DNA sequencing has become widely used tool to find and prove relatedness among organisms_ To this end; it has been used extensively to evaluate the evolution of primates. Three such organisms whose DNA has been studied are chimpanzees; mountain orillas; and Savannah baboons: Upon examination; it has been found that the chimpanzee has more genes in common with the mountain gorilla than the Savannah baboon: Which of the following offers the most Iikely explanation for this observation? Baboons evolved from chimpanzees nor irom gorillas: Chimpanzees and gorillas share more recent common ancestor than do chimpanzees and baboons_ Gorillas evolved from chimpanzees not from baboons_ Convergent evolution led to the observed genetic similarities between chimpanzees and gorillas_

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Answer 1

DNA sequencing is a powerful tool that has become widely used in determining relatedness among organisms. It has been extensively used to evaluate the evolution of primates.

Three such organisms whose DNA has been studied are chimpanzees, mountain gorillas, and Savannah baboons. Upon examination, it was found that chimpanzees have more genes in common with mountain gorillas than with Savannah baboons. The most likely explanation for this observation is that chimpanzees and gorillas share a more recent common ancestor than chimpanzees and baboons do. It does not mean that baboons evolved from chimpanzees, nor does it mean that gorillas evolved from chimpanzees. Instead, it suggests that the genetic similarities between chimpanzees and gorillas are due to their shared evolutionary history, while the differences between chimpanzees and baboons are due to their divergent evolution. This observation highlights the importance of DNA sequencing in understanding the evolutionary relationships between organisms.

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Related Questions

determine whether each sample of matter is chemically homogeneous or chemically heterogeneous, and whether it is physically homogeneous or physically heterogeneous.

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In order to determine whether a sample of matter is chemically homogeneous or heterogeneous, we need to determine whether it contains a single chemical substance or multiple chemical substances.

In order to determine whether a sample of matter is physically homogeneous or heterogeneous, we need to determine whether it appears uniform throughout, or whether it contains visible variations in composition or physical properties.

Here are some examples:

1. Pure water

Chemically homogeneous (contains only water molecules)Physically homogeneous (appears uniform throughout)

2.Trail mix

Chemically heterogeneous (contains a variety of substances, such as nuts, seeds, and dried fruit)Physically heterogeneous (contains visible variations in composition)

3. Carbon dioxide gas

Chemically homogeneous (contains only CO2 molecules)Physically homogeneous (appears uniform throughout)

4. Granite rock

Chemically heterogeneous (contains a variety of substances, such as quartz, feldspar, and mica)Physically heterogeneous (contains visible variations in composition)

5. Air in a room

Chemically homogeneous (contains a mixture of gases, primarily nitrogen and oxygen)Physically homogeneous (appears uniform throughout)

6. Salad dressing

Chemically heterogeneous (contains a mixture of oil, vinegar, and other ingredients)Physically heterogeneous (contains visible variations in composition)

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Fill in the blank: the absence of telomerase activity may impact ___, in which cells stop dividing, whereas most ____ have active telomerases to maintain telomere length

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The absence of telomerase activity may impact cellular aging, in which cells stop dividing, whereas most cancer cells have active telomerase to maintain telomere length.

Telomeres are protective structures at the ends of chromosomes that shorten with each cell division, ultimately leading to cellular senescence or aging.

Telomerase is an enzyme that can maintain telomere length by adding telomeric repeats to the ends of chromosomes.

In most normal somatic cells, telomerase activity is low or absent, leading to progressive telomere shortening and eventual senescence.

However, in cancer cells, telomerase activity is frequently upregulated, allowing the cells to divide indefinitely and avoiding senescence. Therefore, targeting telomerase has emerged as a promising strategy for cancer therapy.

Overall, the absence of telomerase activity can lead to cellular aging, while active telomerase can maintain telomere length and promote cell division, which is important for cancer cells to proliferate and evade senescence.

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2. 2 Mention FOUR reasons why it is important to apply for entry at tertiary
institutions while you are still at grade 11. ​

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Applying to tertiary institutions while in grade 11 is an essential step in preparing for your future. It provides you with ample time to research and apply for admission.

It is essential to apply for entry at tertiary institutions while you are still in grade 11 because it provides you with the following benefits:

1. Early Preparation: By applying early, you are preparing yourself for the future and becoming aware of what it takes to be admitted to tertiary education institutions. You can research and find out the requirements needed for your program of interest and start working towards them.

2. Ease of Application: Applying early means you will have ample time to go through the application process without being in a rush. You can familiarize yourself with the process, and in case of any problems or questions, you will have enough time to seek help from the relevant authorities.

3. Increased Chances of Admission: Since you have applied early, you have a higher chance of being admitted to your preferred tertiary institution. Early applications are usually considered more favorably since they show a level of commitment and dedication.

4. Scholarships and Bursaries: Applying early can increase your chances of getting scholarships and bursaries. You can research and find out the available scholarships and bursaries and apply early to take advantage of them.

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explore smith’s complex relationship to writing. describe her process. why is smith interested in the continental drift club? what is the significance of memory or remembrance for smith?

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Zadie Smith has a complex relationship with writing, which she explores in her works. She sees writing as both an act of expression and a means of exploring the world around her.

Her process involves a great deal of revision and self-reflection, as she tries to capture the essence of her experiences on the page.

Smith is interested in the Continental Drift Club because it represents a group of people who are willing to challenge their own assumptions and engage in meaningful discussions about the world.

For Smith, this is an important aspect of her own writing process, as she seeks to push beyond her own boundaries and explore new ideas. The significance of memory and remembrance is also central to Smith's work.

She is interested in how we remember the past and how these memories shape our understanding of the present.

Through her writing, Smith seeks to capture the complexity of human experience and the ways in which our memories and experiences are intertwined.

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true/false. a fully heterozygous fly resulting from a cross between a wild-type fly and a fly showing three recessive

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The statement provided is incomplete. It is not clear what traits or genes are being referred to when mentioning a "wild-type fly" and a "fly showing three recessive." Additionally, the term "fully heterozygous" is not commonly used in genetics.

However, I can provide a general explanation of heterozygosity and recessive traits:

- True: Heterozygosity refers to an individual having different alleles for a particular gene. In this case, if the cross between a wild-type fly (presumably homozygous dominant) and a fly showing three recessive traits (presumably homozygous recessive for those traits) results in an offspring with different alleles at those specific loci, it would be considered heterozygous.

- False: It is not possible to determine if the resulting fly is fully heterozygous or not without more information about the specific traits or genes involved. The level of heterozygosity depends on the number of loci being considered and the specific alleles present at those loci.

To provide a more accurate answer, additional details about the specific traits and alleles would be required.

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5 ml of original solution is placed into a tube with 19.0 ml of diluent. the original solution contained 250 pfu/ml. What is the concentration of this new dilution?____ PFU / mL (enter a number only, use two decimal places)

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The concentration of the new dilution from 5 ml of original solution is placed into a tube with 19.0 ml of diluent and the original solution contained 250 PFU/ml is 52.08 PFU/mL.

To find the concentration of the new dilution, you'll need to use the dilution formula: C1V1 = C2V2, where C1 and V1 represent the original concentration and volume, and C2 and V2 represent the final concentration and volume.

The original solution has a concentration of 250 PFU/mL (C1) and a volume of 5 mL (V1). The diluent has a volume of 19.0 mL. The total volume of the new solution is V1 + V2, or 5 mL + 19.0 mL = 24.0 mL (V2).

Now, you can use the formula to solve for the final concentration (C2):

C1V1 = C2V2

250 PFU/mL × 5 mL = C2 × 24.0 mL

Solving for C2:

C2 = (250 PFU/mL × 5 mL) / 24.0 mL

C2 ≈ 52.08 PFU/mL

So, the concentration of the new dilution is approximately 52.08 PFU/mL.

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Imagine that a new, deadly coronavirus arises and starts a global pandemic. Experts are worried because the disease spreads easily, having a basic reproductive number, Ro, of 5. The good news is that an effective vaccine is quickly developed. What proportion of the population, pc, would need to be vaccinated to ensure that the disease can no longer spread?

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The proportion of the population that would need to be vaccinated to ensure that the disease can no longer spread depends on the vaccine's efficacy and Ro. However, based on a simple model assuming a Ro of 5 and a vaccine efficacy of 90%, approximately 80% of the population would need to be vaccinated to achieve herd immunity and stop the spread of the disease.

The proportion of the population needed to achieve herd immunity depends on several factors, such as the Ro, vaccine efficacy, and population density. Achieving herd immunity is important in preventing the spread of the virus, especially for those who cannot be vaccinated, such as individuals with weakened immune systems. However, achieving high levels of vaccination coverage can be challenging, and public health efforts are needed to promote vaccine uptake and address vaccine hesitancy.

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Tom and Jane were on an expedition in the tropical forest of South America when they dug up a fossil of a rare prehistoric plant. When they researched their find they discovered that the same pant fossil has been found in the farthest regions of Antarctica.


Make an inference and explain what this could mean

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Inference: The presence of the same plant fossil in both South America and Antarctica suggests that these regions were once connected or had a shared environment.

The discovery of a rare prehistoric plant fossil in both South America and Antarctica implies that these regions were geographically connected at some point in the past. This suggests the existence of a land bridge or a similar mechanism that allowed the migration of plant species between these distant locations. It also implies that the environmental conditions in both regions were suitable for the growth and survival of this particular plant species. This finding provides evidence of past geological and climatic changes and helps scientists understand the historical connectivity and evolution of ecosystems across continents.

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Are there any confusing aspects to the fgures or caption above? 2. Te moose population peaked in the mid 1970s and then declined over the next decade. How did the trees at each site respond in the years following the peak? Are the results for these samples surprising given the larger data sets for tree ring-width on the previous page? 3. How should the diference in canopy cover afect growth rates? How will the height of the trees at each site afect their response to changes in primary productivity? Te authors suggest that primary productivity was increasing during the late 1970s and most of the 1980s—does either ring-width index appear to refect that change? 4. Which hypothesis do you feel is best supported by the ring-width chronologies above? 5. What fnal conclusions can you draw about the interactions between each trophic level on Isle Royale? Is control exerted from the top down, as suggested by the trophic cascade model, or are interactions between trophic levels ultimately controlled by primary productivity? 6. Design an experiment that would allow you to clarify any ambiguities from Figures 1 or 2. Why might an experimental approach prove advantageous in this situation?

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The prompt contains several questions related to a set of figures and captions about moose populations and tree growth on Isle Royale.

The questions inquire about the relationships between the moose population and tree growth, the effects of canopy cover and tree height on growth rates, and the support for different hypotheses about the interactions between trophic levels.

The final question asks for a proposed experiment to clarify any ambiguities in the figures. An experimental approach could be advantageous in this situation as it would allow for the control of variables and the establishment of cause-and-effect relationships, which could provide more conclusive evidence to support or refute existing hypotheses.

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fill in the blank. dna replication must start at a replication origin. in eukaryotes the dna molecule that makes up a chromosome is typically ____ and usually has ____ replication origin.

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In eukaryotes, the DNA molecule that makes up a chromosome is typically linear and usually has multiple replication origins.

In eukaryotes, the DNA strands are organized into chromosomes, which are thread-like structures visible during cell division. Chromosomes contain the genetic information necessary for an organism's growth, development, and functioning.

The number and size of chromosomes vary among different species.

Importantly, eukaryotic chromosomes have multiple replication origins along their length. Replication origin refers to the specific DNA sequence at which DNA replication begins.

The presence of multiple origins allows for efficient and timely replication of the entire chromosome during the cell cycle.

During the S phase (synthesis phase) of the cell cycle, when DNA replication occurs, specialized enzymes and proteins bind to the replication origins to initiate the process.

These proteins form a replication complex that unwinds the DNA double helix, separating the two strands. Then, each separated strand serves as a template for the synthesis of a new complementary strand, resulting in the formation of two identical DNA molecules.

The presence of multiple replication origins in eukaryotic chromosomes is advantageous because it allows for parallel and faster replication of DNA. By initiating replication at multiple sites simultaneously, the time required to duplicate the entire genome is significantly reduced.

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. from the perspective of a biologist, evolution is one of the unifying theories , or a widely accepted explanation for how the natural world works. True or False

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True, from the perspective of a biologist, evolution is one of the unifying theories, or a widely accepted explanation for how the natural world works.

Evolution helps explain the diversity of life on Earth and how species have adapted to their environments over time through processes such as natural selection and genetic drift.

Evidence for evolution comes from a variety of sources, including the fossil record, comparative anatomy, molecular biology, and biogeography. The fossil record provides a historical record of the evolution of life on Earth, while comparative anatomy shows how different organisms have adapted to different environments over time. Molecular biology has allowed scientists to study the genetic similarities and differences between organisms, providing further evidence for evolutionary relationships.

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memory b cells have more stringent requirements for activation than naive b cells do.

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Memory B cells are a type of immune cell that develop after an initial infection or vaccination. These cells have the ability to quickly and efficiently respond to a secondary exposure to the same pathogen, resulting in a faster and more effective immune response. However, memory B cells require more stringent requirements for activation compared to naive B cells.


Naive B cells are immune cells that have not yet been exposed to a specific pathogen. When they encounter a pathogen, they differentiate into plasma cells that produce antibodies to fight the infection. Naive B cells require relatively low levels of stimulation to become activated and start producing antibodies.

In contrast, memory B cells require a stronger stimulus to become activated. This is because they have already been exposed to the pathogen and have a higher threshold for activation. The immune system has evolved this mechanism to prevent unnecessary activation of memory B cells, which could result in the production of autoantibodies or the development of autoimmune diseases.

In addition to the stronger stimulus required for activation, memory B cells also have a different receptor expression pattern compared to naive B cells. This means that they require a more specific interaction with the pathogen to become activated. This specificity allows memory B cells to selectively target the pathogen and mount a more effective immune response.

Therefore, memory B cells have more stringent requirements for activation due to their higher activation threshold and more specific receptor expression pattern. These mechanisms ensure that memory B cells are selectively activated and can mount an efficient immune response to secondary exposure to the same pathogen.

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3. Which statement about the mammal fauna native to North and South America is true? a. There are some differences because the two continents were originally part of different "super continents." b. They show some similarities because the Americas, as distinct from Europe, Asia, and Africa, were once part of the same "super continent." c. They show some similarities because the two continents split apart about 6 million years ago. d. They show strong differences because the two continents were never connected.

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The statement that is true about the mammal fauna native to North and South America is a) There are some differences because the two continents were originally part of different "supercontinents."

The supercontinent of Laurasia, which consisted of present-day North America, Europe, and Asia, and the supercontinent of Gondwana, which consisted of present-day South America, Africa, Antarctica, Australia, and the Indian subcontinent, were the two original supercontinents.

When they split apart, the fauna of the two continents evolved separately, leading to some differences in their mammal fauna.

For instance, South America was isolated from the rest of the world for millions of years, which allowed unique species such as llamas, alpacas, and armadillos to evolve.

In contrast, North America was connected to Asia via the Bering Land Bridge, which allowed for the exchange of species such as horses, camels, and wolves.

Therefore, there are some differences between the mammal fauna native to North and South America due to their origins in different supercontinents. The correct answer in A.

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One of the functions of a centromere is to contribute to proper chromosome segregation. the other function is to:_______

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The other function of a centromere is to act as a binding site for kinetochore proteins.

Kinetochore proteins are essential for the attachment of spindle fibers to the chromosomes during cell division. The spindle fibers are responsible for

separating the chromosomes and ensuring that each new cell receives the correct number of chromosomes. Without proper attachment to the kinetochore proteins at the centromere,

the chromosomes may not be evenly distributed between the daughter cells, leading to genetic abnormalities and potential disease.

Therefore, the function of the centromere in proper chromosome segregation is critical for maintaining the stability and health of the organism.

In summary, the centromere is responsible for both contributing to proper chromosome segregation and acting as a binding site for kinetochore proteins during cell division.

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(a) If 3. 2 g of O2(g) is consumed in the reaction with excess NO(g), how many moles of NO2(g) are produced?

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When 3.2 g of O2(g) is consumed in the reaction with excess NO(g), it will produce 0.2 moles of NO2(g).

To find the number of moles of NO2(g) produced, we first calculate the number of moles of O2(g) consumed by dividing the given mass of O2(g) (3.2 g) by its molar mass (32 g/mol). This gives us 0.1 mol of O2(g). Since the balanced equation shows a 1:2 ratio between O2(g) and NO2(g), we multiply the number of moles of O2(g) by 2 to find the number of moles of NO2(g). Therefore, 0.2 moles of NO2(g) are produced in the reaction.

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if each of these radioactive decays occurred inside the body which would cause the most damage to human tissue?

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The decay that would cause the most damage to human tissue if it occurred inside the body is alpha decay.

Alpha decay involves the emission of a helium nucleus, which consists of two protons and two neutrons. This type of decay releases a high amount of energy, and the helium nucleus travels only a short distance before colliding with nearby atoms. This results in ionization and damage to the tissue surrounding the decay site.

In contrast, beta decay involves the emission of an electron or positron, which have a much lower mass and energy than an alpha particle. Gamma decay involves the emission of high-energy photons, which can penetrate deep into the body, but they do not ionize atoms as readily as alpha particles.

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The average amount of adipose tissue the body maintains at physiological homeostasis is known as the
A-adipose energy balance.
B- BMI.
C-set point.

Answers

The average amount of adipose tissue the body maintains at physiological homeostasis is known as the set point. The correct option is C.

The set point refers to a stable weight range that the body tries to maintain through regulatory mechanisms in order to achieve optimal functioning. This weight range is influenced by genetics, environmental factors, and individual lifestyle choices.

Adipose tissue is essential for energy storage, insulation, and cushioning of internal organs. The body regulates the amount of adipose tissue through a complex system involving hormones, metabolism, and neurological signals. When the body detects changes in adipose tissue levels, it adjusts physiological processes, such as appetite and energy expenditure, to maintain the set point.

It is important to distinguish the set point from the other terms mentioned. A-adipose energy balance refers to the equilibrium between energy intake and energy expenditure, which can impact the amount of adipose tissue. B-BMI, or Body Mass Index, is a widely used metric for estimating body fat based on an individual's height and weight, but it does not directly measure adipose tissue or account for variations in body composition.

In summary, the set point represents the body's natural tendency to maintain a stable amount of adipose tissue, promoting physiological homeostasis and overall health. This concept is crucial for understanding weight regulation and the complex interplay between energy balance and body composition.

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Sickle-cell is a recessive disease that afflicts approximately 1/12. The frequency of ss homozygotes is 0.09. what is the frequency of Ss carriers in this population? 2pq = 2(0.09)(0.91) = 0.082 1 - q2 = 1 -0.09 -0.91 1 -4 = 0.7 2pq = 2(0.7)(0.3) - 0.42

Answers

The frequency of ss homozygotes in the population is given as 0.09, which means that the frequency of the recessive allele (s) can be calculated using the square root of 0.09, which is 0.3.

To calculate the frequency of Ss carriers in the population, we can use the Hardy-Weinberg equation, which states that the frequency of heterozygotes (Ss) is equal to 2pq, where p is the frequency of the dominant allele (S) and q is the frequency of the recessive allele (s).

So, we can calculate the frequency of Ss carriers as follows:

2pq = 2 x 0.3 x 0.7 = 0.42

Therefore, the frequency of Ss carriers in this population is 0.42 or 42%.

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The process of spermiogenesis produces O secondary spermatocytes. O primary spermatocytes. O spermatids. spermatogonia. O spermatozoa. A Moving to another question will save this response. L A Moving to another question will save this response.

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The process of spermiogenesis produces e. spermatozoa

This complex process occurs within the male reproductive system and is an essential part of spermatogenesis, which is the overall process of producing sperm. Spermiogenesis involves the transformation of spermatids, which are the immature male gametes, into fully mature and functional spermatozoa. Spermiogenesis consists of several crucial stages, including the elongation and condensation of the spermatid nucleus, the formation of the acrosome, the development of the flagellum, and the shedding of unnecessary cytoplasm.

The acrosome, a specialized organelle, helps the sperm to penetrate and fertilize the egg during the process of reproduction, the flagellum, or tail, provides the spermatozoa with the necessary motility to navigate towards the egg. Throughout spermatogenesis, different cell types are formed, such as spermatogonia, primary spermatocytes, and secondary spermatocytes. However, spermiogenesis specifically refers to the final stage in which spermatids transform into spermatozoa, these spermatozoa are then released into the epididymis for storage and maturation, where they become capable of fertilizing an egg during reproduction. So therefore the process of spermiogenesis produces e. spermatozoa, also known as mature sperm cells.

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what term is used to describe a signaling molecule?

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The term used to describe a signaling molecule is "ligand." Ligands are molecules that bind to specific receptors, initiating a cellular response.

They can be hormones, neurotransmitters, growth factors, or other chemical messengers. Ligands play a crucial role in intercellular communication and coordination within organisms. When a ligand binds to its receptor on a target cell, it triggers a signaling cascade, leading to various cellular responses such as gene expression, enzyme activation, or ion channel opening. The binding of ligands to receptors is highly specific, ensuring that the signaling molecule activates only the appropriate target cells. This specificity allows for precise and coordinated cellular responses, regulating processes like development, metabolism, immune response, and neurotransmission. Overall, ligands are essential for maintaining homeostasis and proper functioning of biological systems.

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Antlion larvae and orchid mantis' are examples of what kind of predator?
Pursuit
Ambush
Visual
Specialist

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Antlion larvae and orchid mantis' are examples of ambush predators. Ambush predators are those that wait for their prey to come close enough before they make their move. Antlion larvae are known to create conical pits in sandy soil and wait for ants or other small insects to fall in before they strike. Orchid mantis', on the other hand, use their appearance to blend in with flowers and wait for unsuspecting insects to come close before they catch them.

This type of predation strategy is different from pursuit predators, which actively chase their prey, and visual predators, which rely on keen eyesight to hunt. Ambush predators are specialists in their environment, using their surroundings and physical attributes to catch their prey.

Ambush predators rely on stealth and camouflage to surprise their prey, rather than actively pursuing them like pursuit predators. Both antlion larvae and orchid mantises use their appearances to blend in with their surroundings and remain hidden until their prey comes within striking distance, allowing them to capture their prey effectively.

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how are sirnas and micrornas synthesized? describe the differences between their modes of biosynthesis

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While both siRNAs and miRNAs are involved in RNA interference pathways, they differ in their modes of biosynthesis, with siRNAs being generated from exogenous double-stranded RNA and miRNAs being transcribed from endogenous genes and processed into mature forms.

Both siRNAs and miRNAs are small, non-coding RNA molecules that play important roles in post-transcriptional gene regulation. However, they are synthesized through different pathways.

siRNAs are typically generated through the cleavage of long double-stranded RNA molecules by an enzyme called Dicer. The resulting siRNAs are then loaded into the RNA-induced silencing complex (RISC), where they can guide the degradation of complementary target mRNAs.

miRNAs, on the other hand, are transcribed from genes as long primary transcripts that are then processed by the enzymes Drosha and Dicer to generate mature miRNAs. These mature miRNAs are then loaded into the RISC, where they can bind to target mRNAs and inhibit their translation.

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Describe briefly how gel electrophoresis was used to determine whether our transgene was amplified through PCR

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Gel electrophoresis is a commonly used laboratory technique that separates molecules based on their size and charge using an electric field and a porous gel matrix. To determine whether a transgene was amplified through PCR (polymerase chain reaction), the following steps might be taken:

Prepare a gel: Agarose gel is commonly used in gel electrophoresis. It is mixed with a buffer solution and heated until it dissolves, and then allowed to cool and solidify in a casting tray.

Prepare the sample: The PCR product is mixed with a loading buffer containing a tracking dye and loading buffer agents that add density to the sample and help it sink into the wells of the gel.

Load the sample: The sample is loaded into a well at one end of the gel, and a standard marker is loaded into a well at the other end. The marker contains DNA fragments of known sizes that serve as a reference for the size of the PCR product.

Apply electric field: The gel is submerged in a buffer solution that conducts electricity, and an electric field is applied across the gel, causing the DNA molecules to migrate through the gel matrix.

Visualize the results: After electrophoresis is complete, the gel is stained with a DNA-binding dye, and the bands are visualized under ultraviolet light. If the PCR product was successfully amplified, a band of the expected size will be visible in the gel.

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Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is a powerful tool in molecular biology that is used to amplify a particular DNA sequence. If a PCR reaction initially contains 1 double-stranded DNA copy of the sequence of interest, how many copies of double-stranded DNA will be generated after 13 cycles? Assume perfect doubling occurs in each cycle.

Answers

The original single copy of the DNA sequence of interest would be amplified to 8192 copies after 13 cycles.


Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is a widely used molecular biology technique that enables the amplification of specific DNA sequences. The technique works by using a heat-stable DNA polymerase enzyme to repeatedly replicate a double-stranded DNA template in a test tube. In each cycle, the DNA is denatured to single-stranded form, then primers anneal to specific sites on the template, and finally, the polymerase extends the primers to synthesize new strands of DNA.
Assuming perfect doubling of the DNA in each cycle, the number of double-stranded DNA copies after 13 cycles can be calculated by using the formula 2^13, which equals 8192. Therefore, the original single copy of the DNA sequence of interest would be amplified to 8192 copies after 13 cycles. This exponential amplification of DNA by PCR has revolutionized the field of molecular biology, allowing scientists to detect small amounts of DNA, identify genetic mutations, and study gene expression. PCR has countless applications in research, medicine, forensics, and biotechnology, making it a powerful tool in the field of molecular biology.

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True/fase : type i topoisomerases are only found in prokaryotes.

Answers

False.

Type I topoisomerases are found in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes. These enzymes play a crucial role in DNA topology by introducing reversible single-strand breaks in the DNA helix, allowing for the relaxation of supercoiled DNA.

Type I topoisomerases are classified based on their mechanism of action, where Type I enzymes cleave one strand of the DNA double helix, pass the intact strand through the break, and then reseal the break.

While it is true that prokaryotes have Type I topoisomerases, eukaryotes also possess these enzymes. In eukaryotic cells, Type I topoisomerases are involved in various DNA processes, including DNA replication, transcription, and chromatin remodeling. Examples of Type I topoisomerases in eukaryotes include human topoisomerase I and yeast topoisomerase I.

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which chain restaurant once operated its own airline?

Answers

The chain restaurant that once operated its own airline was McDonald's. In the 1990s, they started a subsidiary called McDonald's Air, which offered flights to destinations such as Chicago, Dallas, and Denver. However, the venture was short-lived and ended in 1994 due to financial difficulties.

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treatment of the dna sequence 5’-atggatcctaagctttagagc-3’ with hind iii, ecori, and bamhi will produce how many dna fragments?

Answers

The treatment of the DNA sequence 5’-ATGGATCCTAAGCTTTAGAGC-3’ with the restriction enzymes HindIII, EcoRI, and BamHI will produce 3 DNA fragments.

The DNA sequence 5’-ATGGATCCTAAGCTTTAGAGC-3’ has the recognition sites for three different restriction enzymes: HindIII, EcoRI, and BamHI.

The recognition site for HindIII is AAGCTT, which appears only once in the sequence at position 12-17 (counting from the 5' end). When HindIII cleaves the DNA, it cuts between the two A residues in the site, producing two fragments: one of 6 nucleotides (5’-ATGGAT-3’) and the other of 15 nucleotides (5’-CCTAAGCTTTAGAGC-3’).

The recognition site for EcoRI is GAATTC, which appears only once in the sequence at position 6-11 (counting from the 5' end). When EcoRI cleaves the DNA, it cuts between the two G residues in the site, producing two fragments: one of 5 nucleotides (5’-ATGGA-3’) and the other of 18 nucleotides (5’-TCCTAAGCTTTAGAGC-3’).

The recognition site for BamHI is GGATCC, which appears only once in the sequence at position 2-7 (counting from the 5' end). When BamHI cleaves the DNA, it cuts between the two G residues in the site, producing two fragments: one of 10 nucleotides (5’-ATGGATCCTA-3’) and the other of 13 nucleotides (5’-GCTTTAGAGC-3’).

Therefore, the treatment of the DNA sequence 5’-ATGGATCCTAAGCTTTAGAGC-3’ with HindIII, EcoRI, and BamHI will produce 3 DNA fragments: 5’-ATGGA-3’, 5’-ATGGAT-3’, and 5’-TCCTAAGCTTTAGAGC-3’.

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Due to decreased light penetration, which area of rivers and streams will have less diversity of plant life? a. The source b. The mouth c. The middle portion d. None of the above Please select the best answer from the choices provided A B C D.

Answers

Rivers and streams will have less diversity of plant life The best answer is c. The middle portion.

In rivers and streams, light penetration decreases as you move deeper into the water. The source (uppermost part) of the river or stream typically receives the most sunlight, allowing for a greater diversity of plant life. The mouth (where the river or stream meets a larger body of water) may also have sufficient light for plant growth. However, the middle portion of rivers and streams, which is deeper and receives less direct sunlight, will have reduced light availability. This limited light penetration restricts the diversity of plant life in this region compared to the source and the mouth. Therefore, option c, the middle portion, is the most accurate choice.

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___ Which element in the body can be replaced by lead?
(a) Calcium
(b) Iron
(c) Sodium

Answers

None. Lead can't replace any element in the body.


Lead is a toxic metal that can interfere with various processes in the body, including those involving calcium, iron, and sodium.

However, lead cannot replace any of these elements in the body because it does not possess similar chemical properties.

Calcium is essential for bone health, muscle contraction, and nerve function. Iron is needed to make hemoglobin, a protein in red blood cells that carries oxygen.

Sodium helps maintain fluid balance, blood pressure, and nerve function.

Lead can displace calcium and iron from their normal binding sites, leading to a host of health problems, but it cannot take their place in the body.

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Describe the processes associated with the respiratory system.

Answers

The respiratory system consists of various processes that help in the exchange of gases, primarily oxygen and carbon dioxide. These processes include ventilation, gas exchange, and gas transport.

1. Ventilation: This is the process of inhaling and exhaling air. During inhalation, the diaphragm and intercostal muscles contract, expanding the chest cavity and lowering air pressure in the lungs, causing air to flow in. In exhalation, these muscles relax, reducing the chest cavity volume and increasing air pressure in the lungs, forcing air out.

2. Gas exchange: This occurs in the alveoli, small air sacs in the lungs where oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged between the bloodstream and the inhaled air. Oxygen diffuses from the air into the blood, while carbon dioxide diffuses from the blood into the air.

3. Gas transport: Oxygen-rich blood is transported from the lungs to the body's cells via the circulatory system. Hemoglobin in red blood cells binds with oxygen, carrying it to tissues and organs. Carbon dioxide, a waste product of cellular respiration, is transported back to the lungs to be exhaled.

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