LCIS stands for lobular carcinoma in situ, while DCIS stands for ductal carcinoma in situ. Both LCIS and DCIS are types of non-invasive breast cancer, which means that the cancer cells have not yet spread outside of the ducts or lobules of the breast.
The main difference between the two is that LCIS arises from the lobular cells in the breast, while DCIS arises from the ductal cells. LCIS is considered to be a risk factor for the development of invasive breast cancer, rather than a true cancer itself. DCIS, on the other hand, is considered a true cancer, but it has not yet spread outside of the ducts of the breast.
LCIS is often detected incidentally on a breast biopsy, and it is not usually associated with a palpable breast mass. DCIS, on the other hand, may present as a palpable breast lump or as microcalcifications on a mammogram. The treatment for both LCIS and DCIS typically involves surgical excision, with or without radiation therapy.
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when should you stop smoking before surgery?
It is generally recommended to stop smoking at least 4 weeks before surgery. This allows your body to recover from the harmful effects of smoking and reduces the risk of complications during and after the surgery. Remember, the sooner you stop smoking, the better it is for your overall health and surgical outcome.
It is recommended to stop smoking at least 4 weeks before surgery. Smoking can cause decreased oxygen levels in the body, which can hinder the healing process and increase the risk of complications during and after surgery. Quitting smoking altogether is the best option for overall health and well-being, but even stopping for a few weeks prior to surgery can significantly improve outcomes. It is important to discuss any concerns or questions with your healthcare provider before undergoing any surgical procedures.
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Tests to determine the possible underlying cause of afib are___
A complicated heart arrhythmia, atrial fibrillation (AFib) may have a number of underlying causes. A detailed medical history and physical examination, as well as a number of tests to identify any potential underlying causes of the arrhythmia, are often part of the diagnostic workup for AFib. One or more of these tests could be:
ECG: This test is frequently used as the initial step in the diagnosis of AFib. It can detect the existence and pattern of arrhythmias and detects the electrical activity of the heart.
The echocardiogram is a test that employs sound waves to produce pictures of the heart. It may assess the heart's size and thickness of its chambers, its capacity to pump blood, and the existence of any structural problems.
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The left ventricle pumps blood into the rest of the body via what structure?
The left ventricle pumps blood into the body via a structure called the aorta, which is the largest artery in the body. The structure is explained below:
The left ventricle is one of the four chambers of the heart and is responsible for pumping oxygen-rich blood to the rest of the body. The left ventricle is located in the lower left part of the heart and is a thick and muscular chamber that contracts and relaxes to move blood. The aorta is connected to the left ventricle and carries oxygen-rich blood from the heart to the rest of the body. The aorta branches into smaller arteries that carry blood to different organs and tissues in the body. The left ventricle is a vital part of the circulatory system and its efficient functioning is essential for the body to receive oxygen and nutrients. Any damage or malfunction in the left ventricle can lead to various cardiovascular diseases and complications.To know more about ventricles
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What would make you defer initiation of PO diet?
The choice to concede the start of a PO diet will rely upon the singular patient's clinical history, current state, and health needs. The patient's alacrity for a PO diet will be reckoned by the healthcare provider, who will then make recommendations based on their findings.
A healthcare provider may delay a patient's introduction to a PO (per os, or by mouth) diet for a number of reasons, including the following:
Surgery: The healthcare provider may delay implementing a PO diet in patients who have recently had surgery until they are confident that the patient's digestive system has recovered sufficiently. Before allowing the patient to begin a regular diet, the provider may need to keep an eye out for signs of nausea, vomiting, or pain in the abdomen.
Having difficulty swallowing: A diet that is easier to swallow and digest may be required by patients with dysphagia or other swallowing difficulties. The patient's ability to swallow may need to be evaluated by the healthcare provider before a regular PO diet can be started to make sure they can safely swallow food and fluids.
Problems with the gut: A restricted diet may be necessary for patients with gastrointestinal issues like severe diarrhea or bowel obstruction until their symptoms improve. Until the healthcare provider is certain that the patient's gastrointestinal system has returned to normal functioning, they may defer initiating a regular PO diet.
Status as an NPO: Patients who have been on an NPO (nothing by mouth) diet for a long time may need to start on a clear liquid diet first before switching to a regular PO diet. Before beginning a regular PO diet, the healthcare provider may need to monitor the patient's tolerance to clear liquids.
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Progressive metabolic disturbance causing symmetrical enlargement of bones ( skull/ femur / jaw )
usually in adults >50 y/o;
cotton wool appearance. What kind of disease
The disease you are referring to is likely to be Paget's disease of the bone. This is a chronic, progressive metabolic disorder that affects the bones, causing them to become enlarged and misshapen.
The disease you are describing is called Paget's disease of the bone. It is a progressive metabolic bone disorder that affects adults, typically over 50 years old. It causes symmetrical enlargement of bones, such as the skull, femur, and jaw, and is characterized by a "cotton wool" appearance on radiographs.
This disease results from an imbalance in bone remodeling, leading to weakened and deformed bones. It is typically seen in individuals over 50 years old and is characterized by symmetrical enlargement of bones, such as the skull, femur, and jaw. The condition can cause a "cotton wool" appearance on X-rays due to the increased density of bone tissue.
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what is the Survival rate of brain tumors in kids ?
The survival rate for children with brain tumors varies depending on the type and location of the tumor. On average, the five-year survival rate for children with brain tumors is around 70%.
However, this number can vary widely depending on the specific type of tumor and the age of the child. Some types of brain tumors have a much higher survival rate than others. It is important to note that early detection and treatment can significantly improve the chances of survival. It is also important for children with brain tumors to receive ongoing care and support to manage any long-term effects of the tumor and its treatment.
According on the tumor's kind and location, different children with brain tumours have different survival rates. For kids with brain tumours, the five-year survival rate is typically 70%.
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What are extracellular beta-amyloid deposits?
Extracellular beta-amyloid deposits are accumulations of beta-amyloid proteins that occur outside of cells in the brain. Beta-amyloid is a protein that is produced naturally in the body, but in individuals with certain conditions
such as Alzheimer's disease, the protein may accumulate in the brain and form clumps or plaques.
These plaques can disrupt communication between brain cells and lead to inflammation and damage to neurons.
Beta-amyloid deposits can be detected using imaging techniques such as positron emission tomography (PET) scans, and their presence is considered a hallmark of Alzheimer's disease. However, beta-amyloid deposits can also occur in individuals who do not have Alzheimer's disease, so the relationship between the protein and the disease is still not fully understood.
Researchers continue to study the role of beta-amyloid in Alzheimer's disease and explore potential treatments that target the protein. In addition to beta-amyloid deposits, other changes in the brain, such as the accumulation of tau protein, also contribute to the development of Alzheimer's disease.
Understanding these complex mechanisms is essential for developing effective treatments for this devastating disease.
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RF for a polyp to progress into malignancy (Extremely high yield)
The risk factors for a polyp to progress into malignancy or cancer are: size, histology, number, location, family history, personal history, and inflammatory bowel disease.
A polyp is a growth that can occur in different parts of the body, including the colon. In the colon, polyps can be detected and removed during a screening colonoscopy, which is a procedure that examines the colon with a camera to check for abnormalities. Although most polyps are benign (non-cancerous) and do not cause any symptoms or health problems, some polyps can progress into malignancy (cancer). The risk factors for a polyp to progress into cancer include its size, histology, number, location, age of the patient, family history of colorectal cancer or polyps, personal history of colorectal cancer or polyps, and inflammatory bowel disease (such as ulcerative colitis or Crohn's disease).
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Where do pain fibers predict in the dorsal horn?
The pain fibers predict in the dorsal horn is the spinal cord
Pain fibers, also known as nociceptive fibers, project primarily to the dorsal horn of the spinal cord and the dorsal horn is the region where sensory information, including pain, is processed before being transmitted to the brain. There are two main types of nociceptive fibers: A-delta fibers and C fibers and A-delta fibers are responsible for transmitting sharp, fast pain, while C fibers transmit slow, dull pain. In the dorsal horn, pain fibers synapse with neurons in specific laminae, which are organized layers of cells. A-delta fibers predominantly synapse in laminae I and V, while C fibers mainly target laminae I and II.
Furthermore, the dorsal horn serves as an essential site for the modulation of pain signals. Interneurons within the dorsal horn can either amplify or inhibit the transmission of pain signals, which can subsequently impact the perception of pain. This modulation is influenced by a variety of factors, including descending inhibitory pathways from the brain and the release of neurotransmitters, such as endorphins and enkephalins, which can dampen pain perception. In summary, pain fibers project to the dorsal horn of the spinal cord, where their signals are processed and modulated before being sent to the brain for further interpretation.
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Most common cause of post-partum fever? Tx?
The most common cause of postpartum fever is an infection, typically endometritis or a urinary tract infection. The treatment (Tx) usually involves antibiotics, maintaining good hygiene, and monitoring for any complications.
The most common cause of post-partum fever is usually an infection, such as endometritis (inflammation of the lining of the uterus) or a urinary tract infection. Treatment typically involves antibiotics to address the underlying infection. In severe cases, hospitalization may be necessary. It is important for women to seek medical attention if they experience any symptoms of post-partum fever, such as fever, chills, abdominal pain, or vaginal discharge with an unpleasant odor.
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On a left sided 12 lead EKG the V6 electrode will be located where?
The V6 electrode on a left-sided 12-lead EKG will be located on the left mid-axillary line, horizontally level with the V4 electrode.
A 12-lead EKG is a diagnostic tool that records the electrical activity of the heart from different angles. The V6 electrode is one of six limb leads and is placed on the left side of the chest, in the fifth intercostal space along the mid-axillary line.
The mid-axillary line is a vertical line that extends from the armpit to the hip, and the fifth intercostal space is the area between the fifth and sixth rib. The V6 electrode is horizontally level with the V4 electrode, which is placed on the left mid-clavicular line, the line that runs vertically through the middle of the collarbone.
Together, the V4 and V6 electrodes provide information about the heart's electrical activity in the lateral wall of the left ventricle.
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Main two things needed to consider someone in labor?
The main two things needed to consider someone in labor are regular contractions and cervical dilation.
Regular contractions refer to the tightening and relaxing of the uterine muscles, while cervical dilation refers to the opening of the cervix to prepare for childbirth. Regular and consistent contractions indicate that the uterus is working to push the baby down the birth canal, while cervical dilation indicates that the cervix is opening to allow the baby to pass through. Both of these factors are important in determining whether someone is in active labor and ready to give birth. Other signs to look out for include water breaking, bloody show, and increased pressure in the pelvis.
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Reason pts get aggressive periodontitis?
Genetic factor is a main reasons individuals develop aggressive periodontitis.
Aggressive periodontitis is a type of periodontal disease characterized by rapid progression of bone and tissue loss around the teeth. One of the main reasons individuals develop aggressive periodontitis is genetic factors. Research has shown that certain genetic variations can make a person more susceptible to developing aggressive periodontitis. These genetic factors can affect the immune response and inflammatory processes in the body, making individuals more prone to severe periodontal destruction.
However, it's important to note that genetic factors alone are not solely responsible for the development of aggressive periodontitis, as other factors such as poor oral hygiene and bacterial infection also play a role.
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When does paternal age contribute to aneuploidies?
Paternal age contributes to aneuploidies when older fathers pass on increased rates of genetic mutations during conception.
Aneuploidies occur when there's an abnormal number of chromosomes in a cell. Although maternal age is a well-known factor in aneuploidy risk, paternal age also contributes.
Older fathers, typically above 40 years, have a higher likelihood of passing on genetic mutations during conception. This increased risk is due to errors in sperm cell division as men age.
These genetic mutations can lead to aneuploidies, including conditions like Down syndrome, Klinefelter syndrome, and Turner syndrome.
However, it is essential to note that the overall risk from paternal age remains relatively low compared to maternal age.
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FILL IN THE BLANK. [Skip] MMSE less than ____ indicates dementia
MMSE less than 24 indicates dementia.
There is no specific cut-off score on the Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) that definitively indicates dementia. The MMSE is a screening tool that assesses cognitive function and can be helpful in identifying potential cognitive impairment, but it is not a diagnostic tool.
The score on the MMSE ranges from 0 to 30, with a higher score indicating better cognitive function. In general, a score of 24 or lower on the MMSE is often considered indicative of cognitive impairment and may prompt further evaluation for dementia. However, the specific cut-off score may vary depending on the individual's age, education level, and other factors.
It is important to note that a diagnosis of dementia typically involves a comprehensive evaluation by a healthcare professional, including a detailed medical history, physical examination, and neuropsychological testing. The MMSE is just one tool that may be used as part of this evaluation, and other factors such as functional ability and behavioral symptoms may also be considered in making a diagnosis.
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[Skip] Person with acute coronary syndrome arrives at a facility without PCI abilities and a contraindication for thrombolytics --> Next step in management?
When a person with acute coronary syndrome (ACS) arrives at a facility without PCI capabilities and has a contraindication for thrombolytics, the next step in management is to stabilize the patient and arrange for transfer to a facility with PCI capabilities. This may include providing medical therapy like antiplatelet agents, anticoagulants, and other supportive measures to maintain stable vital signs during transport.
The recommended medical therapy for ACS includes antiplatelet therapy, such as aspirin and P2Y12 inhibitors like clopidogrel, as well as anticoagulation therapy such as unfractionated heparin or low molecular weight heparin. Other medications such as beta-blockers, ACE inhibitors, and statins may also be given depending on the individual patient's medical history and condition.
In addition to medical therapy, the patient should be closely monitored in a cardiac care unit or intensive care unit to manage any potential complications and assess the effectiveness of the treatment. Transfer to a PCI-capable facility may also be considered if appropriate.
It's important to note that the management of ACS should be tailored to the individual patient's needs and medical history, and treatment decisions should be made in consultation with a healthcare provider.
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What needs to be done in patients with baseline hypothyroidism who get pregnant?
Patients with baseline hypothyroidism who get pregnant need to have their thyroid function checked regularly to ensure that their levels remain within the normal range. This is important because untreated or poorly controlled hypothyroidism during pregnancy can increase the risk of miscarriage, preeclampsia, premature delivery, and neurocognitive impairment in the child.
If a pregnant patient with hypothyroidism is already on thyroid hormone replacement therapy, the dose may need to be adjusted during pregnancy to maintain thyroid hormone levels within the normal range. The American Thyroid Association recommends that pregnant women with hypothyroidism aim for a TSH level of 0.1-2.5 mIU/L in the first trimester and 0.2-3.0 mIU/L in the second and third trimesters.
Women with hypothyroidism who are planning to become pregnant should also have their thyroid function checked and optimize their treatment beforehand, if needed.
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If they give a hx of girl w/in 2 years of menarche who has irregular cycles that are intermittently heavy - what is most likely cause?
If a girl presents a history of irregular cycles that are intermittently heavy within 2 years of menarche, the most likely cause is anovulatory cycles.
During the first two years after menarche, it is common for girls to have irregular menstrual cycles due to the immaturity of the hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian (HPO) axis. Anovulatory cycles are common during this period because the hypothalamus and pituitary gland are still developing and are not able to properly regulate the menstrual cycle. In anovulatory cycles, the ovary does not release an egg, which results in an absence of progesterone and a buildup of the endometrial lining. This can lead to heavy and irregular bleeding.Other potential causes of heavy and irregular menstrual bleeding in adolescent girls include hormonal imbalances, bleeding disorders, pelvic inflammatory disease, and uterine fibroids. However, given the patient's age and history of irregular cycles within two years of menarche, anovulatory cycles are the most likely cause.
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what type of implant crown is better when you have limited restorative space
When you have limited restorative space, a screw-retained implant crown is typically the better option compared to a cemented crown.
This is because screw-retained crowns require less space than cemented crowns since they do not require room for the cement. Additionally, screw-retained crowns have the advantage of being easier to remove and repair, which can save time and money in the long run.
However, there are some cases where a cemented crown may still be the better option, such as when esthetics are a primary concern or when there is very limited space available for a screw-retained crown. Ultimately, the best option will depend on the specific circumstances of the patient and the implant site. It is important to consult with a qualified dental professional to determine the best treatment plan for your individual needs.
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List two (2) factors that need to be considered when deciding whether or not to commence impairment based therapy in the early post-stroke onset period.
There are several factors that need to be considered when deciding whether or not to commence impairment-based therapy in the early post-stroke, but two of the most important 1. Medical Stability and 2. Patient Readiness.
The severity of the impairment can determine whether or not the patient will benefit from early intervention. For instance, patients with severe impairments may not be able to participate fully in therapy sessions, making it difficult to achieve meaningful outcomes. Additionally, patients with mild to moderate impairments may not require intensive therapy in the early stages of recovery.
The patient's overall health and medical condition is also a crucial factor to consider. For example, if a patient has other medical conditions that require attention or has had multiple strokes, it may be necessary to delay therapy until the patient's overall health stabilizes. On the other hand, if a patient is in good health and has no contraindications to therapy, early intervention may be beneficial in promoting recovery.
1. Medical Stability: Ensure the patient is medically stable, as starting therapy too early might exacerbate their condition or interfere with ongoing medical treatments. 2. Patient Readiness: Assess the patient's cognitive and emotional readiness for therapy, as it is crucial for their engagement and progress in the rehabilitation process.
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If fetal heart tones cannot be assessed using external fetal heart monitoring, what can you do?
What patients would you avoid this in?
Internal fetal heart monitoring is a useful alternative when external monitoring is insufficient for assessing fetal heart tones. However, this method should be avoided in patients with active genital herpes, those with certain fetal abnormalities, premature infants, or those at risk of maternal infection.
If external fetal heart monitoring is not effective in assessing fetal heart tones, an alternative method is to use an internal fetal heart monitor. This involves inserting a thin electrode through the cervix and attaching it directly to the fetal scalp.
Internal fetal heart monitoring provides a more accurate and continuous assessment of the fetal heart rate and is particularly useful when external monitoring is inconclusive or inadequate. However, there are certain patients in whom internal monitoring should be avoided. These include mothers with active genital herpes infections, as this could transmit the virus to the fetus.
Additionally, internal monitoring should not be used for premature infants or those with certain fetal abnormalities, as the procedure may cause injury. It is also contraindicated in cases where there is a risk of maternal infection, such as when the amniotic sac has not yet ruptured or the mother has HIV.
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how to work up acute mesenteric ischemia
Acute mesenteric ischemia (AMI) is a serious medical condition that occurs when blood flow to the intestines is reduced, resulting in potential damage and tissue death. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent complications. Here is a concise overview of working up acute mesenteric ischemia.
1. Obtain patient history: Start by asking about the patient's symptoms, such as sudden abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, or diarrhea. Inquire about risk factors, including previous episodes of AMI, a history of cardiovascular disease, arrhythmias, or recent surgeries.
2. Physical examination: Perform a thorough examination, focusing on the abdomen. Look for signs of tenderness, distention, or guarding. Assess the patient's vitals and monitor for signs of shock or sepsis.
3. Laboratory tests: Order blood tests to check for elevated white blood cell counts, metabolic acidosis, and elevated lactate levels, which can indicate tissue hypoxia.
4. Imaging studies: Computed tomography (CT) angiography is the first-line imaging modality for diagnosing AMI. This non-invasive test can identify the presence of a clot or embolus, as well as assess blood flow in the mesenteric arteries.
5. Confirmatory tests: If the diagnosis is still unclear, further tests such as mesenteric angiography or magnetic resonance angiography (MRA) may be used. These can provide more detailed information about the blood vessels and any blockages present.
6. Consult specialists: Involve a gastroenterologist, vascular surgeon, or interventional radiologist as needed for further evaluation and management.
The key to successfully managing acute mesenteric ischemia is to act quickly and efficiently. Prompt diagnosis and treatment can help prevent complications, such as bowel infarction, sepsis, and even death.
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Which organ's roles it to remove nutrients and bacteria from hepatic portal blood
kidneys
lungs
liver
heart
Fill in the blank. _________ addition to PRP (platelet-rich plasma) will result in rapid and irreversible aggregation
Thrombin solution addition to PRP (platelet-rich plasma) will result in rapid and irreversible aggregation.
Thrombin is an enzyme that plays a crucial role in the blood clotting process, specifically by converting fibrinogen into fibrin. This creates a mesh-like structure that traps platelets, forming a stable clot to prevent bleeding.
When combined with PRP, thrombin immediately initiates the clotting cascade, resulting in the aggregation of platelets. This process is utilized in various medical and surgical procedures to promote tissue healing and hemostasis. PRP contains a high concentration of growth factors and cytokines, which support cell proliferation and tissue regeneration.
The rapid and irreversible aggregation induced by thrombin ensures that the beneficial growth factors in PRP are delivered directly to the target site, enhancing the natural healing response. This combination has been found effective in treating a variety of conditions, including chronic wounds, sports injuries, and degenerative joint disorders. Overall, thrombin addition to PRP accelerates the healing process and offers significant potential in regenerative medicine.
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The fetus is most vulnerable for congenital abnormalities during which period of pregnancy?
Fetal period.
Fertilization period.
Embryonic period.
Implantation period.
The fetus is most vulnerable to congenital abnormalities during the embryonic period of pregnancy.
This period occurs approximately from the third week to the eighth week after fertilization. During this crucial stage, the major organ systems and structures are formed. Exposure to certain teratogens (substances or factors that can cause birth defects) during this time can disrupt normal development and lead to congenital abnormalities.
The embryonic period is a critical time for the formation of the neural tube, limbs, heart, and other vital organs. It is important for pregnant individuals to take precautions and avoid potential teratogens during this period to minimize the risk of congenital abnormalities in the developing fetus.
Option c is answer.
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What is the best treatment for Wegener's granulomatosis?
Wegener's granulomatosis is a rare disease that causes inflammation of blood vessels and affects various organs. The best treatment for this disease involves a combination of medications, which includes glucocorticoids, immunosuppressive drugs, and rituximab.
Glucocorticoids are used to reduce inflammation and suppress the immune system. Immunosuppressive drugs such as azathioprine, methotrexate, or mycophenolate mofetil help to prevent the immune system from attacking the body. Rituximab is a monoclonal antibody that targets and destroys specific immune cells that contribute to the disease.
The choice of medication and dosage is tailored to the individual patient's needs and response to treatment. Early diagnosis and treatment can lead to a better prognosis and prevent irreversible organ damage. Regular follow-up visits with a rheumatologist are recommended to monitor the disease and adjust treatment if needed.
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Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia + cutaneous cafe au lait spots + endocrine abnormalities like precocious puberty. There are symptoms of
Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia, cutaneous cafe au lait spots, and endocrine abnormalities like precocious puberty are all symptoms of a condition known as McCune-Albright syndrome.
This is a rare genetic disorder that affects the bones, skin, and endocrine system. The polyostotic fibrous dysplasia causes the bones to become weak and deformed, while the cafe au lait spots are light brown patches of skin that can appear anywhere on the body. Precocious puberty is an early onset of puberty that can occur in both boys and girls. Other symptoms of McCune-Albright syndrome can include hyperthyroidism, growth hormone excess, and Cushing's syndrome.
Treatment options for this condition are typically aimed at managing the individual symptoms and can include medication, surgery, and hormone therapy.
Based on the provided terms, the condition you're referring to is McCune-Albright Syndrome. McCune-Albright Syndrome is characterized by the following symptoms:
1. Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia: This involves the development of fibrous tissue in the bones, which can cause pain, deformity, and fractures. Multiple bones are affected in this case (polyostotic).
2. Cutaneous cafe-au-lait spots: These are flat, pigmented skin lesions that resemble the color of coffee with milk (cafe-au-lait). They are typically present from birth or early childhood.
3. Endocrine abnormalities like precocious puberty: This refers to the early onset of puberty due to hormonal imbalances or abnormal endocrine system functioning.
In summary, McCune-Albright Syndrome is a rare genetic disorder characterized by polyostotic fibrous dysplasia, cutaneous cafe-au-lait spots, and endocrine abnormalities such as precocious puberty.
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Major points to remember about exercise in pregnancy?
Exercise during pregnancy promotes health, eases discomfort, and prepares the body for labor. Consult a doctor and avoid high-risk activities.
Exercise is essential for a healthy pregnancy, as it improves overall health, reduces discomfort, and helps prepare the body for labor and delivery.
Important points to remember include: consulting your healthcare provider before starting any exercise program, choosing low-impact activities like swimming or walking, avoiding high-risk sports or activities that could cause injury, staying hydrated, listening to your body and not overexerting yourself, and modifying your exercise routine as your pregnancy progresses.
Regular exercise can provide numerous benefits, but it's crucial to prioritize safety and follow professional guidance.
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Word associations: Heavy young woman with papilledema and negative CT/MRI of the head
When thinking of a heavy young woman with papilledema and negative CT/MRI of the head, there are a few potential word associations that come to mind. This can lead to symptoms such as headaches, visual changes, and nausea. A negative CT/MRI of the head means that there are no obvious structural abnormalities within the brain.
Papilledema refers to swelling of the optic disc, which can be caused by increased pressure within the skull. Given these factors, one possible word association might be pseudotumor cerebri, which is a condition characterized by increased pressure within the skull that can cause papilledema and other symptoms. This condition is often associated with obesity, particularly in young women.
Other potential word associations might include idiopathic intracranial hypertension, cerebral venous sinus thrombosis, or a brain tumor that is too small to be detected on imaging. Further testing and evaluation would be needed to determine the underlying cause of the symptoms.
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Markedly obese women should do what in pregnancy in terms of weight gain/loss?
Markedly obese women should aim for minimal weight gain or even weight loss during pregnancy under medical supervision.
Markedly obese women, during pregnancy, should work closely with their healthcare providers to determine an appropriate weight gain or loss plan.
The goal is usually to minimize weight gain or, in some cases, achieve a moderate weight loss while ensuring the health of both the mother and the baby.
This can be achieved through a balanced diet, regular exercise tailored to the mother's needs, and consistent prenatal care.
It's crucial for obese women to consult with their healthcare providers throughout their pregnancy, as improper weight management can lead to potential complications for both the mother and the baby.
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