body weight. Leptin decreases appetite, while ghrelin increases it
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habitat corridors group of answer choices reduce dispersal. increase inbreeding. impede migrations. increase gene flow. prevent the spread of disease.
Habitat corridors group will reduce dispersal and prevent the spread of disease.
Habitat corridor, also known as a green corridor is area of habitat connecting wildlife populations divided by the human activities or structures . These wildlife corridors allows for the chances of connecting between small isolated populations in the wild. These corridors are help full in the increase of genetic variation within these small populations and lower inbreeding depression risks.
Corridor such as Pine forest to the Sea allows plants and animals to range throughout the habitat, that is by increasing chances of healthy and genetically divergent populations.
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FILL IN THE BLANK.animals must exchange inorganic ions with the environment in order to maintain their _____ with respect to ions and water.
Animals must exchange inorganic ions with the environment in order to maintain their homeostasis with respect to ions and water.
What is preserved or controlled by osmoregulation?Osmoregulation is the mechanism by which bodily membranes are kept in osmotic balance with respect to salt and water. Water, electrolytes, and nonelectrolytes make up the fluids that are present both within and outside of cells.
How do animals keep the water cycle balanced?Animals living on land lose water by evaporation from their body surfaces, excretion in their urine, and elimination in their feces. They make up for these losses by consuming water from their food, drinking water when it is available, and preserving the metabolic water created in their cells by the oxidation of food, particularly carbohydrates.
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Suppose that for a certain gene, nearly 100 percent of the normal level of expression is required to produce the normal phenotype. Based on this requirement, one could predict that a _________ mutation would be _________.
Suppose that for a certain gene, nearly 100 percent of the normal level of expression is required to produce the normal phenotype. Based on this requirement, one could predict that a loss of function mutation would be dominant.
A mutation in which the changed gene product is deficient in the molecular activity of the wild-type gene. Genetic illnesses with loss of function are brought on by a protein's dysfunction, which may have widespread effects. It may be challenging to identify pharmaceutically relevant targets for certain disorders since the notion of a pharmacological target is less clear-cut.
Hence, 100% active protein is normal and fully expressed by gene.
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the process of forcing salt water through a permeable membrane in order to remove the salt from the water is termed:
The process of forcing salt water through a permeable membrane in order to remove the salt from the water is known as Reverse osmosis.
Reverse osmosis is a desalination method that uses selectively permeable membranes and high pressure to remove salt from saltwater.
In addition, reverse osmosis (RO) is a method of water filtration that eliminates ions, molecules, and bigger particles from drinking water by using a semipermeable membrane. Underground, ion minerals can be found. Water picks up the ion components as it percolates and combines with them, giving the water a salty flavour. The water often goes through a lot of purification before it reaches the surface, but the mineral components are still present.
Ion and mineral contents can occasionally be found in the water system itself. Your water is already tainted when it reaches the point of consumption.
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the law of independent assortment states that in a dihybrid cross, the of each gene assort independently.
The law of independent assortment states that in a dihybrid cross, the of each gene assort independently.
What is law of independent assortment ?The development of reproductive cells causes various genes to separately separate from one another, according to the Principle of Independent Assortment. During his research on the genetics of pea plants in 1865, Gregor Mendel made the first observation of independent assortment of genes and their related phenotypes.
What is a phenotypes?A set of an organism's observable qualities or characteristics is known as its phenotype. The phrase refers to an organism's morphology, or its physical form and structure, as well as its physiological and biochemical characteristics, behavior, and the outcomes of that behavior.
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dna exists in a double-stranded form whereas rna is mainly a single stranded molecule. what is the likely reason for dna being double stranded?
The major reason behind this is RNA strands cannot form base pairs. Double stranded DNA is a more stable structure. DNA cannot exist in the single stranded format and is easier to replicate double stranded DNA than single stranded RNA.
What do you mean by DNA and RNA ?
Deoxyribonucleic acid can be defined as polymer composed of two polynucleotide chains that coil around each other to form a double helix.It has four bases : adenine (A), cytosine (C), guanine (G), and thymine (T).DNA contains the information needed for an organism to develop, survive and reproduce.Ribonucleic acid can be defined as a polymeric molecule essential in various biological roles in coding, decoding, regulation and expression of genes.
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Select the effect of climate change that decribe a diruption in ecological procee
The early animal mating and flower blossoming times are caused by climate change, which disrupts natural systems.
Numerous challenges to wildlife have been brought on by climate change in all of our parks. Due to changes that result in less food, less successful reproduction, and interference with the environment for local wildlife, rising temperatures reduce the survival rates of many species. The life cycles of plants and animals are also impacted by climate change. For instance, many plants are beginning to grow and bloom earlier in the spring as temperatures rise and to live longer into the fall. There are also some species that emerge from hibernation earlier or migrate at different times.
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what would be the most likely effect of mutating the consensus sequence found at the 5' splice site of an intron?
Where the mutation at the 5' splice site is found a longer-than-normal mRNA would be produced in the splicing process. Thus the correct answer is option (C).
The two steps prior to splicing in the processing of mRNA are polyadenylation and 5' capping. Exons and non-coding regions are both present in an mRNA transcript, which is the product of transcription. Splicing entails the exons being rejoined after the introns have been removed from the mRNA sequence (by spliceosomes).
The final transcript will have both protein-coding and non-coding portions if the spot where the splicing process should take place is altered and splicing does not occur. This is because the introns will not be eliminated from the mRNA sequence.
The non-spliced mRNA will be translated into an inactive protein molecule if translation (the creation of protein) ultimately takes place.
This is so that the coding sequences' reading frame won't be hampered by the non-coding sequences.
The complete question is:
What would be the most likely effect of mutating the consensus sequence found at the 5' splice site of an intron?
(A). A shorter than-normal protein would be produced.
(B). Replication would be inhibited.
(C). A longer than-normal mRNA would be produced.
(D). A longer than-normal DNA would be produced.
(E). Transcription would terminate prematurely.
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I-cell disease is a particularly severe form of lysosomal storage disease. Multiple enzymes are lacking in the lysosome and the organelle becomes stuffed with nondegraded material and therefore generates a so-called inclusion body. I-cell disease is inherited; it is caused by a single gene defect in the N-acetylglucosamine phosphotransferase that is required for the formation of mannose 6-phosphate (M6P) residues on lysosomal enzymes in the cis-Golgi. This enzyme recognizes soluble lysosomal enzymes as a class and hence a defect in this protein affects the targeting of a large number of proteins. What other defect(s) would cause the same phenotype? (Select all correct answers may be more than one)
A) a defect in clathrin function
B) a defect in the mannose 6-phosphate receptor
C) a defect in the phosphodiesterase that removes the GlcNAc group that initially covers the phosphate group on mannose 6-phosphate.
D) a defect in KDEL receptor
Cellular organelles called lysosomes contain a range of enzymes that break down materials. These enzymes are guided to lysosomes by the protein N-acetylglucosamine-1-phosphotransferase (GNPT).
Hydrolytic enzymes are delivered to lysosomes via the mannose-6-phosphate (M6P) route. These hydrolases are initially marked with M6P by N-acetylglucosamine-1-phosphotransferase (GNPT), which catalyzes the diverting of them to lysosomes when it binds to receptors in the Golgi.
The transfer of hydrolytic enzymes to lysosomes occurs via the mannose-6-phosphate (M6P) route. These hydrolases are first tagged with M6P by N-acetylglucosamine-1-phosphotransferase (GNPT), which is then detected by receptors in the Golgi and directs them to lysosomes.
The uridine diphosphate-N-acetylglucosamine can bind in a deep cavity in the catalytic domain, and the nearby residues suggest a one-step transfer process. The GNPT gamma subunit's isolated structure suggests that it may attach to mannose-containing glycans in various configurations, indicating that it may be involved in guiding glycans into the right place.
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If 0. 002 mol of potassium ions pass through a cell membrane in 0. 04 s what is the electric current?.
the electric current of Moles of Potassium 0. 002 mol of potassium ions pass through a cell membrane in 0. 04 s is 4750 ampere
number of moles potasium = 0.002 moles
time = 0.04 s
First, calculate the number of ions as follows:
number of ions = 0.002 x 6.023 x 10²³
= 0.012 moles
Charges are calculated as follows:
q = 0.002 x 6.023 x 10²³ x 1.6 x 10⁻¹⁹
q = 0.019 x 10⁴
So calculate the current as follows:
current = q/t
current = 0.019 x 10⁴ / 0.04 s
current = 4750 amps
From this we can conclude that the electric current is 4750 Ampere.
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What were the first two structures seen in eukaryotic cells in a light microscope?.
Answer: The correct answer should be the nucleus and centrosomes.
Explanation: I hope this helps!!!
The sympathetic division of the ans is also called the ______ division as it arises from the thoracic and lumbar regions of the spinal cord.
The sympathetic division of the ans is also called the thoracolumbar division as it arises from the thoracic and lumbar regions of the spinal cord.
What is the thoracolumbar division?The peripheral nervous system's autonomic nervous system controls physiological functions that are carried out automatically, such as digestion, blood pressure, respiration, and sexual desire.
The thoracolumbar division of the autonomic nervous system is the part of the body that is responsible for kicking off the "flight or fight" reaction when the body is under stress. Preganglionic neurons. Neurons that are located in the intermediolateral column of the spinal cord. These neurons can be found between levels T1 and L3.
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Which of the following are ways in which white matter in the spinal cord conveys sensory and/or motor information between the body and the brain? Check all that apply.
-Ascending tracts conduct sensory impulses from the spinal cord to the brain.
-Each funiculus region contains either sensory or motor tracts, but not both.
White matter in the spinal cord conveys sensory and/or motor information between the body and the brain by ascending tracts that conduct sensory impulses from the spinal cord to the brain.
The dorsal column of the white matter sends sensory information to the brain, whereas the anterior column mostly sends motor instructions to the ventral horn motor neurons.
Corticospinal pathways are descending or motor tracts that are responsible for carrying nerve impulses from your brain to different skeletal muscles. Your body moves carefully and subtly as a result of these urges. Spinothalamic tracts are sensory or ascending tracts. They communicate information about pain and body temperature to our brains.
The posterior tract is the spinal cord's back has a number of sizable ascending or sensory tracts. These channels transmit pressure and touch signals from our skin to the brain. Additionally, they communicate vibrational information.
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what is the difference between a chromatid and a chromosome? view available hint(s)for part a what is the difference between a chromatid and a chromosome? a chromatid always consists of a double-stranded dna molecule, whereas a chromosome always consists of a single-stranded dna molecule. chromosomes are always replicated, whereas chromatids are not. a chromatid is one half of a replicated chromosome, whereas a chromosome consists of dna wrapped around proteins in a highly organized manner. chromatids consist only of dna, whereas chromosomes consist only of proteins.
One of a chromosome's two identical halves that has undergone replication in order to facilitate cell division is referred to as a chromatid. The centromere, a constrictive area of the chromosome, serves as the connection between the two "sister" chromatids.
A chromosome has one chromatid, right?A chromatid is one of a chromosome's two halves. One chromatid makes up one chromosome. When the cell cycle occurs, two identical sister chromatids are present on the chromosome after the cell cycle's S-phase has ended. DNA replication happens during the S-phase.
The number of chromatids on a chromosome twin chromatids ?Two sister chromatids make up each chromosome. The third and last stage of meiosis, known as meiosis II, is now entered by the daughter cells.
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Should You wash knives immediately?.
Ideally, you need to do so right away after use. if you don't have time to wash the knife properly away, at least rinse off any food particles, dry it and set it aside to scrub thoroughly later.
Knives are in the middle of the action when it comes to attracting bacteria, so proper cleansing is a demand for food protection. For the house cook, Ovadia says there is no time to smooth like the present. "it's excellent to wash or at the least rinse right after use to keep away from having to scrape meals off later," she says.
Wash your knife with dish soap and hot water after each use. Rinse with clear water. Air-dry or pat dry with smooth paper towels. deal with kitchen knives carefully by means of their handles; do not pile them into the sink or dishpan, however wash them one at a time and rack them with handles up.
The first rule of knife safety is always to cut away from your body or from some other man or woman. there may be always the possibility of an accident or the blade sticking or slipping. take a look at the same rule when polishing blades.
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FILL IN THE BLANK. the gas ___is inhaled and transported to the cells of the body; it is required for normal cellular function.
which term refers to the concept that the rules of synaptic plasticity change depending on the history of synaptic or cellular activity? choose the correct option.
Metaplasticity refers to a persistent, activity-dependent regulation of subsequently induced synaptic plasticity, such as long-term potentiation (LTP) or long-term depression (LTD).
internalization of AMPA receptors into the synapse. Describe synaptic homeostasis. Metaplasticity: The rules of synaptic plasticity change depending on the history of synaptic or cellular activity (changes where the threshold for synaptic modification is) In more complex organisms that possess a nervous system, habituation has been shown to result from decreased the release of chemical transmitters at synaptic terminals1, 8. This changes the weight of certain neuronal connections, a mechanism known as synaptic plasticity. One known mechanism involves a type of postsynaptic glutamate receptor, called the NMDA (N-methyl-D-aspartate) receptor.
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patients with pyruvate dehydrogenase deficiency show high levels of lactic acid in the blood. however, in some cases, treatment with dichloroacetate (dca) lowers lactic acid levels. dca targets the activity of pyruvate dehydrogenase kinase (pdk). Identify how DCA acts to stimulate pyruvate dehydrogenase activity: a. DCA activates pyruvate dehydrogenase phosphatase b. DCA increases phosphorylotion levels of pyruvate dehydrogenase c. DCA inhibits pyruvate dehydrogenase kinase d. DCA activates pyruvate dehydrogenase kinase
DCA stimulate pyruvate dehydrogenase activity by inhibiting pyruvate dehydrogenase kinase.
Effect of Dichloroacetate on Pyruvate dehydrogenase complex:A metabolic intermediary called pyruvate enters the mitochondria where it is handled predominantly by the Krebs cycle. Pyruvate's structural counterpart is dichloroacetate (DCA). DCA stimulates the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex (PDC), which is responsible for converting pyruvate, alanine, and lactate to acetyl CoA. Since the PDC-catalyzed reaction is a significant rate-limiting step in the aerobic process, it is vital to cellular energetics (Patel and Roche, 1990). DCA inhibits the four known pyruvate dehydrogenase kinase (PDK) isoforms that are known to inhibit PDH, keeping PDH active and unphosphorylated. Reactive oxygen species (ROS), oxidative stress, and ultimately death in the cancer cells are produced as a result of overstimulation of the Krebs cycle in the mitochondria caused by the addition of DCA. Congenital lactic acidosis was successfully treated with the old drug DCA because it inhibits PDK and reduces lactate generation. Studies have shown that the addition of DCA to cancer cells activates the Krebs cycle in the mitochondria, disrupts the cell cycle, and causes apoptosis in many tumors.
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