Difference in presentation of 21 hydroxylase deficiency between in infants and teens/twenties?

Answers

Answer 1

The presentation of 21 hydroxylase deficiency can vary between infants and teens/twenties. In infants, the deficiency may present with ambiguous genitalia in females or salt-wasting crisis in both males and females.

Salt-wasting crisis can cause vomiting, dehydration, low blood pressure, and electrolyte imbalances. In contrast, teens and twenties may present with symptoms such as irregular periods, excessive hair growth, acne, and difficulty getting pregnant in females, and delayed puberty and reduced fertility in males. Additionally, individuals with the deficiency may have a higher risk of developing osteoporosis and adrenal insufficiency later in life. It is important to note that the severity and presentation of the deficiency can vary greatly between individuals.

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Related Questions

[Skip] MC overproduced hormone in a pituitary adenoma

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Anterior pituitary tumours are known as pituitary adenomas. The majority of benign pituitary tumours are slow-growing.

Thus, Depending on their size or cell of origin, they are categorized. For the greatest outcomes, patients with pituitary adenoma need to be assessed by an interprofessional team that includes both endocrinology and neurosurgery.

There are active pituitary adenomas, and the cells that make them up boost the anterior pituitary's output of one or more hormones.

An alternative is non-functioning adenomas, which do not secrete hormones but may compress the anterior pituitary's surrounding tissue, resulting in hormonal imbalances.

Thus, Anterior pituitary tumours are known as pituitary adenomas. The majority of benign pituitary tumours are slow-growing.

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Autoimmune pathology that affects salivary and tear glands. true or false?

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The given statement is true. Sjogren's syndrome is an autoimmune pathology that affects both salivary and tear glands. In this condition, the immune system mistakenly attacks these glands, resulting in reduced production of saliva and tears.

Autoimmune pathology can affect both the salivary and tear glands. This condition is known as Sjogren's syndrome, which is a chronic autoimmune disorder that attacks the moisture-producing glands in the body, including the salivary and tear glands. In Sjogren's syndrome, the immune system mistakenly attacks the healthy tissues of the body, resulting in inflammation and damage to the glands. This can lead to symptoms such as dry mouth, dry eyes, difficulty swallowing, and even joint pain and fatigue. While there is no cure for Sjogren's syndrome, there are treatments available to manage symptoms and prevent complications. For instance, medications such as artificial tears, saliva substitutes, and anti-inflammatory drugs can help to alleviate dryness and reduce inflammation. Additionally, lifestyle changes like drinking plenty of water, avoiding caffeine and alcohol, and using a humidifier can also help to improve symptoms.

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A chronic inflammatory autoimmune disease with profound fatigue, rashes, and joint pains is: A. Lupus B. Multiple sclerosis C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Fibromyalgia

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A chronic inflammatory autoimmune disease characterized by profound fatigue, rashes, and joint pains is A. Lupus.

Lupus, also known as systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), is a complex autoimmune disease in which the immune system mistakenly attacks its own tissues, causing widespread inflammation and damage to various organs, including the skin, joints, and internal organs. The symptoms of lupus can vary greatly, ranging from mild to severe, and can include fatigue, rashes (such as the distinctive butterfly-shaped rash on the face), joint pain, and swelling. Lupus can be difficult to diagnose due to its varied symptoms and its resemblance to other conditions.

Treatment for lupus often involves managing symptoms and preventing flare-ups with medications such as anti-inflammatory drugs, corticosteroids, and immunosuppressive agents. While there is currently no cure for lupus, advancements in research and treatment options have significantly improved the quality of life and prognosis for individuals living with this autoimmune disease. So therefore the correct answer is A. Lupus, is a chronic inflammatory autoimmune disease characterized by profound fatigue, rashes, and joint pains.

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Frequency of endometritis in vaginal birth vs CS?

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Research studies have shown that the frequency of endometritis, which is inflammation of the lining of the uterus, is higher in women who undergo cesarean section (CS) compared to those who have a vaginal birth.

This is because CS is a surgical procedure that involves incisions through the abdominal wall and uterus, which increases the risk of infection. In contrast, vaginal birth is a natural process that allows for the expulsion of the baby and placenta without any surgical intervention. However, it's important to note that the risk of endometritis can also depend on various factors such as maternal health status, presence of risk factors, and the type of bacteria present in the genital tract.

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Eosinophilic cytoplasmic inclusion in liver cell is called?

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The term "Eosinophilic cytoplasmic inclusion in liver cell" is commonly used to refer to a specific type of liver disease, known as Eosinophilic Hepatitis.

This condition is characterized by the accumulation of eosinophils, a type of white blood cell, in the liver tissue. Eosinophils contain large, round granules in their cytoplasm that stain pink or red with eosin, a common histological dye.

When these granules accumulate in liver cells, they create distinct inclusions that are visible under the microscope.

Eosinophilic Hepatitis is a rare condition, and the underlying causes are not well understood. Some researchers believe it may be related to autoimmune disorders or allergic reactions,

while others suggest that it may be triggered by exposure to environmental toxins or certain medications. Symptoms of Eosinophilic Hepatitis can include abdominal pain, nausea, jaundice, and fatigue.

Diagnosis of Eosinophilic Hepatitis usually requires a liver biopsy, in which a small sample of liver tissue is removed and examined under a microscope.

Treatment options vary depending on the severity of the condition, but may include corticosteroids or other immunosuppressive medications to reduce inflammation in the liver. In some cases, dietary changes or other lifestyle modifications may also be recommended.



Overall, Eosinophilic Hepatitis is a complex and often challenging condition to diagnose and treat.

However, with careful management and ongoing monitoring, many patients are able to achieve significant improvements in their liver function and overall health.

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Fill in the blank. ______________ is a benign, disorganized overgrowth of histologically normal tissue in its native location within the body

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Hamartomas is a benign, disorganized overgrowth of histologically normal tissue in its native location within the body

What's Hamartomas?

Hamartomas are non-cancerous growths that occur when there is an overgrowth of normal tissue in its original location in the body.

These growths can occur in various parts of the body, including the lungs, liver, and brain. Hamartomas are typically not harmful, but in some cases, they can cause symptoms or complications depending on their location.

For example, a lung hamartoma may cause coughing or shortness of breath, while a brain hamartoma may cause seizures or neurological symptoms.

Treatment for hamartomas is usually only necessary if they are causing symptoms or are located in a high-risk area of the body.

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[Skip] Triphasic scratchy sound on auscultation
Sign? Disease associated?

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The triphasic scratchy sound on auscultation is a sign of pleural friction rub. It is a common finding in conditions such as pleurisy, pneumonia, pulmonary embolism, and lung cancer.

A triphasic scratchy sound on auscultation is also known as a pleural friction rub. It is a high-pitched, grating sound that is heard during inspiration and expiration and is caused by the inflamed pleural surfaces rubbing against each other.

Pleural friction rubs can be a sign of several conditions, including pneumonia, tuberculosis, pulmonary embolism, pleurisy, mesothelioma, and pulmonary infarction. The specific disease associated with a pleural friction rub would depend on other clinical symptoms, medical history, and imaging studies. It is important to consult a healthcare provider for an accurate diagnosis and appropriate management.

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An abnormal, irreversible structural deformity of the medium and large-sized bronchi that results in formation of copious mucous, decreased mucous clearance, ciliary dysfunction, and dilated bronchi is called

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An abnormal, irreversible structural deformity of the medium and large-sized bronchi that results in the formation of copious mucus, decreased mucous clearance, ciliary dysfunction, and dilated bronchi is called bronchiectasis.

Bronchiectasis is a chronic respiratory condition that is often caused by repeated lung infections, such as pneumonia or tuberculosis, or conditions that lead to chronic inflammation of the airways, such as cystic fibrosis. The structural deformity of the bronchi causes them to widen and become flabby, which impairs the normal clearance of mucus and bacteria from the lungs. This leads to a build-up of mucus in the airways, making it difficult to breathe and increasing the risk of recurrent lung infections.

Symptoms of bronchiectasis can include coughing up large amounts of mucus, shortness of breath, chest pain, wheezing, and fatigue. Treatment may involve antibiotics to treat lung infections, bronchodilators to open up the airways, and chest physiotherapy to help clear mucus from the lungs. In severe cases, surgery may be needed to remove damaged sections of the lung.

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Why aren't electrolytes or a urine culture very helpful studies in brand-new neonates? (7)

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Electrolytes and a urine culture are not very helpful studies in brand-new neonates because their kidneys are immature and have limited capacity to regulate electrolyte balance or to concentrate urine.

Neonates are also more prone to dehydration due to higher water turnover, and their electrolyte levels may be affected by various factors such as feeding practices and medications, making interpretation of electrolyte tests challenging. Additionally, neonatal urine is more likely to be contaminated during collection, and the presence of residual maternal hormones may interfere with test results. Therefore, the clinical picture and physical examination findings are more important than laboratory tests in evaluating the hydration and metabolic status of newborns. If a problem is suspected, other tests such as blood gas and serum electrolyte measurements may be useful in confirming the diagnosis and guiding treatment.

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6 y/o male presents w/ hemarthrosis of the L knee. Coag studies: PT 12.5s (normal12-14 sec), INR 1.0, aPTT 58s (normal 18-28 sec), platelet 430,000/microliter (normal 150,000-450,000/microliter), & bleeding time 4m (normal 2-12m). Which is the best tx option for this pt?

Answers

You mentioned a 6 y/o male presenting with hemarthrosis of the left knee and provided coagulation study results. The best treatment option for this patient would be to administer Factor VIII concentrate, as the prolonged aPTT (58s) suggests a possible deficiency in Factor VIII, which is commonly seen in hemophilia A patients. Hemarthrosis is often associated with bleeding disorders like hemophilia.



The treatment steps are as follows:
1. Administer Factor VIII concentrate intravenously as soon as possible to replace the missing clotting factor.
2. Monitor the patient's response and factor levels to ensure adequate hemostasis.
3. Provide additional supportive care, such as pain management and rest for the affected joint, as needed.

It is important to consult with a hematologist or specialist for proper diagnosis and management of the underlying bleeding disorder in this case.

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Miosis is a ______________ response (cholinergic or anticholinergic response)?

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Miosis is a cholinergic response

The two primary hormones secreted by the thyroid gland are triiodothyronine (T3) and: A. Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) B. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) C. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) D. Thyroxine (T4).

Answers

Option (D) is correct. The primary hormones secreted by the thyroid gland are T3 and T4.

How do the hormones T3 and T4 relate to the thyroid gland?

The thyroid gland produces two primary hormones, triiodothyronine (T3) and thyroxine (T4). T3 and T4 are responsible for regulating metabolism, growth and development, and body temperature. TSH, or thyroid-stimulating hormone, is produced by the pituitary gland and stimulates the thyroid gland to produce T3 and T4. ACTH, or adrenocorticotropic hormone, is produced by the pituitary gland and stimulates the adrenal glands. FSH, or follicle-stimulating hormone, is produced by the pituitary gland and plays a role in regulating the reproductive system.

In this question, the correct answer is D. Thyroxine (T4), which is one of the two primary hormones produced by the thyroid gland.

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Elderly patient recovering from URI subsequently presents with high fever and purulent sputum --> DX? Bug?

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Pneumonia caused by bacterial, viral, or fungal infection can develop in elderly patients recovering from URI, with symptoms such as high fever and purulent sputum.

What is the potential diagnosis and causative agent(s) in an elderly patient?

An elderly patient recovering from upper respiratory infection (URI) who presents with a high fever and purulent sputum may suggest the development of pneumonia. Pneumonia is an infection of the lungs that can be caused by bacteria, viruses, or fungi, and is a common complication of URI. The symptoms of high fever and purulent sputum indicate that the infection has progressed from the upper respiratory tract to the lower respiratory tract.

To make a definitive diagnosis, the patient should undergo a chest X-ray to evaluate for infiltrates or consolidation in the lungs, and a sputum culture to identify the causative organism. Common bacterial causes of pneumonia include Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, and Staphylococcus aureus, while viruses such as influenza and respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) can also cause pneumonia.

Treatment for pneumonia typically involves antibiotics for bacterial infections and antiviral medications for viral infections. Supportive care, such as oxygen therapy and hydration, may also be necessary. It is important to treat pneumonia promptly in elderly patients, as they are at increased risk for complications such as respiratory failure and sepsis.

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Drugs that cause the potential side effect of:
torsades de pointes

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Drugs that have the potential side effect of causing Torsades de Pointes are known as QT-prolonging drugs.

Torsades de pointes is a type of abnormal heart rhythm that can be caused by certain medications, particularly those that prolong the QT interval. These drugs include antiarrhythmic agents such as amiodarone, sotalol, and dofetilide, as well as some antibiotics (e.g. erythromycin, clarithromycin), antipsychotics (e.g. haloperidol, ziprasidone), and antidepressants (e.g. citalopram, escitalopram). It is important to monitor patients closely when prescribing these medications and to weigh the potential benefits against the risks of developing torsades de pointes.

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Each of the following is a mode of action of an ultrasonic instrument EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?
A.Lavage
B. Vibration
C. Cavitation
D. Sharp cutting edge of tip

Answers

The exception among the modes of action of an ultrasonic instrument is sharp cutting edge of tip (Option D).

Ultrasonic instruments use beams of high frequency, short wave signals to inspect, monitor, and measure materials and components. The other modes of action for an ultrasonic instrument are:

A. Lavage is the flushing of the area with water or another solution.

B. Vibration is the back-and-forth motion of the instrument tip.

C. Cavitation is the formation and collapse of bubbles due to the ultrasonic vibrations, which aids in cleaning.

Sharp cutting edge of tip is not a mode of action of an ultrasonic instrument because  the cutting edges of tools like blades, knives, etc, are provided with sharp edges to cut the things easily as the sharp edges have a small area on which the force is applied, hence more pressure is applied.

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When does AOM typically develop? (14)

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AOM, or Acute Otitis Media, typically develops when a viral or bacterial infection affects the middle ear, often following an upper respiratory infection or cold. It is most common in children between the ages of 6 months and 14 years.

Acute otitis media (AOM) typically develops in children between the ages of 6 months and 2 years, although it can occur at any age. It is most common in the winter and early spring months, and can be caused by a bacterial or viral infection. Symptoms may include ear pain, fever, and difficulty hearing, and treatment often involves antibiotics and pain relief medication. It is important to seek medical attention if you suspect your child has AOM, as untreated infections can lead to complications such as hearing loss and ruptured eardrums.

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True/false: A qualified health claim is less well-established than an authorized health claim

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True. A qualified health claim is a type of health claim that is supported by scientific evidence, but the evidence is not strong enough to meet the FDA's standard for an authorized health claim.

Qualified health claims are authorized on a case-by-case basis and must be accompanied by a disclaimer that communicates the level of scientific evidence supporting the claim. In contrast, an authorized health claim is a type of health claim that is supported by strong scientific evidence and has been authorized by the FDA for use on a product label. Authorized health claims are considered to be more well-established than qualified health claims because they have gone through a rigorous review process and have been determined to meet the FDA's high standard for scientific evidence. It is important for consumers to be aware of the difference between these two types of health claims so that they can make informed decisions about the products they purchase and consume.

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how can you best assist patients who are heavy or unable to bear weight?

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Assisting heavy or non-weight bearing patients requires careful attention to safety and comfort to prevent falls, injury, and discomfort. Here are some ways to best assist these patients:

1. Use assistive devices such as transfer belts, gait belts, walkers, crutches, or wheelchairs to help them move safely.

2. Encourage the patient to participate as much as possible and communicate any discomfort or pain they experience during the process.

3. Use proper body mechanics and lifting techniques to avoid injury to both the patient and caregiver.

4. Plan ahead and clear the pathway to ensure that the patient can move through easily.

5. Provide clear instructions to the patient regarding the movement, weight-shifting, and other actions required during the process.

6. Always use caution and ensure that the patient is properly supported at all times.

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What are 2 subtypes of jaundice associated with breastfeeding?

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The two subtypes of jaundice associated with breastfeeding are breastfeeding jaundice and breast milk jaundice.

Breastfeeding jaundice is a type of jaundice that occurs within the first week of life in breastfed infants. This type of jaundice is caused by insufficient milk intake, which leads to dehydration and increased levels of bilirubin in the blood. The increased bilirubin levels cause the yellowing of the skin and eyes, which are characteristic of jaundice.Breast milk jaundice, on the other hand, is a type of jaundice that occurs after the first week of life and can last for up to 12 weeks in breastfed infants. This type of jaundice is caused by certain substances in breast milk that interfere with the breakdown of bilirubin in the liver. As a result, bilirubin levels in the blood increase, leading to the yellowing of the skin and eyes.Both types of jaundice associated with breastfeeding are generally benign and do not cause any long-term harm to the infant. However, it is important to monitor bilirubin levels and ensure adequate milk intake to prevent severe jaundice and dehydration.

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Mature plaque in
• 1-2 hrs.
• 6-8 hrs.
• 10-12 hrs.
• 24-48 hrs.

Answers

Mature plaque can form in as little as 24-48 hours (Option D).

Dental plaque typically takes about 24-48 hours to mature. This means that in the time frame of 24-48 hours, the plaque has developed and grown, becoming more difficult to remove. In the earlier time frames (1-2 hours, 6-8 hours, and 10-12 hours), the plaque has not yet fully matured, making it easier to clean and manage with proper oral hygiene practices.

Although it may begin to develop in as little as 1-2 hours after the accumulation of bacteria and food particles on the teeth, it typically takes longer for the plaque to become fully mature and firmly attached to the teeth, with estimates ranging from 6-8 hours up to 10-12 hours. Regular brushing and flossing can help to prevent the formation of mature plaque, which can lead to tooth decay and gum disease if left untreated.

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[Skip] Initial DMARD of choice in RA are_____

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Initial DMARD of choice in rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is Methotrexate.

The main symptoms of rheumatoid arthritis are joint pain, swelling and stiffness. It may also cause more general symptoms, and inflammation in other parts of the body.

Rheumatoid arthritis remains a serious disease, and one that can vary widely in symptoms and outcomes. Even so, treatment advances have made it possible to stop or at least slow the progression of joint damage. Rheumatologists now have many new treatments that target the inflammation that RA causes.

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Algorithm for suspected variceal hemorrhage

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The most effective method for seeing esophageal varices is a process known as upper gastrointestinal endoscopy. An endoscope, a lighted, flexible tube, is inserted into the esophagus and down the throat during an endoscopy.

For variceal hemorrhage suspicion, the following is a basic algorithm:

Stabilize and examine the patient: Assess the patient's breathing, circulation, and airways. Provide oxygen if necessary. Set up an intravenous line and collect blood samples for testing in the lab. Start the appropriate resuscitation procedures, such as fluid and blood product resuscitation, if the patient is bleeding continuously.

Start pharmacologic treatment: Reduce portal pressure and the likelihood of rebleeding by administering vasoactive medications like terlipressin or somatostatin analogs. In order to avoid ulcers and acid reflux, start taking proton pump inhibitors. In patients with advanced liver disease, administer antibiotics to prevent infection.

Endoscopic treatment: Perform an emergency esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD) if the patient is stable enough to identify the source of the bleeding and carry out endoscopic procedures like band ligation or sclerotherapy.

Careful mediation: Consider surgical intervention, such as portosystemic shunting or liver transplantation, if endoscopic therapy fails or the patient is not a candidate for endoscopy.

ICU affirmation and observing: Admit the patient to the intensive care unit (ICU) for continued resuscitation, close monitoring, and an additional EGD whenever necessary. It may be necessary to conduct additional imaging studies to evaluate therapy response.

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Q- The algorithm for a suspected variceal hemorrhage:________.

Why does Valsalva increase aortic stenosis?

Answers

The Valsalva maneuver is a breathing technique where a person forcibly exhales against a closed airway. This increases the pressure within the chest, which can affect the function of the heart and blood vessels.

In the case of aortic stenosis, this maneuver can increase the severity of the condition. Aortic stenosis is a narrowing of the aortic valve, which controls blood flow from the heart to the rest of the body. When the valve is narrowed, the heart has to work harder to pump blood through it, leading to symptoms like shortness of breath, chest pain, and fatigue.

The Valsalva maneuver can worsen these symptoms by increasing the pressure within the aorta and decreasing the amount of blood flowing through the narrowed valve. During the maneuver, the pressure within the chest increases, which can cause blood to back up in the aorta.

This can lead to a decrease in the amount of blood flowing through the narrowed valve, making it more difficult for the heart to pump blood to the body. Additionally, the decreased blood flow can lead to a decrease in oxygen delivery to the heart muscle, which can worsen symptoms like chest pain and shortness of breath.


In conclusion, the Valsalva maneuver can increase the severity of aortic stenosis by increasing the pressure within the chest and decreasing the amount of blood flowing through the narrowed valve. It is important for people with this condition to be aware of this and to avoid the maneuver or other activities that can increase pressure in the chest.

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______________ is a benign, disorganized overgrowth of histologically normal tissue in its native location within the body

Answers

Hamartomas is a benign, disorganized overgrowth of histologically normal tissue in its native location within the body

What's Hamartomas

Hamartomas are growths that develop in the body, but they are not cancerous or harmful in nature. They are composed of normal tissue that is simply growing in an abnormal pattern or location.

Hamartomas can occur in various parts of the body, such as the lungs, liver, skin, and brain. They are typically found incidentally on imaging tests or during surgery, as they often do not cause symptoms.

Although hamartomas are generally considered benign, they can sometimes cause complications if they grow large enough or interfere with surrounding structures. Treatment options for hamartomas depend on their location and size, and may include observation, surgery, or other interventions.

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Requirements for pharmacists who participate in drug therapy management (DTM; clinical pharmacists)

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Pharmacists who participate in Drug Therapy Management (DTM) or clinical pharmacy must meet certain requirements like having a degree, must be well trained, and many more.

First, they must have a degree in pharmacy from an accredited institution and be licensed to practice pharmacy in their state. Second, they must have completed an accredited residency or have equivalent experience in clinical pharmacy practice. Finally, they must have completed additional training or certification in DTM, including coursework and supervised practice. In some states, pharmacists must also obtain a collaborative practice agreement with a physician or other healthcare provider to participate in Drug Therapy Management (DTM). These requirements ensure that pharmacists who participate in DTM are knowledgeable and qualified to provide safe and effective patient care.

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What is the difference between IUGR and SGA?

Answers

IUGR (Intrauterine Growth Restriction) refers to a condition where a fetus is not growing at a normal rate.

SGA (Small for Gestational Age) refers to a newborn whose birth weight is below the 10th percentile for their gestational age.

How you differentiate IUGR and SGA?

IUGR and SGA are related terms, but they refer to different concepts.

IUGR refers to a condition where the fetus is not growing at a normal rate during pregnancy.

This can be due to various factors, such as poor nutrition, infections, or problems with the placenta. IUGR can result in a baby being born with a low birth weight, but not all babies with a low birth weight have IUGR.

SGA, on the other hand, refers to a newborn whose birth weight is below the 10th percentile for their gestational age. This means that the baby is smaller than most other babies of the same gestational age.

SGA can be due to various factors, such as genetics, maternal health problems, or problems with the placenta. SGA babies may or may not have had IUGR during pregnancy.

In summary, IUGR is a condition that occurs during pregnancy, where the fetus is not growing at a normal rate.

While SGA refers to a newborn who has a low birth weight and is smaller than most other babies of the same gestational age.

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Simple bone cyst / idiopathic bone cavity

Answers

A simple bone cyst, also known as an idiopathic bone cavity, is a benign fluid-filled lesion that occurs in the long bones of children and young adults.

The cause of simple bone cysts is unknown, and they are typically discovered incidentally during routine imaging or after the onset of symptoms such as pain or fracture.
Simple bone cysts can occur in any bone but are most commonly found in the proximal humerus or femur. They can cause weakening of the bone, which can lead to fractures. Treatment options for simple bone cysts include observation, curettage (scraping out the cyst contents), or bone grafting. In some cases, simple bone cysts may spontaneously resolve on their own without intervention.
While simple bone cysts are not cancerous and are not thought to increase the risk of cancer, they can still be concerning for patients and their families. If you or a loved one has been diagnosed with a simple bone cyst, it is important to discuss treatment options and potential complications with your healthcare provider. With appropriate management, most patients with simple bone cysts can achieve complete resolution of their symptoms and return to normal activities.

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Pelvic cramping during the 1st few days of menses in the context of a normal physical examination --> dx, pathogenesis, tx?

Answers

a. Pelvic cramping during the 1st few days of menses is a common symptom of primary dysmenorrhea.

b. The pathogenesis is due to the release of prostaglandins, which cause the uterus to contract and can lead to pain.

c. Treatment (tx) typically involves nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) such as ibuprofen.

Treatment for primary dysmenorrhea typically involves nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) such as ibuprofen, which can help reduce prostaglandin levels and alleviate pain. Heat therapy and exercise may also provide relief. In some cases, hormonal contraception such as birth control pills or an intrauterine device (IUD) may be prescribed to help regulate menstruation and reduce pain. If symptoms are severe or do not respond to these treatments, further evaluation may be necessary to rule out other potential causes of pelvic pain.

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The doctor ordered Neupogen 175 mcg subcut. every 3 days. The drug label on the vial reads Neupogen 300 mcg per mL. How many mL's will the nurse administer for one dose?
Round to nearest tenth.

Answers

The doctor ordered Neupogen 175 mcg subcut. every 3 days. The drug label on the vial reads Neupogen 300 mcg per mL. The nurse will administer 0.6 mL of Neupogen for one dose.

1. 175 mcg of Neupogen every 3 days.
2. 300 mcg of Neupogen per 1 mL.
3. Divide the ordered dose by the concentration to find the required volume:

175 mcg (ordered dose) ÷ 300 mcg/mL (concentration) = 0.5833 mL

4. Round to the nearest tenth: 0.6 mL

The nurse will administer 0.6 mL of Neupogen for one dose.

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[Skip] Antidote for Carbon monoxide are_____

Answers

The antidote for carbon monoxide (CO) poisoning is oxygen therapy. CO poisoning occurs when a person inhales excessive amounts of carbon monoxide, a colorless, odorless gas that binds to hemoglobin in the blood, reducing the amount of oxygen that can be transported to the body's tissues.

The treatment for CO poisoning involves administering 100% oxygen to the patient as soon as possible. The oxygen displaces the CO from hemoglobin, allowing the body to transport oxygen effectively to the tissues. High-pressure oxygen therapy, such as hyperbaric oxygen therapy (HBOT), may also be used in severe cases of CO poisoning.

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This is the layer of hyaline cartilage that reduces friction between bones involved in the joint.A. PeriosteumB. Distal epiphysisC. Nutrient foramenD. Articular cartilageE. Epiphyseal plate Find each angle measure what is the inner power and psychological energy that directs and fuels your behavior? A CPU's clock rate, or speed, is measured in MB or GB. TRUE OR FALSE? A rapid acceleration during takeoff can create the illusion ofA) diving into the ground.B) spinning in the opposite direction.C) being in a noseup attitude. Which of the following is true about U.S. Business cycle activity since 1933?A. There has been only one business cycle in the last 30 years.B. There have been only two or three complete cycles.C. There have been no recessions since 1979.D. Expansions have generally lasted longer than contractions. true or false Similarly, given knowledge base L:L (Pressure is high)C (It is cloudy)C L R, (Clouds and low pressure imply rain) How do you calculate corrected age and chronological age? Which of the following is the most accurate indicator of fluid loss or gain?A. Urine output B. Body weight C. Thirst level D. Skin turgor list and describe the four C's of revision True/False. Persistent Sorted Modules are extensions defined in SQL-99 that include the capability to create and drop modules of code stored in the database schema across user sessions. Read the quote from Nina Simone and the first part of an analysis of the quote. Answer the question that follows."I have to constantly re-identify myself to myself, reactivate my own standards, my own convictions about what I'm doing and why."The quote illustrates how even to someone who is a dedicated activist, she must (blank) her standards and convictions from time to time.Select the best word that fits the tone, flow, and concept of the excerpt. awaken exhilarate refresh wake up What is the percent ionization for a 1.0 103 M solution of pyridine? Kb = 1.5 109a. 0.12%b. 1.6%c. 2.8%d. 0.045%e. 0.67% Is the image an example of perpendicular lines? line AB intersects with another line at 90 degrees Yes, the lines intersect. Yes, the lines intersect at a right angle. No, the lines never touch. No, the lines are one-dimensional. Give me an example of when you had to work with someone who was difficult to get along with. The time T required for one complete oscillation of a mass m on a spring of force constant k is T = 2pi square root (m/k) Find the dimensions k must have for this equation to be dimen-sionally correct. 2.7 kilograms contain this many grams. a.2.7 x 10^-3 b.2.7 x 10^1 c. 2.7 10^-2 d. 2.7 x 10^2 e.2.7 x 10^3 A Speech to the Student Body of Evergreen High [1] Picture this: It's Spring Break, and you fly off to some country where there's lush rainforests and beautiful, blue coastlines to explore. There's also people in need, so you decide to blend your vacation with volunteering. Volunteering as a tourist, or voluntourism, seems like a great way to explore new regions and help people at the same time. However, this "volunteer plus travel" experience can actually harm local communities. While many teens might view traveling and volunteering abroad as a worthwhile adventure, there are more genuine and effective ways to make a difference. [2] Most would agree that volunteering in general is a worthy use of time. However, what if you found out the children you are "helping" are actually being kept in poor conditions so voluntourists will spend money to come to the local area? Dale Rolfe, a supporter of ethical voluntourism, explains the shocking reality that "Animal sanctuaries and orphanages are often manufactured for the voluntourist...encouraging a cycle of exploiting the very animals and children the volunteers are trying to help." [3] Proponents of the "volunteer plus travel" experience also argue that traveling to new places builds character and is a valuable way to learn about different cultures. With voluntourism, however, participants often pursue experiences that are all about them. For example, they sign up to build a school for a gold star on their resume, but they have no real building skills and take jobs away from local construction workers (Schulten). Or, they arrive to teach English but instead take selfies with the locals. One world traveler and ethical voluntourist believes voluntourism "can perpetuate small minded views of the world by taking insulated, fake, and structured experiences and selling them as unabridged and eye opening" (Carlos). The voluntour experience is a mirage. The voluntourist's eyes are not opened to real life at the destination, and lasting change is not achieved. [4] If you want a genuine experience where you can see a lasting impact, there are better options than voluntourism. You can volunteer in your local community. Give an hour every week to your town's animal rescue. Serve monthly dinners to the homeless. Be a reliable, positive influence on a child who needs a mentor. Studies show that volunteering and forming lasting relationships with those you help has a positive impact on your physical and emotional health. In fact, blood pressure is reduced, memory is improved, and rates of depression are reduced (Michaels). [5] There is another reason to look into alternatives to voluntourism. Did you know the average "voluntour" travel package costs $3,400 (Rolfe)? Could that travel money be better spent? If the world's citizens are your passion, it could go to an international organization. If you care about education, your funds can be used to buy books for students in faraway lands. If you want villagers to have clean water, contribute funds to local efforts to dig wells. If you want to experience a different culture, travel to the country as a guest, and learn from the locals how you can best help them after you've returned home. But do not voluntour. [6] In reality, there are better ways to make a difference. Voluntourism might appear to be an adventure that blends travel and helping others, but it does little except provide a costly, superficial experience that might actually do more harm than good. So, volunteer where you are most needed-at home, where you can stay to see the job through and form genuine, lasting relationships. Choose a beautiful coastline closer to home and send the travel money you saved to an international organization that will put it to good use. Whatever you do, don't turn someone else's hardship into your vacation. "The Opportunity of a Lifetime" A magazine advertisement with the title Both texts (the speech and the advertisement) address voluntourism. However, each text has a different purpose, which is reflected by the details each writer chose to include. Consider the words and images used. In a paragraph of 6-8 sentences, identify what each text emphasizes and explain how that emphasis reveals each author's position on voluntourism. Be sure to state each author's position and include evidence from both texts to support your analysis. Basil foreshadowing his friends sad ending What information can you get from a NULL session?