Design a circuit that will tell whether a given month has 31 days in it. The month is specified by a 4-bit input, A3:0. For example, if the inputs are 0001, the month is January, and if the inputs are 1100, the month is December. The circuit output, Y, should be HIGH only when the month specified by the inputs has 31 days in it. However, if the input is not a valid month (such as 0 or 13) then the output is don’t care (can be either 0 or 1).

Answer:

To counter the behavior of a high Mach individual in my workplace, I could put the individual in charge of a project by himself, and don't let others work with him.

Explanation:

A high Mach individual is one who exhibits a manipulative and self-centered behavior.   The personality trait is characterized by the use of manipulation and persuasion to achieve power and results.  But, such individuals are hard to be persuaded.  They do not function well in team settings and asking them to agree to terms is very difficult.  "The presence of Machiavellianism in an organisation has been positively correlated with counterproductive workplace behaviour and workplace deviance," according to wikipedia.com.

Mach is an abbreviation for Machiavellianism.  Machiavellianism is referred to in psychology as a personality trait which sees a person so focused on their own interests that they will manipulate, deceive, and exploit others to achieve their selfish goals.  It is one of the Dark Triad traits.  The others are narcissism and psychopathy, which are very dangerous behaviors.

Answer:

V2= 21m³/h

Explanation:

According to Boyle's law, pressure and flow rate of gas can be calculated from the following equation:

P1V1=P2V2

3 × 35 = 5 × V2

V2= 21m³/h

Answer:

the police officer cruise each streets precisely once and he enters and exit with the same gate.

Explanation:

NB: kindly check below for the attached picture.

The term ''Euler circuit'' can simply be defined as the graph that shows the edge of K once in a finite way by starting and putting a stop to it at the same vertex.

The term "Hamiltonian Circuit" is also known as the Hamiltonian cycle which is all about a one time visit to the vertex.

Here in this question, the door is the vertex and the road is the edge.

The information needed to detemine a Euler circuit and a Hamilton circuit is;

"the police officer cruise each streets precisely once and he enters and exit with the same gate."

Check attachment for each type of circuit and the differences.

the police officer cruise each streets precisely once and he enters and exit with the same gate.

Answer:

14.5° ; THD % = 3.873 × 100 = 387.3%.

Explanation:

Okay, in this question we are given the following parameters or data or information which is going to assist us in solving the question efficiently and they are;

(1). "500 VAR reactive power from 230 Vrms 50 Hz 1.5 KVAR reactor".

(2). Consideration of up to 12th harmonic.

So, let us delve right into the solution to the question above;

Step one: Calculate the Irms and Irms(12th) by using the formula for the equation below;

Irms = reactive power /Vrms = 500/230 = 2.174 A.

Irms(12th) = 1.5 × 10^3/ 12 × 230 = 0.543 A.

Step two: Calculate the THD.

Before the Calculation of the THD, there is the need to determine the value for the dissociation factor, h.

h = Irms(12th)/Irms = 0.543/ 2.174 = 0.25.

Thus, THD = [1/ (h)^2 - 1 ] ^1/2. = 3.873.

THD % = 3.873 × 100 = 387.3%.

Step four: angle AC - Ac converter

theta = sin^-1 (1.5 × 10^3/ 12 × 500) = 14.5°.

Answer:

3w/m²k

Explanation:

Base on the scenario been described in the question, the solution to the given problem solve in the file attached below

Question:

The spherical pressure vessel has an inner diameter of 2 m and a thickness of 10 mm. A strain gage having a length of 20 mm is attached to it, and it is observed to increase in length by 0.012 mm when the vessel is pressurized. Determine the pressure causing this deformation, and find the maximum in-plane shear stress, and the absolute maximum shear stress at a point on the outer surface of the vessel. The material is steel, for which Eₛₜ = 200 GPa and vₛₜ = 0.3.

Answer:

See explanation below

Explanation:

Given:

d = 2m = 2*10³ = 2000

thickness, t = 10 mm

Length of strain guage = 20 mm

i) Let's calculate d/t

[tex] \frac{d}{t} = \frac{2000}{10} = 200 [/tex]

Since [tex] \frac{d}{t}[/tex] is greater than length of strain guage, the pressure vessel is thin.

For the minimum normal stress, we have:

[tex] \sigma max= \frac{pd}{4t} [/tex]

[tex] \sigma max= \frac{2000p}{4 * 20} [/tex]

= 50p

For the minimum normal strain due to pressure, we have:

[tex] E_max= \frac{change in L}{L_g} [/tex]

[tex] = \frac{0.012}{20} = 0.60*10^-^3[/tex]

The minimum normal stress for a thin pressure vessel is 0.

[tex] \sigma _min = 0 [/tex]

i) Let's use Hookes law to calculate the pressure causing this deformation.

[tex] E_max = \frac{1}{E} [\sigma _max - V(\sigma _initial + \sigma _min)] [/tex]

Substituting figures, we have:

[tex] 0.60*10^-^3 = \frac{1}{200*10^9} [50p - 0.3 (50p + 0)] [/tex]

[tex] 120 * 10^6 = 35p [/tex]

[tex] p = \frac{120*10^6}{35}[/tex]

[tex] p = 3.429 * 10^6 [/tex]

p = 3.4 MPa

ii) Calculating the maximum in-plane shear stress, we have:

[tex] \frac{\sigma _max - \sigma _int}{2}[/tex]

[tex] = \frac{50p - 50p}{2} = 0 [/tex]

Max in plane shear stress = 0

iii) To find the absolute maximum shear stress at a point on the outer surface of the vessel, we have:

[tex] \frac{\sigma _max - \sigma _min}{2}[/tex]

[tex] = \frac{50p - 0}{2} = 25p [/tex]

since p = 3.429 MPa

25p = 25 * 3.4 MPa

= 85.71 ≈ 85.7 MPa

The absolute maximum shear stress at a point on the outer surface of the vessel is 85.7 MPa

Answer:

See explaination

Explanation:

Please kindly check attachment for the step by step solution of the given problem.

The total number of peak-hour trips generated by this village = 979.2 trips/hr

Given data :

Household size = 4

Number of households = 1600

Number of non-working people = 3200 ( 1600 * 2 )

Total annual Household income = $120,000

First step : calculate the number of peak hours based on shopping trips

i) Trips before move

0.12 + 0.09 * ( 6 ) + 0.011 * 50000 - 0.015 * (450)

= 483.16

ii) Trips after move

0.12 + 0.09 * 6 + 0.011* 50000 - 0.15 * 150

= 528.16

Next step : Calculate the number of peak hour travelled for recreational trips

per household

= 0.04 + 0.018 * 4  + 0.009 * 20  + 0.16 * 2

= 0.612 trips per household

Therefore the total number of peak-hour trips generated by this village

= 979.2 trips/hr

Hence we can conclude that The total number of peak-hour trips generated by this village = 979.2 trips/hr.

Learn more about peak-hour trips : https://brainly.com/question/4931057

Answer:

σ = 391.2 MPa

Explanation:

The relation between true stress and true strain is given as:

σ = k εⁿ

where,

σ = true stress = 365 MPa

k = constant

ε = true strain = Change in Length/Original Length

ε = (61.8 - 54.8)/54.8 = 0.128

n = strain hardening exponent = 0.2

Therefore,

365 MPa = K (0.128)^0.2

K = 365 MPa/(0.128)^0.2

k = 550.62 MPa

Now, we have the following data:

σ = true stress = ?

k = constant = 550.62 MPa

ε = true strain = Change in Length/Original Length

ε = (64.7 - 54.8)/54.8 = 0.181

n = strain hardening exponent = 0.2

Therefore,

σ = (550.62 MPa)(0.181)^0.2

σ = 391.2 MPa

Answer:

The answer is "go to sheet M-3 and look for a detail labeled 7".

Explanation:

In the given question some information is missing, that is choices so, the correct choice can be described as follows:

Answer:

See explaination

Explanation:

Please kindly check attachment for the step by step solution of the given problem

Answer:

mass of chemical coming in per minute = 60 × 20 = 1200 mg/min

at a time t(min) , M = mass of chemical = 1200 × t mg

concentration of chemical = 1200t / 600 = 2t mg / gallon

Explanation:

Since it is only fluid that is leaving and not chemical.

Answer:

See explaination

Explanation:

Please kindly check attachment for the step by step solution of the given problem.

Answer:

<E1, E2>.

Explanation:

So, in the question above we are given that the Two Electric field vectors E1 and E2 are perpendicular to each other. Thus, we are going to have the i and the j components for the two Electric Field that is E1 and E2 respectively. That is to say the addition we give us a resultant E which is an arbitrary vector;

E = |E| cos θi + |E| sin θj. -------------------(1).

Therefore, if we make use of the components division rule we will have something like what we have below;

x = |E2|/ |E| cos θ and y = |E1|/|E| sin θ

​

Therefore, we will now have;

E = x |E2| i + y |E1| j.

The base vectors is then Given as <E1, E2>.

Answer:

a) Db = 10.05 in

b) The operation is not feasible

Explanation:

Let's begin by listing out the given variables:

Thickness = 1/8 in, Height (h) = 3.8 in,

Diameter (Dp) = 5 in ⇒ rp = Dp ÷ 2 = 5 ÷ 2 = 2.5 in

a) Area of cup = Area of wall + Area of base

A = 2πh(rp) + π(rp)²

A = (2π * 2.5 * 3.8) + (π * 2.5²)

A = 59.69 + 19.635 = 79.325 in²

A ≈ 79.33 in²

But π(rb)² = 79.33 ⇒ rb² = 79.33 ÷ π

rb² = 25.25

rb = 5.025 ⇒ Db = 2 * rb = 2 * 5.025 = 10.05 in

Db = 10.05 in

b) To calculate for feasibility, we use the formula, draw ratio equals diameter of the blank divided by diameter of the punch

Mathematically,

DR = Db ÷ Dp

DR = 10.05 ÷ 5 = 2.01

DR = 2.01

DR > 2 ⇒ the operation is not feasible

For an operation to be feasible, it must have a drawing ratio limit of 2 or lesser

Explanation:

This is not so much a mathematical issue as a case study, because the response will inevitably require us to test the special Columbic shuttle disaster scenario. I would suggest that you read this in detail and present the points accordingly. Here I give as many points as I think are relevant.

The failure of a space program is definitely a complex situation, more than a simple binomial distribution. It's definitely not as simple as repeating the flip of a coin. There are several coherent factors and situations that govern the overall coordination and execution of such an event. The problem is, those who are running a project like this are still making a trade off,It is never the case that they sealed the lid on any chance of failure between multiple parameters. You try to do something, but often, as is the case above, the potentially dangerous situation is impossible or uncontrollable. Since the root cause of failure, which is dried out tiles that can not withstand heat and water, it appears that owing to the constant use of the shuttle the head architects have not foreseen this.

Answer:

bye hooking plugs up to it to amp it up

Answer:

The number of vehicles added to this highway before the capacity is reached is 1,511 vehicles.

Explanation:

see attached image

Answer:

Check the explanation

Explanation:

Kindly check the attached image below to see the step by step explanation to the question above.

Answer:

7.15

Explanation:

Firstly, the COP of such heat pump must be measured that is,

              [tex]COP_{HP}=\frac{T_H}{T_H-T_L}[/tex]

Therefore, the temperature relationship, [tex]T_H=1.15\;T_L[/tex]

Then, we should apply the values in the COP.

                           [tex]=\frac{1.15\;T_L}{1.15-1}[/tex]

                           [tex]=7.67[/tex]

The number of heat rejected by the heat pump must then be calculated.

                   [tex]Q_H=COP_{HP}\times W_{nst}[/tex]

                          [tex]=7.67\times5=38.35[/tex]

We must then calculate the refrigerant mass flow rate.

                   [tex]m=0.264\;kg/s[/tex]

                   [tex]q_H=\frac{Q_H}{m}[/tex]

                         [tex]=\frac{38.35}{0.264}=145.27[/tex]

The [tex]h_g[/tex] value is 145.27 and therefore the hot reservoir temperature is 64° C.

The pressure at 64 ° C is thus 1849.36 kPa by interpolation.

And, the lowest reservoir temperature must be calculated.

                   [tex]T_L=\frac{T_H}{1.15}[/tex]

                        [tex]=\frac{64+273}{1.15}=293.04[/tex]

                        [tex]=19.89\°C[/tex]

the lowest reservoir temperature = 258.703  kpa                    

So, the pressure ratio should be = 7.15

Answer:

A) V(t) = 0.4e^-2t

B) i(t) = (25tsin5t+10) A for t>0

Explanation:

Formula for calculating voltage across an inductor is expressed as:

V = Ldi/dt

Given L = 100mH = 100×10^-3

If i(t) = 6 - 2e^-2t A t >= 0

di/dt = (-2)(-2)e^-2t

di/dt = 4e^-2t

If t ≥ 0

V(t) = 100×10^-3 × (4e^-2t)

V(t) = 0.1×4e^-2t

V(t) = 0.4e^-2t for t≥0

B) Applying the same formula as above

V = Ldi/dt

Vdt = Ldi

V/L dt = di

On integration

Vt/L = i + C

When t = 0, i = -10A

Substituting the values into the formula

V(0)/L = -10 + C

0 = -10+C

C = 10

To get the current i(t) through the inductor for t>0,

Since Vt/L = i + C

Given V(t) = 5sin5t Volts

L = 200mH = 200×10^-3H

C = 10

On substituting

(5sin5t)t/0.2 = i + 10

25tsin5t = i + 10

i(t) = (25tsin5t-10) A for t>0

Answer:

The volume of sludge wasted each day from the secondary classifiers is Qw = 208.33 m^3 / day

Explanation:

Check the file attached for a complete solution.

The volume of the aeration tank was first calculated, V = 5000 m^3 / day.

The value of V was consequently substituted into the formula for the wasted sludge flow. The value of the wasted sludge flow was calculated to be Qw = 208.33 m^3 / day.

Answer:

Check the explanation

Explanation:

Kindly check the attached images below to see the step by step explanation to the question above.

Answer:

modulus of elasticity = 100.45 Gpa,

proportional limit = 150.68 N/mm^2.

Explanation:

We are given the following parameters or data in the question as;

=> "The original specimen = 200 mm long and has a diameter of 13 mm."

=> "When loaded to its proportional limit, the specimen elongates by 0.3 mm."

=> " The total axial load is 20 kN"

Step one: Calculate the area

Area = π/ 4 × c^2.

Area = π/ 4 × 13^2 = 132.73 mm^2.

Step two: determine the stress induced.

stress induced = load/ area= 20 × 1000/132.73 = 150.68 N/mm^2.

Step three: determine the strain rate:

The strain rate = change in length/original length = 0.3/ 200 = 0.0015.

Step four: determine the modulus of elasticity.

modulus of elasticity = stress/strain = 150.68/0.0015 = 100453.33 N/mm^2 = 100.45 Gpa.

Step five: determine the proportional limit.

proportional limit = 20 × 1000/132.73 = 150.68 N/mm^2.

Answer:

Modulus of Elasticity = 100 GPa

Proportional limit = 0.15 GPa

Explanation:

Axial Load = 20 kN = 20000 N

Original length, L₀ = 200 mm = 0.2 m

diameter, d = 13 mm = 0.013 m

Elongation, ΔL = 0.3 mm = 0.0003 m

Area of the material:

[tex]A = \frac{\pi d^{2} }{4} \\A = \frac{\pi 0.013^{2} }{4}\\A = 0.000133 m[/tex]

Stress = Load / Area

Stress = 20000 / 0.000133

Stress = 150375940 N/m²

Stress = Proportional limit = 0.15 GPa

Modulus of Elasticity = Stress/Strain

Strain = ΔL /  L₀

Strain = 0.0003 / 0.2

Strain = 0.0015

Modulus of Elasticity = 0.15 / 0.0015

Modulus of Elasticity = 100 GPa

Answer:

A.) 1mv = 2000N

B.) Impulse = 60Ns

C.) Acceleration = 66.67 m/s^2

Velocity = 4 m/s

Displacement = 0.075 metre

Absorbed energy = 60 J

Explanation:

A.) Using a mathematical linear equation,

Y = MX + C

Where M = (2000 - 0)/( 898 - 0 )

M = 2000/898

M = 2.23

Let Y = 2000 and X = 898

2000 = 2.23(898) + C

2000 = 2000 + C

C = 0

We can therefore conclude that

1 mV = 2000N

B.) Impulse is the product of force and time.

Also, impulse = momentum

Given that

Mass M = 30kg

Velocity V = 2 m/s

Impulse = M × V = momentum

Impulse = 30 × 2 = 60 Ns

C.) Force = mass × acceleration

F = ma

Substitute force and mass into the formula

2000 = 30a

Make a the subject of formula

a = 2000/30

acceleration a = 66.67 m/s^2

Since impulse = 60 Ns

From Newton 2nd law,

Force = rate of change in momentum

Where

change in momentum = -MV - (- MU)

Impulse = -MV + MU

Where U = initial velocity

60 = -60 + MU

30U = 120

U = 120/30

U = 4 m/s

Force = 2000N

Impulse = Ft

Substitute force and impulse to get time

60 = 2000t

t = 60/2000

t = 0.03 second

Using third equation of motion

V^2 = U^2 + 2as

Where S = displacement

4^2 = 2^2 + 2 × 66.67S

16 = 4 + 133.4S

133.4S = 10

S = 10/133.4

S = 0.075 metre

D.) Energy = 1/2 mV^2

Energy = 0.5 × 30 × 2^2

Energy = 15 × 4 = 60J

Answer:

Mass flow rate = 15.96kg/s

Explanation:

From

P1V1=mRT1

V1=RT1/P1

V1=0.0492m³/kg

M=A(U)/V1

Where u is the velocity

A=πd²/4

M=π(0.2²)/4×25/0.0492

M=15.96kg/s

Answer:

(a) 0.0064 kg/s

(b) 800 KPa

(c) 2.03

Explanation:

The ideal vapor compression cycle consists of following processes:

Process  1-2 Isentropic compression in a compressor

Process 2-3 Constant-pressure heat rejection in a condenser

Process 3-4 Throttling in an expansion device

Process 4-1 Constant-pressure heat absorption in an evaporator

For state 4 (while entering compressor):

x₄ = 34% = 0.34

P₄ = 120 KPa

from saturated table:

h₄ = hf + x hfg = 22.4 KJ/kg + (0.34)(214.52 KJ/kg)

h₄ = 95.34 KJ/kg

For State 1 (Entering Compressor):

h₁ = hg at 120 KPa

h₁ = 236.99 KJ/kg

s₁ = sg at 120 KPa = 0.94789 KJ/kg.k

For State 3 (Entering Expansion Valve)

Since 3 - 4 is an isenthalpic process.

Therefore,

h₃ = h₄ = 95.34 KJ/kg

Since this state lies at liquid side of saturation line, therefore, h₃ must be hf. Hence from saturation table we find the pressure by interpolation.

P₃ = 800 KPa

For State 2 (Leaving Compressor)

Since, process 2-3 is at constant pressure. Therefore,

P₂ = P₃ = 800 KPa

T₂ = 70°C (given)

Saturation temperature at 800 KPa is 31.31°C, which is less than T₂. Thus, this is super heated state. From super heated property table:

h₂ = 306.9 KJ/kg

(a)

Compressor Power = m(h₂ - h₁)

where,

m = mass flow rate of refrigerant.

m = Compressor Power/(h₂ - h₁)

m = (0.450 KJ/s)/(306.9 KJ/kg - 236.99 KJ/kg)

m = 0.0064 kg/s

(b)

Condenser Pressure = P₂ = P₃ = 800 KPa

(c)

The COP of ideal vapor compression cycle is given as:

COP = (h₁ - h₄)/(h₂ - h₁)

COP = (236.99 - 95.34)/(306.9 - 236.99)

COP = 2.03

The Ph diagram is attached

Answer:

33.3%

Explanation:

Given that:

specific gravity (SG) = 0.89

Diameter (D) =  0.01 ft/s

Density of oil [tex]\rho= SG\rho _{h20} = 0.89 * 1.94=1.7266\frac{sl}{ft^3}[/tex]

Since the viscosity 10000 times that of water, The reynold number [tex]R_E=\frac{\rho VD}{\mu} =\frac{1.7266*0.01*0.01}{0.234}=7.38*10^{-4}[/tex]

Since RE < 1, the drag coefficient for normal flow is given as: [tex]C_{D1}=\frac{24.4}{R_E}= \frac{20.4}{7.38*10^{-4}}=2.76*10^4[/tex]

the drag coefficient for parallel flow is given as: [tex]C_{D2}=\frac{13.6}{R_E}= \frac{13.6}{7.38*10^{-4}}=1.84*10^4[/tex]

Percent reduced = [tex]\frac{D_1-D_2}{D_2} *100=\frac{2.76-1.84}{3.3}=33.3[/tex] = 33.3%

Answer:

The idea is to protect the puddle while it cools

Explanation:

Answer:

71.17°C

Explanation:

Please kindly check attachment for the step by step solution of the given problem.