Choose a lecture video from the MIT Open Courseware website (www.mit.edu) and evaluate the professor's communication skills.

Create a rubric that assesses communication skills. The rubric must contain at least 10 items that address both sender and receiver skills.

Use your rubric to evaluate a presentation speaker. Be sure to look for how the professor responds to any questions from the audience and how good the professor is at responding to nonverbal cues. Use your rubric to assign an overall score to the professor.

Write at least three recommendations that the professor can use to improve the presentation.


To complete your assignment, submit:


The name of the professor, the lecture title, and URL for the video you evaluated.

The completed rubric and score for the presentation; the rubric must contain at least 10 items.

Three recommendations to the professor on ways to improve the presentation.

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

Rubric for Evaluating Communication Skills:

Clarity and organization of presentation:

Use of visual aids:

Engagement with the audience:

Responsiveness to audience questions:

Nonverbal communication:

Use of examples and anecdotes:

Use of technical language:

The pace of presentation:

Use of humor:

Overall effectiveness:

Overall Score:

Recommendations:

1.

Unfortunately, I cannot give you a score or specific recommendations without a video of the lecture you want me to evaluate. But I hope the rubric can guide you and the professor in the future to enhance your presentation skills.

Explanation:


Related Questions

what did the cdc introduce in 1985 as a response to the major public health crisis of aids?

Answers

In response to the major public health crisis of AIDS, the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) introduced the "Case Definition for AIDS" in 1985.

The case definition was created to standardize the diagnosis and reporting of AIDS cases, and to provide a consistent approach to monitoring the spread of the disease. The case definition was updated several times over the years to reflect the evolving understanding of the disease and the development of new diagnostic tests.

The case definition provided a set of criteria that healthcare providers could use to diagnose AIDS, including the presence of certain opportunistic infections or cancers, a low CD4 count, and certain other clinical conditions.

The case definition also helped to standardize the reporting of AIDS cases to public health authorities, which was critical for tracking the spread of the disease and monitoring its impact on the population.

The introduction of the case definition was an important step in the early response to the AIDS epidemic, and helped to lay the foundation for the development of effective prevention and treatment strategies for the disease.

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which laboratory finding suggests mild kidney disease in a male client

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The laboratory finding which suggests mild kidney disease in a male client is serum creatinine - 0.9 mg/dL.

Your kidneys suffer only minor damage in mild kidney disease. Despite any physiological or visible harm to your kidneys, your kidneys were always functioning normally. If you have stage 1 CKD, you have normal urine protein levels but an estimated glomerular filtering rate (eGFR) of 90 or above.

A blood test is the primary examination for renal disease. The test gauges your blood's levels of creatinine, a breakdown product. Your healthcare provider determines how much waste your kidneys ought to be capable of filtering in a minute using the findings of your blood test along with information about your age, size, gender, and ethnicity.

The question is incomplete, find the complete question here

Which laboratory finding suggests mild kidney disease in a male client

A. Serum creatinine - 0.9 mg/dL

B.Urinary albumin - 24 mg/mmol

C. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) - 18 mg/dL

D. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)/creatinine ratio - 23

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which of these changes in blood chemistry are indications of cancer?

Answers

The following alterations in blood chemistry are signs of cancer:

Changes in liver enzymesElevated blood calciumChanges in ion concentrations

Cancer is any of a wide range of disorders defined by the uncontrollable division of aberrant cells with the ability to infiltrate & destroy normal human tissue. Cancer has the potential to spread throughout the body. Cancer is the world's second largest cause of death. However, because to advancements in cancer detection, therapy, and prevention, survival rates for many forms of cancer are improving.

Changes (mutations) to a DNA within cells cause cancer. From the inside of a cell, DNA is packaged into many genes, each of which has a sequence of instructions telling the cell about which functions to perform as well as how to grow and divide. Errors in the instructions might cause the cell to stop operating correctly and potentially become cancerous.

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The nurse is interacting with several families with children during their health visits. Which child would the nurse prioritize to receive a hearing screening?
The 8-week-old who had an initial hearing screening reported as negative
The 3-week-old infant who was discharged without a hearing screening
The 6-month-old who attempts to mimic sounds the parents make
The 3-month-old whose mother reports the child turns their head to noises

Answers

The nurse is interacting with several families with children during their health visits. Child would the nurse prioritize to receive a hearing screening is correct option, (b)The 3-week-old infant who was discharged without a hearing screening.

While the nurse is interacting with a number of families with children during their health checkups, she should give priority to the 3-week-old infant who was discharged without a hearing screening.

According to Healthy People 2020, the target is to increase the proportion of infants who are tested for hearing loss by the time they are one month old. The 3-week-old infant would need to undergo a screening because none had been done before.

The other choices advise against the screening because it has previously been carried out and no symptoms of hearing loss are present.

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you have been asked to present a continuing education session on body mechanics and posture. in your presentation, you would advise the participants that proper posture is achieved when your:

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In your presentation, you would advise the participants that proper posture is achieved when your Ears, shoulders, and hips are vertically aligned when standing.

Posture is the way your body is held. There are two kinds: Dynamic posture refers to how you hold oneself when moving, such as walking, jogging, or bending down to pick up something. When you sit, stand, or sleep, your posture is static.

Good posture is vital for overall health and gives several benefits such as reduced back discomfort, more energy, and increased confidence. Good posture is important for overall health since it may help you avoid muscle strain, discomfort, weariness, and a number of other common diseases and medical difficulties.

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Which assessments will provide the nurse with the most information regarding a clients neurologic function?

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Level of consciousness is the assessment which will provide the nurse with the most information regarding a clients neurologic function.

Basic definitions of consciousness include awareness and perception of both interior and exterior existence. To compensate for the absence of definitions, however, philosophers, priests, translators, and researchers have spent thousands of years debating, analysing, and explaining the subject. The phrase "level of consciousness" refers to a person's awareness and comprehension of what is going on around them.

The generated concerns of neurological issues can differ, but they may comprise starvation, brain injury, spinal injuries, or nerve damage. They may also include genetic illnesses, congenital anomalies or illnesses, infections, or environmental health issues.

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what interaction delivers no radiation dose to the patient?

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Interactions that deliver no radiation dose to the patient are those that do not involve the use of ionizing radiation. Ionizing radiation is a type of energy that can strip electrons from atoms, causing ionization, and can potentially cause damage to biological tissue.

Examples of interactions that do not deliver radiation dose include diagnostic imaging procedures that use magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) or ultrasound, or physical exams such as a blood pressure measurement or a listening to a patient's heart and lungs with a stethoscope.

It is important to note that not all procedures labeled as "radiology" or "imaging" use ionizing radiation. Advances in medical technology have allowed for the development of non-ionizing imaging methods that provide detailed images of the body without exposing the patient to ionizing radiation.

Additionally, in some cases where ionizing radiation is necessary, such as in certain types of X-rays or nuclear medicine scans, the amount of radiation delivered to the patient can be minimized through the use of shielding and other protective measures.

In conclusion, interactions that deliver no radiation dose to the patient are those that do not involve the use of ionizing radiation, such as MRI, ultrasound, or physical exams.

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What are the important considerations that the nurse must remember after the placenta is delivered?1.Check if the placenta is complete including the membranes2.Check if the cord is long enough for the baby3.Check if the umbilical cord has 3 blood vessels4.Check if the cord has a meaty portion and a shiny portionA 2 and 4B 2 and 3C 1, 3, and 4D 1 and 3

Answers

The correct alternative is C: 1, 3, and 4: Check if the placenta is complete including the membranes, .Check if the umbilical cord has 3 blood vessels, Check if the cord has a meaty portion and a shiny portio

After the placenta is delivered, it is important for the nurse to check if it is complete, including the membranes, to make sure that no part of the placenta is left inside the mother's uterus, which can cause serious complications.

The nurse should also check the umbilical cord to make sure it has three blood vessels, which indicate that it is functioning properly, and to confirm that it has a meaty portion and a shiny portion, which are signs of a well-formed cord.

checking the cord to see if it has a meaty portion and a shiny portion is a way to assess the overall appearance and quality of the cord. A well-formed cord has a meaty portion, which is thicker and more dense, and a shiny portion, which is smooth and reflective. These are both signs that the cord is healthy and functioning properly.

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a nurse is assessing a client with a new skin disorder. which questions would the nurse include when asking the client about the change in skin condition? select all that apply.
o When did the disorder first begin, and where did it first appear?
o Where are the lesions located?
o Has the problem spread?
o Have you tried to treat the lesions?

Answers

The questions which the nurse would include when asking the client about the change in skin condition are;

When did the disorder first begin, and where did it first appear?Where are the lesions located?Has the problem spread?Have you tried to treat the lesions? Options 1,2,3, and 4 are correct

Skin Diseases are ails that affect the skin. Rashes, inflammation, itching, and other skin abnormalities may affect from these diseases. Some skin conditions may be inherited, while others may be caused by environmental causes. drug, poultices or ointments, and life variations may be used to treat skin conditions. The symptoms of skin conditions vary greatly depending on the illness. Skin differences might not generally affect from skin ails.

Wearing ill- befitting shoes, for illustration, may affect in a fester. Some skin problems are necessary. There is no way to modify your DNA or avoid an autoimmune condition, for example. Many skin diseases are chronic (long-lasting). Treatment can alleviate symptoms, but you may need to continue taking medication or receiving additional treatments to keep them at bay.

The complete question is:

A nurse is assessing a client with a new skin disorder. Which questions would the nurse include when asking the client about the change in skin condition? Select all that apply.

When did the disorder first begin, and where did it first appear?Where are the lesions located?Has the problem spread?Have you tried to treat the lesions?Do you exercise daily?

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A nurse is assessing a client diagnosed with pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). Which finding would the nurse most likely assess? Select all that apply.
1- oral temperature of 102°F (39°C)
2- painful urination
3- right upper quadrant pain
4- tenderness with cervical motion
5- negative pregnancy history
6- clear vaginal discharge

Answers

The findings that the nurse would most likely assess are:

1- oral temperature of 102°F (39°C)2- painful urination4- tenderness with cervical motion5- negative pregnancy history

Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is an infection of the upper part of the female reproductive system, namely the uterus, fallopian tubes, and ovaries, as well as the interior of the pelvis. There are frequently no symptoms. Lower abdominal discomfort, vaginal discharge, fever, urine burning, pain with sex, bleeding after sex, or irregular menstruation are all possible indications and symptoms. PID left untreated can lead to long-term consequences such as infertility, ectopic pregnancy, persistent pelvic discomfort, and cancer.

Bacteria that spread from the vagina and cervix cause the illness. While infections with Neisseria gonorrhoeae or Chlamydia trachomatis have been observed in 75 to 90 percent of cases, the substantial link of PID with these diseases is sometimes misunderstood.

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Name 6 health risks associated with Dehydration

Answers

The 6 health risks associated with dehydration that causes serious complications such as seizures, swelling of the brain, kidney failure, shock, coma and even death.

What drives to thirst?

Dehydration occurs when you don't drink enough fluids or when you lose a lot of water quickly, like when you sweat, throw up, or just have diarrhoea. Dehydration and frequent urination are possible complications of certain drugs, particularly diuretics (water pills). Your blood becomes more concentrated as you lose fluid, which makes your cardiovascular system work harder to adequately pump blood. You urinate less when your blood concentration is high since your kidneys are holding more water.

What are the top three indicators of dehydration?

Getting a thirst, pee with a strong, dark yellow odour, less recurrent urination than normal, and feeling light - headed or dizzy.

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how should an uneven load be held

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Holding an uneven load properly is important to prevent injury and ensure safety. The following are some tips for holding an uneven load: Assess the weight ,Get a firm grip ,Stand in a stable position, Keep the load close to your body

Assess the weight: Determine the weight of the load and whether it is within your physical capability to lift it safely. If it is too heavy, consider asking for help or using a lifting aid.

Get a firm grip: Use a grip that is comfortable and secure. If the load is too heavy or too big to grasp with one hand, use both hands.

Stand in a stable position: Stand with your feet hip-width apart and your weight evenly distributed. This will help to maintain balance and stability.

Keep the load close to your body: The closer the load is to your body, the easier it will be to carry. This will also help to maintain balance.

Use proper posture: Stand upright and keep your back straight. This will help to distribute the weight evenly and reduce the risk of injury.

Shift the load as necessary: If the load is uneven, adjust your grip and stance as necessary to maintain balance. This may involve shifting the load from one hand to the other.

By following these tips, you can hold an uneven load safely and prevent injury. If you experience pain or discomfort, stop lifting immediately and seek medical attention if necessary.

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what is the difference between portable and drinkable

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The key difference between portable and drinkable is that portable refers to something that is easy to carry or move, while drinkable refers to something that is safe and suitable for consumption as a liquid.

"Portable" and "drinkable" are two adjectives used to describe objects or substances based on their properties and qualities.

"Portable" refers to something that is easy to carry or move from one place to another. For example, a portable music player is small and lightweight, making it easy to bring with you on the go.

"Drinkable" refers to something that is safe and suitable for consumption as a liquid, typically referring to beverages such as water, juice, or soda. For example, if you are hiking in the wilderness and find a stream, you would want to determine if the water is drinkable before consuming it.

In general, an object or substance can be both portable and drinkable. For example, a water bottle is both portable and drinkable, as it is designed to be carried easily and contains water that is safe to drink. However, not all portable objects are drinkable, and not all drinkable substances are portable.

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Which questions would the nurse include in a patient's screening for health promotion practices? Select all that apply.
Use of contraceptives
Use of sunscreen
Use of prescription medications
Use of seatbelts
Use of antacids

Answers

Nurse conducting a screening for health promotion practices would assess a patient's use of contraceptives, sunscreen, prescription medications, seatbelts, and antacids to help identify areas for improvement and provide education and support as needed.

Health promotion practices refer to actions and behaviors individuals engage in to maintain and improve their health. A nurse would typically include questions about the following:

Use of contraceptives: This question is relevant for individuals who are sexually active and seeking to prevent pregnancy or reduce the risk of sexually transmitted infections.Use of sunscreen: This question is important for individuals who are frequently exposed to the sun, as regular use of sunscreen can help prevent skin cancer and reduce the risk of skin damage.Use of prescription medications: This question helps the nurse understand if the patient is taking any prescription medications.Use of seatbelts: This question helps the nurse assess if the patient follows the recommended safety measures while driving or riding in a vehicle.Use of antacids: This question helps the nurse understand if the patient is experiencing symptoms of heartburn or indigestion and if they are using antacids as a self-management strategy.

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Select all that apply
Why is it important for conducting arteries to maintain elasticity?
Their recoil helps maintain blood pressure between heartbeats.
Their expansion reduces systolic stress on smaller arteries.
Their expansion and recoil helps keep the blood flowing during diastole.
Their recoil ensures that blood pressure is higher during diastole than during systole.

Answers

Conducting arteries, also known as elastic arteries, play a critical role in the circulatory system. They are responsible for distributing blood from the heart to the rest of the body and maintaining a steady blood pressure. The elasticity of conducting arteries is important for several reasons:

Their recoil helps maintain blood pressure between heartbeats: Conducting arteries have the ability to expand and then recoil, which helps to maintain blood pressure between heartbeats. This elastic recoil helps to regulate blood flow and ensure that the right amount of blood is being distributed to the body's tissues and organs.

Their expansion reduces systolic stress on smaller arteries: During systole, the contraction of the heart generates a high pressure wave that travels through the blood vessels.

Their expansion and recoil helps keep the blood flowing during diastole: The recoil of conducting arteries also helps to keep blood flowing during diastole, which is the period of the cardiac cycle when the heart is relaxed and filling with blood.

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An 8-month-old will be hospitalized for surgery. Which preparation by her parents would be most important?
Buy a new pair of soft pajamas.
Pack her favorite toy.
Let her watch her suitcase being packed.
Read her a story on hospitalization.

Answers

Her parents' most important preparation would be to pack her favourite toy.

Your baby's brain is growing rapidly around the age of 8-9 months. This improves your baby's memory and may cause them to establish deeper relationships to their favourite people, toys, and books. Your infant may even have a favourite person, which might be you, your spouse, or the other close family member or carer. At this age, separation fear and anxiety towards strangers are rather prevalent.

Knowing that these are normal stages of child growth may be helpful to know these are normal stages of child growth. Your child's emotions are developing. Your newborn, for example, can convey fear as well as read and respond on your facial emotions. Your infant is learning to associate words with their meanings and recognize your body language.

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In which organ do enzymes perform their function

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The organ where enzymes perform their function is The pancreas

In the body, specific organs like the salivary glands, stomach, pancreas, and small intestine create enzymes, or they can be obtained through the food we eat.

In the body, enzymes are crucial to the chemical reactions that occur inside of cells. You will learn about the numerous kinds, uses, and significance of enzymes in the human body from this article.

The body uses enzymes to carry out a variety of chemical operations, including food digestion, cellular energy production, support for brain activity, body repair and healing, breakdown of pollutants, blood detoxification, and more.

In other words, if there were no enzymes, our bodies would stop working. Food enzymes are present in all raw foods like animal or plant products. The names of enzymes that are plant-based are protease, lipase, amylase and cellulase.

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the nurse is caring for a client after pulmonary angiography with catheter insertion via the left groin. Which assessment finding is related to an allergic reaction to the contrast medium? 1. Hypothermia 2. Decreased blood pressure 3. Hematoma in the left groin 4. Discomfort in the left groin

Answers

Pulmonary angiography with catheter insertion is a diagnostic procedure performed to evaluate blood flow in the lungs. An allergic reaction to the contrast medium used during the procedure can occur, and it is important for the nurse to be aware of the related assessment findings. Out of the options listed, the assessment finding related to an allergic reaction to the contrast medium is:

3. Hematoma in the left groin

A hematoma is a swelling of blood within the tissues caused by the escape of blood from the blood vessels. In this case, a hematoma in the left groin may occur due to an allergic reaction to the contrast medium, as the contrast medium was inserted via the left groin. This could be caused by a reaction to the contrast medium itself or from the procedure, leading to the development of a hematoma.

It is important for the nurse to monitor the client for signs and symptoms of an allergic reaction, such as itching, hives, or difficulty breathing, and to promptly report these findings to the physician. The nurse should also monitor the site of catheter insertion for signs of infection, such as redness, warmth, and increased pain, and take appropriate action as needed.

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illustrate four ways in which epidemiology contributes as the basic science of public health.

Answers

The four ways in which epidemiology contributes as the basic science of public health. are as follow.

Epidemiology provides a foundation for public health surveillance and monitoring. By gathering data on  complaint prevalence and  frequence, epidemiologists can identify high-  threat populations, track outbreaks, and inform public health  programs and interventions.   Epidemiologists also contribute to public health  exploration by designing and conducting studies to  probe the causes and  goods of health conditions on  individualities and populations. This includes understanding how environmental,  inheritable, and behavioral factors  impact health  issues.   Epidemiologists also play an important  part in educating the public about health  pitfalls. By communicating  exploration findings and promoting health  knowledge, epidemiologists can help to  produce a safer and healthier  terrain for everyone.   Eventually, epidemiologists are essential for program evaluation and quality  enhancement. By collecting and  assaying data, epidemiologists can  estimate the effectiveness of public health programs and help to  insure that they're meeting the  requirements of the community.

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Indicate which form of hemopoiesis can improve the symptoms of each condition Polycythema Leukemia Leukopenia Sickle cell disease Hemorthago Hypoxia Leukocytosis Anemia Improved with Erythropolesis Improved with Leukopolesis Not Improved/Worsened with Erythropolesis or Leukopoiesis $

Answers

Hemopoiesis is the process of producing blood cells, which includes the production of red blood cells (erythrocytes), white blood cells (leukocytes), and platelets.

Different forms of hemopoiesis can impact the symptoms of various blood disorders.

Polycythemia, a condition characterized by an abnormally high number of red blood cells, can be improved with erythropoiesis, which is the production of red blood cells.

This increased production can help to correct the imbalance of red blood cells and alleviate the symptoms of polycythemia, such as fatigue and shortness of breath.

Leukemia, a cancer of the blood and bone marrow, is not improved or worsened by either erythropoiesis or leukopoiesis.

Leukemia involves the uncontrolled production of abnormal white blood cells, and treatments for this condition typically involve destroying the cancerous cells and restoring the normal balance of blood cells.

Leukopenia, a condition characterized by an abnormally low number of white blood cells, can be improved with leukopoiesis, which is the production of white blood cells. This increased production can help to correct the imbalance of white blood cells and alleviate the symptoms of leukopenia, such as increased risk of infection.

Sickle cell disease, a genetic blood disorder that causes the production of abnormally shaped red blood cells, is not improved by either erythropoiesis or leukopoiesis. The treatments for sickle cell disease typically involve managing the symptoms, such as pain and increased risk of infections, and preventing complications.

Hemorrhage, a condition characterized by excessive bleeding, is not improved by either erythropoiesis or leukopoiesis. The treatments for hemorrhage typically involve stopping the bleeding and restoring the lost blood volume through transfusions or other means.

Hypoxia, a condition characterized by a reduced supply of oxygen to the body's tissues, is not improved by either erythropoiesis or leukopoiesis. The treatments for hypoxia typically involve correcting the underlying cause of the reduced oxygen supply, such as correcting anemia or improving lung function.

Leukocytosis, a condition characterized by an abnormally high number of white blood cells, is not improved by either erythropoiesis or leukopoiesis. The treatments for leukocytosis typically involve determining the underlying cause of the increased white blood cell count and addressing that cause.

Anemia, a condition characterized by a reduced number of red blood cells or decreased hemoglobin, can be improved with erythropoiesis, which is the production of red blood cells. This increased production can help to correct the imbalance of red blood cells and alleviate the symptoms of anemia, such as fatigue and weakness.

In conclusion, different forms of hemopoiesis can impact the symptoms of various blood disorders in different ways.

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A patient is prescribed digoxin to treat heart failure. Which biochemical parameter should be assessed to ensure safe drug administration?

Answers

Digoxin is the drug used to treat heart failure and certain types of arrhythmia. It works by strengthening the force of the heart's  condensation.  

In order to  insure the safe administration of digoxin, the healthcare provider must cover the case's serum potassium  situations, as low  situations can increase the  threat of digoxin  toxin. Digoxin can bind to potassium, causing a  reduction of this electrolyte. thus, if the case has low potassium  situations, the cure of digoxin must be acclimated or the  medicine must be stopped.

The case's serum creatinine  situations also need to be covered as elevated  situations indicate  disabled  order function and can also increase the  threat of digoxin  toxin. Other parameters  similar as heart rate, blood pressure, and ECG must also be assessed to  insure safe administration of digoxin.

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What are the uncontrollable risk factors of chicken pox?

Answers

People who are at higher risk of chickenpox complications include:

Newborns and infants whose mothers never had chickenpox or the vaccine

Adolescents and adults

Pregnant women who haven't had chickenpox

People who smoke

People whose immune systems are weakened by medication, such as chemotherapy, or by a disease, such as cancer or HIV

People who are taking steroid medications for another disease or condition, such as asthma

Which sleeping disorder includes the assessment for preferred sleep schedule?
1. arousal disorder
2. insomnia disorder
3. hypersomnia disorder
4. circadian rhythm disorder

Answers

One type of sleeping disorder that includes the assessment for preferred sleep schedule is circadian rhythm disorder.

Circadian rhythm disorder is a type of sleeping disorder that affects the timing of sleep. This disorder is characterized by a disruption in the body's internal clock, which controls the timing of sleep and other bodily functions.

People with circadian rhythm disorder may have difficulty sleeping at certain times, and may have difficulty staying awake during the day. The assessment for preferred sleep schedule helps to identify the best time for a person to sleep, as well as to identify any underlying causes of the disorder.

Other types of sleeping disorder include arousal disorder, insomnia disorder, and hypersomnia disorder. Arousal disorder is a type of sleep disorder that affects the ability to remain awake during the day.

Insomnia disorder is a type of sleep disorder characterized by difficulty falling asleep and staying asleep. Hypersomnia disorder is a type of sleep disorder characterized by an excessive need for sleep.

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every year sally vaccinates her dog against rabies. who receives the external benefits of sally's decision to vaccinate her dog?

Answers

Every year Sally vaccinates her dog against rabies and the other dogs at the dog park that they visit receive the external benefits of Sally's decision to vaccinate her dog.

Rabies is a preventable viral disease. The rabies virus affects animals' central nervous systems, which actually resulted in mental illness and death.

Typically, an animal bite—such as one from a stray dog—transmits rabies. Fever, headaches, excessive salivation, spasms, numbness, and disorientation are some symptoms. After a bite or feared bite, seek emergency medical assistance. For rabies, there is no particular treatment. Once symptoms start, it almost usually ends in death. A vaccine can shield you from illness.

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The nurse is administering an antibiotic to a client with a diagnosis of cellulitis of the left leg. Which client condition would have the greatest effect on the drug's distribution?
O diverticulitis disease
O hypertension
O peripheral vascular disease
O liver dysfunction

Answers

The condition that would have the greatest effect on antibiotic's distribution  upon a client with a diagnosis of cellulitis of the left leg will be: (c) peripheral vascular disease (PVD).

PVD is a disorder of blood circulation that can cause the blood vessels outside of the heart and brain to get blocked, narrow or spasm. It is a slow and progressive disorder. It can affect the lymphatic vessels as well as the blood vessels.

Cellulitis is a skin infection caused due to various bacteria. The affected part of the skin becomes red and swollen and the affected person experiences pain in that portion. Good hygiene and taking care of open wounds is necessary to prevent cellulitis.

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Can someone please help me with my drivers ed worksheet

Answers

Answer: um sorry if this dose not help u

what treats the body using princples similar to acupuncture and acupressure

Answers

Acupuncture and acupressure are both parts of a larger system of healing known as Traditional Chinese Medicine (TCM). Acupuncture and acupressure are two different treatments that use the same underlying principles to treat the body.

Acupuncture involves the insertion of very thin needles into specific points called acupoints along the body's energy pathways. Acupressure, on the other hand, utilizes the same acupoints, but instead of inserting needles, pressure is applied with the fingers, hands, or elbows.

The goal of both acupuncture and acupressure is to balance the body's energy, or qi. In TCM, it is believed that the body can become unbalanced due to a variety of factors, including stress, injury, and illness. By stimulating the acupoints, the energy pathways of the body can be opened up, allowing the qi to flow more freely. This can help to restore balance and harmony to the body, leading to improved health and well-being.

Acupuncture and acupressure can be used to treat a wide variety of conditions, including pain, headaches, digestive issues, and even mental health issues such as anxiety and depression.

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The nurse is assessing a client at a postpartum visit who reports constipation. The nurse should point out this is likely related to which factor?
O discomfort due to hemorrhoids
O distention of abdominal muscles
O separation of rectus muscles
O relaxation of abdominal muscles

Answers

When a client at postpartum visit reports of constipation, the nurse should point out that this is likely related to the factor: (1)  discomfort due to hemorrhoids.

Constipation is defined as the inability to eliminate stools from the rectum effectively. The waste material passes very slowly during this through the digestive tract and often becomes very hard in the rectum. This can normally occur due to dehydration, lack of dietary fiber, physical inactivity or some medication side effects.

Hemorrhoids is the condition of inflammation and swollen veins in the lower rectum region. It can occur inside the rectum or under the skin of the anus region.

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True/False. we don’t know whether or not adult humans’ motor cortexes will experience changes when they take up a new sport or physical skill.

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False. There is evidence to suggest that adult humans' motor cortexes can experience changes when they take up a new sport or physical skill.

Studies have shown that the motor cortex, which is responsible for controlling movement, can undergo plastic changes in response to new motor experiences. This phenomenon is known as neuroplasticity and has been observed in adult humans who have learned new physical skills, such as playing a musical instrument or learning a new sport. These changes in the motor cortex can result in improved motor performance and increased muscle strength.

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______ is a pattern of behavior done to intentionally harm another person.
OA. Compromise
OB. Abuse
OC. Relationship
OD. Boundaries

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Answer:

B) Abuse is a pattern of behavior done to intentionally harm another person.

Explanation:

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