course hero value per share for anheuser-busch as a stand-alone firm? is anheuser-busch undervalued, overvalued, or fairly valued? calculate the fair price per share by performing a discounted cash flow (dcf) valuation

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Answer 1

The value per share for Anheuser-Busch as a stand-alone firm is determined through a discounted cash flow (DCF) valuation. Based on this analysis, we can determine whether the company is undervalued, overvalued, or fairly valued.

DCF valuation is a widely used method to estimate the intrinsic value of a company. It involves projecting the future cash flows of the business and discounting them back to the present value using an appropriate discount rate. By considering the expected cash flows over the company's lifespan, this approach provides insight into the fair price per share.

To perform a DCF valuation for Anheuser-Busch, we would need to estimate the company's future cash flows, taking into account factors such as revenue growth, profitability, capital expenditures, and working capital requirements. Additionally, we would need to determine an appropriate discount rate that reflects the company's risk profile and the opportunity cost of capital.

Once the cash flows and discount rate are established, the DCF model calculates the present value of the expected future cash flows. The resulting fair value per share represents the estimated intrinsic value of the company's stock.

By comparing the fair value per share to the market price of Anheuser-Busch, we can assess whether the stock is undervalued, overvalued, or fairly valued. If the market price is lower than the calculated fair value, the stock may be considered undervalued, presenting a potential buying opportunity. Conversely, if the market price is higher than the fair value, the stock may be considered overvalued.

It is important to note that DCF valuation is based on several assumptions, and its accuracy depends on the quality of the inputs and the reliability of the projections. Investors should consider other factors and perform a comprehensive analysis before making investment decisions.

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suppose that the probabilities of a customer purchasing​ 0, 1, or 2 books at a book store are.2 ​,.2 ​, and ​.6, respectively. what is the standard deviation of this​ customer's book​ purchases?

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To find the standard deviation of a customer's book purchases, we first need to calculate the mean or average number of books purchased. We can do this by multiplying the number of books by their corresponding probabilities and summing the results.

So, the mean number of books purchased can be calculated as follows: (0 books x 0.2) + (1 book x 0.2) + (2 books x 0.6) = 0 + 0.2 + 1.2 = 1.4 books Next, we need to calculate the variance, which measures the spread of the data. The variance is calculated by taking the square of the difference between each value and the mean, multiplying it by the corresponding probability, and summing the results.
Using the formula for variance, we have:
((0-1.4)^2 x 0.2) + ((1-1.4)^2 x 0.2) + ((2-1.4)^2 x 0.6) = (1.96 x 0.2) + (0.16 x 0.2) + (0.36 x 0.6) = 0.392 + 0.032 + 0.216 = 0.64
Finally, the standard deviation is the square root of the variance. Therefore, the standard deviation of this customer's book purchases is:
√(0.64) = 0.8 books
So, the standard deviation of this customer's book purchases is 0.8 books.

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Customer's account shows the following: long 100 abc common 100 def common market value $15,000 $20,000 debit $20,000 sma $4,000 the customer sells the abc position. the sma account will be?

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The SMA account will be $8,000 after selling the ABC position. SMA is the Special Memorandum Account used to track the amount available for trading after initial margin.

The SMA (Special Memorandum Account) is a record of the surplus equity in a margin account. When the customer sells the ABC position, the market value of the ABC position ($15,000) will be credited to the SMA.

And the new SMA balance will be $4,000 (previous SMA) + $15,000 (ABC market value) - $20,000 (debit used to purchase ABC) = $8,000. This balance can be used by the customer for future trades or withdrawals, as it represents the excess margin in the account beyond the initial margin requirement.

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In the IS-LM model when M rises but P remains constant, in short-run equilibrium, in the usual case the interest rate ______ and output ______.

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When the money supply rises but the price level remains constant, the interest rate decreases and output increases in the short-run equilibrium of the IS-LM model.

In the IS-LM model, when the money supply (M) rises but the price level (P) remains constant, it affects the short-run equilibrium in terms of the interest rate and output. Here's how:

1. Increase in Money Supply (M): When the money supply increases, it leads to an excess supply of money in the economy. Individuals and firms have more money than they desire to hold.

2. Excess Money Demand: With an excess supply of money, individuals and firms will attempt to get rid of the excess money by increasing their spending. This increase in spending leads to an increase in aggregate demand (AD).

3. Shift in IS Curve: The increase in aggregate demand shifts the IS curve to the right. This occurs because at every interest rate, the level of output demanded increases due to the increased spending.

4. Interest Rate and Output: In the short-run, the increase in aggregate demand causes the interest rate to decrease and output to increase. The decrease in interest rate stimulates investment, while the increase in output is a result of increased spending.

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If the equilibrium price of an hour with a personal trainer is $45 and the market price is currently $55, then there is?

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If the equilibrium price of an hour with a personal trainer is $45 and the current market price is $55, then there is a surplus in the market.

A surplus occurs when the quantity supplied exceeds the quantity demanded at a given price. In this case, the market price of $55 is higher than the equilibrium price of $45. As a result, personal trainers are offering their services at a price that exceeds what consumers are willing to pay. This leads to an excess supply of personal training hours in the market, creating a surplus. To restore equilibrium, the price would typically decrease until it reaches the equilibrium level of $45, which would bring the quantity demanded and quantity supplied back into balance. The surplus indicates that personal trainers may need to adjust their prices or find ways to increase demand for their services to align with the equilibrium price.

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He will be writing advertising campaign objectives that are aimed at making the target customers' attitudes more favorable toward Club Ride, which should be stated in ____ terms.

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When writing advertising campaign objectives that are aimed at making the target customers' attitudes more favorable toward Club Ride, it is important to state them in measurable terms.

Measurable terms refer to specific, quantifiable criteria that can be used to evaluate the success of the advertising campaign objectives.

This means that the objectives should be specific and detailed, and they should clearly define what needs to be achieved and how it will be measured.

For example, rather than stating that the objective is to "increase customer satisfaction," the objective should be stated as "increase customer satisfaction by 20% within the next six months, as measured by customer surveys."

This statement is more specific and measurable, and it provides a clear target for the advertising campaign objectives to work towards.

Measurable terms are important because they provide a way to track progress and evaluate the success of the advertising campaign objectives.

By stating objectives in measurable terms, it is possible to determine whether or not the objectives have been achieved and to identify areas where improvements can be made.

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The ability of competitors to achieve long-term competitive advantages by entering the market later and not being the first to offer a certain product in the marketplace is called _______.

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The ability of competitors to achieve long-term competitive advantages by entering the market later and not being the first to offer a certain product in the marketplace is called Late-mover advantage.

A late-mover advantage is an advantage that a company gains when it enters the market later than its competitors. It has the opportunity to learn from the initial launch of the product and correct any mistakes made by the early entrants. Late-mover advantages can arise due to technological advancement, the development of new resources, or significant changes in the industry.

There are various advantages that a late entrant can leverage to gain market share. Firstly, late entrants can study the market and learn from early entrants’ mistakes. Secondly, late entrants can gain insights on the preferences of consumers and improve on the shortcomings of the early entrants. Lastly, late entrants can take advantage of a new or existing technology to gain a competitive advantage.

Therefore, This advantage can arise due to the discovery of a new resource that enables the late entrant to create a better product than early entrants.

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Companies like Dole create requests for proposal (RFPs) primarily so that they can __________ potential suppliers.

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Companies like Dole create RFPs to evaluate potential suppliers and select the most suitable one for their specific needs.

The RFP process allows Dole and similar companies to compare and evaluate potential suppliers based on several factors, including their capabilities, experience, pricing, delivery timelines, and quality standards.

The RFP responses provide valuable insights into each supplier's ability to meet the company's specific needs and objectives. Through a structured evaluation process, Dole can objectively assess and select the most qualified supplier that aligns with their requirements, budget, and overall strategic goals.

In conclusion, issuing RFPs enables companies like Dole to solicit proposals from potential suppliers, evaluate their capabilities, and make informed decisions about supplier selection.

It ensures a fair and transparent procurement process, ultimately leading to the identification of the most suitable supplier for a given project or procurement opportunity.

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In FCPA matters, the following would be considered effective compliance program policies except: Group of answer choices Availability of compliance expertise on the board Few resources dedicated to compliance of standards Clear reporting structure for compliance personnel Auditing of compliance functions

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An effective compliance program requires policies such as availability of compliance expertise on the board, clear reporting structure for compliance personnel, and auditing of compliance functions. However, having few resources dedicated to compliance is not considered effective.

In FCPA matters, an effective compliance program requires certain policies to ensure adherence to standards and regulations. However, among the given options, the one that would not be considered an effective compliance program policy is "Few resources dedicated to compliance of standards."

Here's why:
1. Availability of compliance expertise on the board: This policy ensures that individuals with knowledge and experience in compliance are part of the board. Their expertise helps in developing and implementing effective compliance measures.

2. Clear reporting structure for compliance personnel: Having a clear reporting structure ensures that compliance personnel can easily escalate issues, report misconduct, and seek guidance from higher authorities. It fosters accountability and transparency.

3. Auditing of compliance functions: Regular auditing of compliance functions allows for the evaluation of existing policies, procedures, and controls. It helps identify gaps and areas for improvement, ensuring the program remains effective and up-to-date.

However, "Few resources dedicated to compliance of standards" is not an effective compliance program policy. Insufficient resources can hinder the implementation and monitoring of compliance measures, making it challenging to detect and prevent violations effectively.

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Which two are selling styles that are common for the need-satisfaction presentation format?

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Two common selling styles that are often used with the need-satisfaction presentation format are consultative selling and relationship selling.

Consultative Selling: This selling style focuses on understanding the customer's needs, challenges, and goals. The salesperson acts as a consultant, asking relevant questions to gather information and actively listening to the customer's responses. Based on this understanding, the salesperson provides tailored solutions and recommendations that address the customer's specific needs. The emphasis is on building trust, providing expertise, and demonstrating how the product or service can satisfy the customer's requirements.

Relationship Selling: This selling style places a strong emphasis on building long-term relationships with customers. The salesperson invests time and effort into developing a deep understanding of the customer's preferences, buying behaviors, and organizational dynamics. By nurturing relationships and fostering trust, the salesperson aims to create customer loyalty and repeat business. In the need-satisfaction presentation format, relationship selling involves presenting solutions and demonstrating how they can fulfill the customer's needs while also highlighting the benefits of maintaining a strong business relationship.

Both consultative selling and relationship selling prioritize understanding the customer's needs and providing tailored solutions. They involve a customer-centric approach that aims to establish a strong connection and deliver value to the customer. These selling styles are effective for the need-satisfaction presentation format as they focus on aligning the product or service with the customer's specific requirements, ultimately increasing the likelihood of a successful sale.


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Bob cratchit needs $10 per month for grave maintenance after he passes. if he earns 6.0% annual interest, compounded monthly, how much should he deposit before he dies?

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Bob Cratchit should deposit $10,170.58 before he dies to cover $10 per month for grave maintenance, with a 6.0% annual interest rate compounded monthly.

To determine the amount Bob Cratchit should deposit before he dies, we need to calculate the present value of the monthly payments for grave maintenance. The interest rate is 6.0% per year, compounded monthly.

The formula to calculate the present value of an annuity is:

PV = PMT * (1 - (1 + r)^(-n)) / r

Where PV is the present value, PMT is the monthly payment, r is the monthly interest rate, and n is the number of months.

In this case, the monthly payment is $10, the monthly interest rate is 6.0% / 12 = 0.5%, and the number of months depends on how long Bob Cratchit expects to live.

Let's assume Bob Cratchit expects to live for 20 years, which is equivalent to 240 months. Plugging these values into the formula:

PV = $10 * (1 - (1 + 0.005)^(-240)) / 0.005

Calculating this equation, the present value (the amount Bob Cratchit should deposit) is approximately $10,170.58.

Therefore, Bob Cratchit should deposit $10,170.58 before he dies to cover $10 per month for grave maintenance, assuming a 6.0% annual interest rate compounded monthly.

By using the formula for the present value of an annuity, we determined that Bob Cratchit should deposit $10,170.58 before he dies to have enough funds for $10 per month for grave maintenance. The calculation considers a 6.0% annual interest rate compounded monthly and the expected duration of payments.

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the inflation or deflation rate is: the change in a price index divided by the initial value of the index. the change in a price index divided by the new index number. the difference between the initial price index number and the new price index number. computed by dividing the old price index number by the new price index numbe

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The inflation or deflation rate is Option D. The change in a price index is divided by the initial value of the index.

This rate is computed by comparing the price level of a given year with the price level of another year. This is usually done by comparing the consumer price index of one year with the consumer price index of another year. Inflation or deflation is usually measured as a percentage of the change in the consumer price index over a given period. The inflation rate is positive if the consumer price index has increased, while it is negative if the consumer price index has decreased.

A price index is an indicator of the average price level of a given year compared with the price level of another year. The price index usually includes the prices of goods and services that are consumed by households and businesses. It can also include the prices of commodities that are traded in financial markets. The inflation rate is an important economic indicator because it can have a significant impact on the economy.

Inflation can erode the purchasing power of consumers, reduce the value of savings, and lead to a decrease in investment and output. Deflation, on the other hand, can lead to a decline in economic activity and increase the value of savings. Therefore, the correct option is D.

The question was incomplete, Find the full content below:

The inflation or deflation rate is

A. the change in a price index divided by the new index number.

B. computed by dividing the old price index number by the new price index number.

C. the difference between the initial price index number and the new price index number.

D. the change in a price index divided by the initial value of the index.

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If the marginal propensity to consume is 0.80 and the federal government decreases spending by $200 billion, the income–expenditure model predicts that real gdp will fall by:__________

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A decrease in government spending by $200 billion with a marginal propensity to consume of 0.80 predicts that real GDP will fall by $1,000 billion according to the income-expenditure model. This is determined by the multiplier effect, which amplifies the impact of changes in autonomous spending on overall output. Option A is correct.

To determine the effect of a decrease in government spending on real GDP using the income-expenditure model, we need to consider the multiplier effect. The multiplier represents the change in real GDP resulting from a change in autonomous spending (in this case, the change in government spending).

The multiplier is calculated as the reciprocal of the marginal propensity to consume (MPC). The MPC represents the proportion of an additional dollar of income that is consumed. In this case, the MPC is given as 0.80.

The formula to calculate the multiplier (M) is:

M = 1 / (1 - MPC)

Using the given MPC of 0.80, we can calculate the multiplier:

M = 1 / (1 - 0.80) = 1 / 0.20 = 5

Now, we can determine the change in real GDP by multiplying the change in government spending by the multiplier:

Change in real GDP = Change in government spending * Multiplier

Given a decrease in government spending of $200 billion, the change in government spending would be -200 billion (negative because it's a decrease).

Change in real GDP = -200 billion * 5 = -1,000 billion

Therefore, according to the income-expenditure model, real GDP will fall by $1,000 billion (Option A).

Complete question:

If the marginal propensity to consume is 0.80 and the federal government decreases spending by $200 billion, the income-expenditure model predicts that real GDP will fall by OA $1,000 billion. OB. $800 billion. OC $160 billion. OD. $200 billion.

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Kcco, inc., has current assets of $5300, net fixed assets of $24,900, current liabilities of $4,600, and long-term debt of:_________

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KCCO, Inc. has a long-term debt of $20,600.

Long-term debt refers to financial obligations or liabilities that are due beyond one year or the normal operating cycle of a business.

To determine the long-term debt of KCCO, Inc., we need to subtract the current assets and current liabilities from the total assets. The formula is:

Long-term debt = Total assets - Current assets - Current liabilities

Given that KCCO, Inc. has current assets of $5,300 and current liabilities of $4,600, we can calculate the total assets as follows:

Total assets = Current assets + Net fixed assets

Total assets = $5,300 + $24,900

Total assets = $30,200

Now we can calculate the long-term debt:

Long-term debt = $30,200 - $5,300 - $4,600

Long-term debt = $20,600

Therefore, KCCO, Inc. has a long-term debt of $20,600.

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What is the primary difference between a price placed on a property by a real estate sales person and a value placed by a professional appraiser

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The primary difference between a price placed on a property by a real estate salesperson and a value placed by a professional appraiser is the purpose and methodology behind each valuation.

A price placed on a property by a real estate salesperson is typically determined with the intention of selling the property at a specific price. This price may be influenced by market conditions, comparable sales in the area, and the seller's desired profit. However, it is important to note that this price is subjective and may not always accurately reflect the true market value of the property.

On the other hand, a value placed by a professional appraiser is an unbiased and objective estimation of the market value of a property. Appraisers use a standardized methodology that takes into consideration various factors such as the property's location, size, condition, and comparable sales data. They also consider other factors that may affect the property's value, such as market trends and economic conditions.

In summary, while a price placed by a real estate salesperson is subjective and driven by the desire to sell the property at a specific price, a value placed by a professional appraiser is an objective and unbiased estimation of the market value based on standardized methodologies and various factors.

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sub company has produced the first unit of a new line of minisubs at a cost of $500,000  $200,000 for materials and $300,000 for labor  it has agreed to accept a 10 percent profit and is willing to contract on the basis of a 70 percent learning curve  what will be the contract price for three minisubs?

Answers

The contract price for three minisubs will be $879,732.

The contract price for three minisubs can be calculated using the given information. The cost of producing the first unit is $500,000, with $200,000 for materials and $300,000 for labor. The sub-company has agreed to a 10 percent profit and a 70 percent learning curve.
To find the contract price for three minisubs, we need to consider the learning curve. The learning curve implies that the time it takes to produce each subsequent unit decreases by a certain percentage with each doubling of cumulative units produced. In this case, the learning curve is 70 percent.
Using the learning curve formula, we can calculate the average cost per unit for the first three minisubs:
Average Cost per Unit = Cost of the First Unit / (Cumulative Units^Log(70))
For the first unit, the cost is $500,000. Plugging in the values, we have:
Average Cost per Unit = $500,000 / (1^Log(70))
Average Cost per Unit = $500,000

For the second unit, the cumulative units is 2:
Average Cost per Unit = $500,000 / (2^Log(70))
Average Cost per Unit = $230,940
For the third unit, the cumulative units is 3:
Average Cost per Unit = $500,000 / (3^Log(70))
Average Cost per Unit = $148,792
To find the total contract price for three minisubs, we add the cost of each unit together:
Contract Price = Average Cost per Unit * Number of Units
Contract Price = $500,000 + $230,940 + $148,792
Contract Price = $879,732

Therefore, the contract price for three minisubs will be $879,732.

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After an lbo, managers are likely to shirk blank______. multiple choice question. all duties more harder

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After an LBO (leveraged buyout), managers are likely to shirk certain duties. This can be attributed to various factors, including changes in incentives, increased financial pressures, and the focus on short-term profitability. One possible answer to the multiple-choice question would be "all duties."

In an LBO, a private equity firm acquires a company using a significant amount of borrowed money. This debt puts pressure on managers to maximize profits and generate cash flow to meet interest payments and repay the debt. As a result, managers may prioritize certain tasks that directly contribute to short-term profitability, such as cost-cutting or revenue generation, while neglecting other responsibilities, such as long-term strategic planning or employee development.

Another possible answer could be "more than before." In an LBO, managers often face higher performance expectations and increased scrutiny from the private equity firm. This can create a sense of pressure and a fear of failure, leading to a tendency to focus only on tasks that are seen as critical to immediate financial performance. This narrower focus can result in a neglect of other duties that may not be as directly linked to short-term financial outcomes.

In summary, after an LBO, managers are likely to shirk certain duties, particularly those that are not directly tied to short-term financial performance or that require long-term investment. This behavior is influenced by the increased pressure to generate profits and meet the financial obligations associated with the leveraged buyout.

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In a price system, changes in prices:___.

a. imply that people have made mistakes in the past.

b. signal to policy makers what goods should and should not be taxed.

c. signal to everyone in the system what goods are relatively more or less scarce.

d. make it difficult for the system to function well.

Answers

The correct option is C) Signal to everyone in the system what goods are relatively more or less scarce.

In a price system, changes in prices signal to everyone in the system what goods are relatively more or less scarce. The price system is a mechanism for coordinating the actions of consumers and producers through prices.In a price system, changes in prices signal to everyone in the system what goods are relatively more or less scarce. Scarce goods command high prices and are produced more, while abundant goods command low prices and are produced less.

Prices are determined by supply and demand. When demand for a product is greater than the supply, prices increase, and when the supply is greater than the demand, prices decrease.

Prices provide an incentive for producers to allocate resources to the production of the goods that are in high demand. The price system also informs consumers of the relative prices of various goods and services, allowing them to make informed decisions about how to allocate their limited resources. Therefore, the correct answer is option C.

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the brazil division of an american telecommunications company uses standard costing for its​ machine-paced production of telephone equipment. data regarding production during june are as​ follows:

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The Brazil division of an American telecommunications company uses standard costing for its machine-paced production of telephone equipment. The provided data includes actual and budgeted manufacturing overhead costs, machine-hours, and units of output for the month of June. The task is to prepare an analysis of all manufacturing overhead variances, journal entries for manufacturing overhead costs and their variances, describe how individual variable manufacturing overhead items are controlled, and discuss possible causes of the variable manufacturing overhead variances.

To analyze manufacturing overhead variances, the 4-variance analysis framework can be used. This framework includes calculating the variable overhead spending variance, variable overhead efficiency variance, fixed overhead spending variance, and fixed overhead volume variance. By comparing actual costs with budgeted costs and actual machine-hours with standard machine-hours, these variances can be calculated. Journal entries can then be prepared to record the manufacturing overhead costs and their respective variances.

To control individual variable manufacturing overhead items from day to day, a cost control system can be implemented. This may involve monitoring and analyzing expenses related to specific variable overhead items, such as power consumption, maintenance, or supplies. By closely monitoring these expenses, any deviations from the budgeted amounts can be identified and corrective actions can be taken.

Possible causes of variable manufacturing overhead variances can include fluctuations in prices of variable overhead items, changes in usage or efficiency of machine-hours, inaccurate budgeting or forecasting, or changes in production volume or mix. Analyzing the variances and investigating the underlying factors can help identify the specific causes and enable management to take appropriate actions to address them.

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#Complete Question:- Straightforward coverage of manufacturing overhead, standard-costing system.

The Brazil division of an American telecommunications company uses standard costing for its machine-paced production of telephone equipment. Data regarding production during June are as follows:

Variable manufacturing overhead costs incurred $537,470

Variable manufacturing overhead cost rate $7 per standard machine-hour

Fixed manufacturing overhead costs incurred $146,101

Fixed manufacturing overhead costs budgeted$136,000

Denominator level in machine-hours 68,000

Standard machine-hour allowed per unit of output 1.2

Units of output 66,500

Cost Accounting

Final Problems

Fall 2018

Actual machine-hours used 75,700

Ending work-in-process inventory 0

Required

1. Prepare an analysis of all manufacturing overhead variances. Use the 4-variance analysis framework illustrated in Exhibit 8-4.

2. Prepare journal entries for manufacturing overhead costs and their variances.

3. Describe how individual variable manufacturing overhead items are controlled from day to day.

4. Discuss possible causes of the variable manufacturing overhead variances

A defendant who exercised extreme care while engaged in an ultrahazardous activity will not be held liable for any damage that results.

a. true

b. false

Answers

False. The statement is incorrect.
When engaging in an ultrahazardous activity, a defendant can still be held liable for any damage that results, even if they exercise extreme care. Ultrahazardous activities are inherently dangerous activities that have the potential to cause harm to others, regardless of the precautions taken.

Examples of ultrahazardous activities include storing and using explosives, handling toxic chemicals, or conducting activities near a construction site. These activities pose significant risks to the surrounding environment and individuals nearby.
In such cases, the defendant can be held strictly liable, meaning they can be held responsible for any harm caused by the activity, regardless of their level of care. This is because the potential for harm is so great that the defendant assumes the risk of any resulting damage.
In summary, exercising extreme care does not absolve a defendant from liability in the context of ultrahazardous activities. They can still be held responsible for any damage that occurs as a result of their actions.

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Food and beverage make up the bulk of merchandise sold through which form of nonstore retailing?

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Food and beverage make up the bulk of merchandise sold through which form of nonstore retailing? The form of nonstore retailing through which food and beverage make up the bulk of merchandise sold is online retailing. The form of nonstore retailing where food and beverage make up the bulk of merchandise sold is called "online retailing" or "e-commerce."

Online retailing refers to the buying and selling of goods and services through online platforms or websites. With the rise of e-commerce, a significant portion of food and beverage products are now sold online, including groceries, meal kits, specialty food items, and beverages. Online retailers, grocery delivery services, and meal delivery platforms facilitate the sale and distribution of these products to consumers who prefer the convenience of shopping for food and beverages online.

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Define the terms inflation premium (IP), default risk premium (DRP), liquidity premium (LP), and maturity risk premium (MRP). Which of these premiums is included in determining the interest rate on (1) short-term U.S. Treasury securities, (2) long-term U.S. Treasury securities, (3) short-term corporate securities, and (4) long-term corporate securities

Answers

In finance, there are several premiums that are considered when determining interest rates on different types of securities. These premiums include inflation premium (IP), default risk premium (DRP), liquidity premium (LP), and maturity risk premium (MRP).

1. Inflation Premium (IP): This premium reflects the expectation of future inflation. It compensates investors for the loss of purchasing power caused by inflation. As inflation increases, the inflation premium also increases.

2. Default Risk Premium (DRP): This premium compensates investors for the risk of default or non-payment by the issuer. It reflects the creditworthiness of the issuer. Riskier issuers will have a higher default risk premium.

3. Liquidity Premium (LP): This premium compensates investors for investing in less liquid securities. It reflects the ease of buying or selling a security without impacting its price. Less liquid securities generally have a higher liquidity premium.

4. Maturity Risk Premium (MRP): This premium compensates investors for the risk associated with the length of time until a security matures. Longer-term securities have higher maturity risk premiums as there is more uncertainty over future interest rates and inflation.

Now, let's see which premiums are included in determining the interest rates on different types of securities:

1. Short-term U.S. Treasury securities: The interest rate on short-term U.S. Treasury securities includes the inflation premium (IP) and liquidity premium (LP). Since U.S. Treasury securities are considered risk-free, there is no default risk premium or maturity risk premium.

2. Long-term U.S. Treasury securities: The interest rate on long-term U.S. Treasury securities includes the inflation premium (IP), liquidity premium (LP), and maturity risk premium (MRP). Again, there is no default risk premium as they are considered risk-free.

3. Short-term corporate securities: The interest rate on short-term corporate securities includes the inflation premium (IP), default risk premium (DRP), and liquidity premium (LP). There is no maturity risk premium for short-term securities.

4. Long-term corporate securities: The interest rate on long-term corporate securities includes the inflation premium (IP), default risk premium (DRP), liquidity premium (LP), and maturity risk premium (MRP). All four premiums are included in the interest rate calculation for long-term corporate securities.

These premiums help to determine the appropriate interest rates for different types of securities, taking into account factors such as inflation expectations, creditworthiness, liquidity, and maturity.

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If a broker insists his/her client use a mortgage banker as a condition to the sale, the broker has engaged in what unlawful arrangement?

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If a broker insists that their client use a mortgage banker as a condition to the sale, the broker has engaged in an unlawful arrangement called a tied arrangement.


A tied arrangement is when a broker requires their client to use a specific mortgage banker or lender in order to proceed with the sale. This practice is considered unlawful because it restricts the client's freedom of choice and limits competition in the mortgage market.

Brokers have a duty to act in their client's best interest and provide unbiased advice. By forcing their client to use a particular mortgage banker, the broker may be motivated by personal gain, such as receiving a commission or kickback from the mortgage banker. This conflict of interest undermines the trust between the broker and the client.

Therefore, if a broker insists that their client use a specific mortgage banker as a condition to the sale, they have engaged in an unlawful arrangement known as a tied arrangement. This practice restricts the client's freedom of choice and undermines the trust between the broker and the client. It is important for brokers to act in their client's best interest and provide unbiased advice.

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If the supply of old, low-quality guns is perfectly elastic, then a gun buyback program will:____.

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If the supply of old, low-quality guns is perfectly elastic, then a gun buyback program will have a limited impact on reducing the overall supply of guns in the market.

When the supply of goods is perfectly elastic, it means that producers can easily increase or decrease the quantity supplied without affecting the price. In the case of old, low-quality guns, if the supply is perfectly elastic, it suggests that there is a large quantity of these guns available in the market that can be easily supplied at any given price.
In this context, a gun buyback program aims to reduce the number of guns in circulation by offering incentives for individuals to turn in their firearms. However, because the supply of old, low-quality guns is perfectly elastic, the program may not effectively reduce the overall supply.

Here's why:
1. Elastic supply: With a perfectly elastic supply, even if some individuals participate in the buyback program and sell their old, low-quality guns, others can easily step in and supply more of these guns to the market. This means that the buyback program may not significantly reduce the overall supply of guns.
2. Incentives: The success of a buyback program depends on the incentives offered to individuals to participate. If the incentives are not attractive enough, people may choose to hold onto their old, low-quality guns or sell them through other channels instead of participating in the buyback program.
3. Demand and substitutes: The effectiveness of a buyback program also depends on the demand for guns and the availability of substitutes. If there is a high demand for guns, individuals may be less willing to sell their old, low-quality guns through the buyback program. Additionally, if there are easily accessible substitutes for these guns, the reduction in supply may be offset by the availability of alternative firearms.

Overall, while a gun buyback program can have positive effects in reducing the number of guns in circulation, its impact may be limited if the supply of old, low-quality guns is perfectly elastic. Other strategies, such as stricter gun control laws and public awareness campaigns, may be necessary to effectively address the issue of gun availability and reduce the overall supply in the market.

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Consider the following statements about pricing: Question 33 Not yet answered Points out of 1.0.0 1. Prices are often determined by the market, subject to the constraint that costs must be covered in the long run. II. Prices are often based on costs, subject to the constraint that customers and competitors will exert an influence. III. A balance of market forces and cost is important when making pricing decisions. Flag question Which of the above statements is (are) true? a. I only. b. ll only c. I and III. d. II and III. e. I, II and III.

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The question asks us to identify which of the statements about pricing are true. Let's evaluate each statement:Prices are often determined by the market.the correct answer is c. I and III, as both statements are market true.

Subject to the constraint that costs must be covered in the long run.This statement is true. In a competitive market, prices are influenced by supply and demand forces. However, businesses also need to ensure that their costs are covered in the long run to remain profitable. Prices are often based on costs, subject to the constraint that customers and competitors will exert an influence.

This statement is not true. While costs play a role in determining prices, they are not the sole factor. Customer demand and competitor pricing strategies also influence prices.A balance of market forces and cost is important when making pricing decisions.This statement is true. Based on the evaluation of each statement, the correct answer is c. I and III, as both statements are market true.

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A recruiting agency which an up front fee to begin the recruitment process then charges another portion of the fee after recruitment is complete and another portion after the person is hired is known as a/an

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A recruiting agency that charges an upfront fee to begin the recruitment process is known as a "fee-for-service" recruiting agency.

A fee-for-service or fee-based recruiting agency operates by charging clients at different stages of the recruitment process. This payment structure allows the agency to receive compensation for its services at various milestones or stages of the hiring process.

The upfront fee serves as an initial payment to initiate the recruitment process. It covers the agency's initial efforts, such as job postings, candidate sourcing, and screening.

Once the recruitment is complete and the agency has identified suitable candidates, a second portion of the fee is charged. This fee is typically higher than the upfront fee and compensates the agency for successfully identifying and presenting qualified candidates to the client.

Finally, after the client has made a hiring decision and the candidate has been officially hired, the agency may charge a final portion of the fee. This payment typically reflects the successful placement of the candidate and the agency's role in facilitating the hiring process.

This fee-for-service model incentivizes the recruiting agency to provide high-quality candidates and prioritize successful placements. It also allows the agency to align its revenue with the value they provide throughout the recruitment process.

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Suppose a price ceiling of $3 goes into effect. what is the loss of consumer surplus due to the random allocation of price-controlled goods compared to the allocation only to the highest-valued uses?

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In conclusion, when a price ceiling of $3 goes into effect, the loss of consumer surplus due to the random allocation of price-controlled goods compared to the allocation only to the highest-valued uses occurs because the goods may not go to those who value them the most, leading to an inefficient allocation of resources.

The loss of consumer surplus due to the random allocation of price-controlled goods compared to the allocation only to the highest-valued uses can be explained as follows:
1. Consumer Surplus: Consumer surplus refers to the benefit or value that consumers receive when they are able to purchase a good at a price lower than what they are willing to pay. It represents the difference between the maximum price a consumer is willing to pay for a good and the actual price they pay.
2. Price Ceiling: A price ceiling is a government-imposed limit on the maximum price that can be charged for a particular good or service. In this case, the price ceiling is set at $3.
3. Random Allocation: When price-controlled goods are allocated randomly, it means that there is no mechanism or criteria in place to determine who gets the goods. This can lead to an inefficient allocation of resources, as goods may end up in the hands of individuals who value them less than others.
4. Allocation to Highest-Valued Uses: On the other hand, allocating goods only to the highest-valued uses means that the goods are distributed to those consumers who are willing to pay the highest price for them. This ensures that the goods go to those who value them the most, resulting in a more efficient allocation of resources.
5. Loss of Consumer Surplus: The random allocation of price-controlled goods leads to a loss of consumer surplus compared to the allocation only to the highest-valued uses. This is because some consumers who are willing to pay a higher price for the goods may not be able to obtain them, resulting in a loss of the surplus they would have gained from the difference between their willingness to pay and the actual price.
In conclusion, when a price ceiling of $3 goes into effect, the loss of consumer surplus due to the random allocation of price-controlled goods compared to the allocation only to the highest-valued uses occurs because the goods may not go to those who value them the most, leading to an inefficient allocation of resources.

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costs for maintenance of buildings at an industrial complex are expected to be $1,000 in year three, $1,200 in year four and amounts increasing by $200 per year thereafter through year nine. at an interest rate of 10% per year, the present worth of the expenditures is nearest to: a) $5,163 b) $5,575 c) $6,133 d) $7,421 question

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The present worth of the expenditures is nearest to $5,136.12, which is closest to option (c), $6,133.

To calculate the present worth of the expenditures, we need to determine the present value of each cost and then sum them up. We can use the present value formula for a series of cash flows. The formula for the present value of a series of cash flows is: PV = C1/(1+r)^1 + C2/(1+r)^2 + ... + Cn/(1+r)^n. Where PV is the present value, C1, C2, ... Cn are the cash flows, r is the interest rate, and n is the number of periods. Let's calculate the present worth of the expenditures step by step:

PV = $1,000/(1+0.10)^3 + $1,200/(1+0.10)^4 + $1,400/(1+0.10)^5 + $1,600/(1+0.10)^6 + $1,800/(1+0.10)^7 + $2,000/(1+0.10)^8 + $2,200/(1+0.10)^9

PV = $1,000/1.331 + $1,200/1.4641 + $1,400/1.61051 + $1,600/1.771561 + $1,800/1.9487171 + $2,000/2.14358881 + $2,200/2.357947691

PV ≈ $751.59 + $820.29 + $868.31 + $904.84 + $926.98 + $931.04 + $934.07

PV ≈ $5,136.12. Therefore, the present worth of the expenditures is nearest to $5,136.12, which is closest to option (c), $6,133.

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hanover glassware produces crystal serve ware and uses process costing. at the start of may, 2,300 units were in process. during may, 11,000 units were completed and 2,000 units were in process at the end of may. these units in process were 80% complete with respect to material and 30% complete with respect to conversion costs. other information is as follows:

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In process costing, the cost of each unit by allocating the total costs incurred during the period to the units completed and the units still in process. This allows the company to calculate the cost per unit and determine the total cost of the completed units.

To determine the cost per unit, we need to consider the units completed and the units still in process at the end of May. Units completed: - 11,000 units were completed during May.   Units in process at the end of May:
   - There were 2,000 units still in process.
   - These units were 80% complete in terms of materials and 30% complete in terms of conversion costs. Now, let's calculate the total costs incurred during May: Total costs incurred during May:
   - This information is not provided in the question. If the question provides this information, you can use it to calculate the total costs.

Once you have the total costs, you can allocate them to the completed units and the units in process at the end of May. This allocation will help you determine the cost per unit and the total cost of the completed units.


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Question

Hanover Glassware produces crystal serve ware and uses process costing. At the start of May, 2,300 units were in process. During May, 11,000 units were completed and 2,000 units were in process at the end of May. These units in process were 80% complete with respect to material and 30% complete with respect to conversion costs. Other information is as follows: Work in process, May 1: Direct material $28,800 Conversion costs 48,000 Costs incurred during May: Direct material $198,000 Conversion costs 242,000 Calculate the cost per equivalent unit for conversion costs.


a firm has average fixed costs of $0.20 and average variable costs of $2.50 at an output of 500 units

Answers

The total cost of producing 500 units is $1350.

To calculate the total cost of producing 500 units, we need to first find the average total cost (ATC). ATC is the sum of average fixed cost (AFC) and average variable cost (AVC). Given that AFC is $0.20 and AVC is $2.50, we can calculate ATC as follows:

ATC = AFC + AVC
ATC = $0.20 + $2.50
ATC = $2.70

Now that we have the ATC, we can calculate the total cost (TC) by multiplying the ATC by the number of units produced. In this case, the output is 500 units:

TC = ATC * Quantity
TC = $2.70 * 500
TC = $1350

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sunspot beverages, limited, of fiji uses the weighted-average method in its process costing system. it makes blended tropical fruit drinks in two stages. fruit juices are extracted from fresh fruits and then blended in the blending department. the blended juices are then bottled and packed for shipping in the bottling department. the following information pertains to the operations of the blending department for june.

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Sunspot Beverages, Ltd. uses the weighted-average method in its process costing system to produce blended tropical fruit drinks in two stages: extracting fruit juices from fresh fruits in the blending department, and bottling and packing the blended juices in the bottling department. The given information pertains to the operations of the blending department for June.

The weighted-average method is a process costing technique that calculates the average cost per unit by combining the costs from the current and prior periods. It considers both the units and the costs incurred during the period to determine the average cost per unit. In the case of Sunspot Beverages, the blending department is responsible for extracting fruit juices and blending them. The information provided likely includes details such as the quantity of fruit juice produced, the cost of raw materials, labor costs, overhead costs, and any other relevant costs incurred during the blending process in June.

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