Drag each label into the proper position in order to identify the outcome of each condition on blood calclum. calcium absorption by the Parathyroid Living at a Northem latitude Increased use of sunblock Increased bone resorption Increased urinary excretion of phosphate Increased calcium reabsorption from the kidneys Osteoblastic activity Inhibition of Calcitonin activity Increases blood calcium Decreases blood calcium

Answers

Answer 1

Quantity of calcium in blood is determined via blood test. Too much or too little calcium in the blood may be a symptom of a variety of illnesses, kidney disease, thyroid disease, parathyroid abnormalities, bone disease.

Increases blood calcium

calcium absorption by the ParathyroidIncreased calcium reabsorption from the kidneysIncreased bone resorptionIncreased urinary excretion of phosphate

Decreases blood calcium

Living at a Northern latitudeIncreased use of sunblockOsteoblastic activityInhibition of Calcitonin activity

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Related Questions

The bicoid gene product is directly responsible for _____ in a developing drosophila embryo.

Answers

Answer: the establishment of the anterior-posterior axis.

Explanation: The bicoid gene product is directly responsible for the establishment of the anterior-posterior axis in a developing drosophila embryo.

The Drosophila gene bicoid functions as the anterior body pattern organizer of Drosophila. Lacking maternally expressed bicoid, embryos fail to develop anterior segments, including the head and thorax.

Anteriorly, the Bicoid protein activates the transcription of hunchback genes, while posteriorly, the Nanos protein inhibits hunchback RNA translation.

If there is no bicoid gene present during the development of drosophila embryo then the embryo dies.

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What are the 3 main tools in genetic engineering?.

Answers

On the premise of these functions, the following vectors are beneficial at some point in genetic engineering.

Plasmid as vector.

Bacteriophages as vectors.

Cosmid as vector.

Genetic engineering (also called genetic modification) is a technique that makes use of laboratory-based technology to modify the DNA makeup of an organism. this will contain changing a single base pair (A-T or C-G), deleting a place of DNA, or including a brand new phase of DNA.

Gene remedy seeks to modify genes to correct genetic defects and as a consequence prevent or cure genetic illnesses. Genetic engineering pursuits to regulate the genes to beautify the skills of the organism beyond what's regular.

GM is a technology that includes putting DNA into the genome of an organism. to provide a GM plant, new DNA is transferred into plant cells. typically, the cells are then grown in tissue culture in which they grow to be plant life. The seeds produced by using that vegetation will inherit the brand-new DNA.

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Which hypothesis suggests that ancestral vertebrates may have evolved from urochordate larvae?.

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According to Garstang's Auricularia hypothesis, early vertebrates might have descended from urochordate larvae.

By highlighting the significance of alterations in larval forms, Garstang's Auricularia theory aimed to explain how the chordate body plan arose from a deuterostome common ancestor. According to this theory, the original chordate was a sedentary filter feeder like adult ascidian tunicates. The swimming larva did not mature into an adult, sessile tunicate; instead, it developed gonads and reproduced while still in the larval stage. This concept can now be evaluated because of new genetic and developmental evidence, although the majority of zoologists still believe that the ancestor chordate was a free-swimming animal.

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which of the following is true? the harmful effects of environmental tobacco smoke are frequently not immediate. infants exposed to environmental tobacco smoke are more likely to die of sudden infant death syndrome. the u.s. surgeon general has concluded that environmental tobacco smoke in low or moderate levels is safe. adequate ventilation is sufficient to protect people from environmental tobacco smoke.

Answers

Smoking in the environment increases the risk of sudden infant death syndrome in infants.

Smoking causes cancer, heart disease, stroke, lung illnesses, diabetes, and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), which includes emphysema and chronic bronchitis. Additionally, smoking raises a person's risk of developing tuberculosis, a few eye conditions, and immune system issues, such as rheumatoid arthritis.

We discovered that smokers had a smaller cerebral cortex than non-smokers, indicating that smoking was robbing smokers of their grey matter. This is significant because the cerebral cortex, a region of the brain that is essential for thinking abilities such as memory and learning, is thicker.

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what phase 1 reaction is mainly performed by the cytochrome p450 enzymes also called mixed-function enzymes? group of answer choices hydrolysis

Answers

The phase 1 reaction that's mainly performed by the cytochrome p450 enzymes, also called mixed-function enzymes, is oxidation.

Phase 1 metabolism has the main purpose to convert hydrophobic compounds into more reactive groups so they can be excreted out easier. There are three reactions that take place in this phase:

OxidationReductionHydrolysis

The oxidation reaction is usually carried out by the cytochrome P450 enzyme system. These enzymes are located in the endoplasmic reticulum of the liver tissue. They are members of the monooxygenases family that catalyze the initial step in biotransformation and elimination of various drugs and environmental pollutants.

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a four-limbed, land-dwelling vertebrate is generally known as a(n) blank.target 1 of 6 2. a group of animals called blank have several adaptations for living on land but must return to the water to breed.target 2 of 6 3. adaptations that evolved in

Answers

Tetrapod is a four-limbed, land-dwelling vertebrate and amphibians  are animals having several adaptations for living in water and in land.

What are amphibians and their adaptations?

Some amphibians have developed the ability to only exist in watery environments. Many aquatic species have gills that enable them to breathe in water, and many aquatic species spend the majority or all of their lives in the water.

Amphibians include salamanders, toads, frogs, and toads. Amphibians have life cycles that involve both land and water time. They lack scales because their skin must keep moist to absorb oxygen.. Reptiles have only lungs, not gills like amphibians do, and their scaly, dry skin prevents them from The  collective term for reptiles and amphibians is herpetofauna, or "herps." All herps lack an internal thermostat because they are "cold-blooded." Instead, individuals are forced to control body temperature through their interactions with the outside world. For instance, a lizard may regulate its body temperature via "shuttling" actions, such as going in and out of shelter, and a turtle can warm itself by basking in the sun, and a tail resembling a paddle are three well-known examples of aquatic adaptations.

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what effect will this mutation have on the process of transcription when the bacteria are raised at elevated temperatures?

Answers

In the absence of RNA polymerase, the bacteria won't be able to transcribe at these temperatures.

As soon as mRNA is transcribed in bacteria, it is translated into protein. In contrast to eukaryotic cells, bacteria lack a distinct nucleus that divides DNA from ribosomes, removing a barrier to translation. All of the genes in prokaryotes are transcribed by the same RNA polymerase. Two of the five polypeptide subunits that make up the polymerase in E. coli are identical. The polymerase core enzyme is made up of four of these subunits, identified by the letters,,, and ′. Every time a gene is transcribed, these subunits assemble; once transcription is finished, they disassemble. Each component plays a distinct role.

Hence, RNA polymerase carries out the transcription.

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the probability of genotypes in an independently assorted dihybrid cross is based on a probabilities of:
a) the parent's genotypes
b) two monohybrid crosses
c) mutually exclusive events

Answers

The probability of genotypes in an independently assorted dihybrid cross is based on a probabilities of two monohybrid crosses.

What is a genotypes?

An organism's genotype is made up of all of its genetic components. The alleles or variations that an individual carries in a specific gene or genetic region are also referred to as the genotype.

What is monohybrid crosses?

A monohybrid cross is made up of two organisms that have distinct variants at the same genetic locus. In a monohybrid cross, two or more variations for a single gene site control the trait under study.

Hence, The probability of genotypes in an independently assorted dihybrid cross is based on a probabilities of two monohybrid crosses.

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What did Snowball represent in Animal Farm?.

Answers

Snowball represents Leon Trotsky.

Trotsky was the head of the Red Army, a political theorist, and a revolutionary. He took part in the development of Russian foreign policy after the Revolution. He disagreed with Stalin's policies, which ultimately led to his expulsion from the Soviet Union in 1929.

The animal that understands old Major's philosophy the best is Snowball, who devotes his time to improving the animals' minds, morals, and bodies. He introduces literacy to the farm so that the animals can read the Seven Commandments he has painted on the barn wall and better understand the principles of Animalism.

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Flower color in snapdragons is determined to some extent by a pair of alleles that show incomplete dominance: red, pink and white, with pink being the heterozygous class. Flower shape, mushroom versus normal, is determined by an independently assorting gene where normal is completely dominant to mushroom. Two pink snapdragons with normal flowers were crossed and produced among 1600 total, 100 white mushroom-flowered offspring. What other types of offspring and how many of each are expected from this cross

Answers

After crossing 100 white, mushroom-flowered kids with 100 pink, regular flowering offspring, the F1 offspring were all white.

What is the likelihood that the cross's progeny will bear white flowers?

The white-flower phenotype can only be inherited through the bb genotype. As a result, with this cross, you would anticipate that three of the four (75%) progeny will have purple flowers and one of the four (25%) would have white flowers. Mendel obtained the same percentages in his initial experiment.

In a cross between two pink-flowered parents, what are the predicted ratios of red, pink, and white flowers?

This will result in 1/4 WW (white), 1/2 RW (pink), and 1/4 RR (red) offspring. Consequently, we expect to see 1 red, 2 pink, and 1 white flower in that order.

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in the lungs, the concentration gradient of o2 is much steeper between alveolar air and the blood than it is for co2. why is this important?

Answers

In the lungs , the concentration gradient of o2 is much steeper between alveolar air and the blood than it is for co2 . It is important for the faster rate of diffusion .
How concentration gradient system works ?
Concentration gradient system works on the principle that gas present in higher concentration always starts diffusing towards lower concentration region .

During inhalation process , there is greater concentration of o2 in the air in alveoli than there is in the blood in the pulmonary capillaries , which results in the diffusion of o2 from the air inside the alveoli into the blood in the capillaries .
Co2 , on the other hand , is more concentrated in the blood in the pulmonary  than it is in the air inside the alveoli , which initiates the process of flow .

Hence, for the diffusion of gases in the lungs , it is important .

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genes found in the same organism and that arose by duplication of a single gene in the evolutionary past are called

Answers

Genes found in the same organism and that arose by duplication of a single gene in the evolutionary past are called paralogs.

Numerous processes have been put forth by scientists over time to explain how new genes are produced. These include de novo origination, lateral gene transfer, gene fusion, gene fission, and domestication of transposable element proteins. All living things duplication their DNA. They can cause genetic illnesses in people, although they are very prevalent in plants. In the evolution of the genomes of humans and other creatures, duplication have played a significant role.

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a cell biologist examines a diploid cell from a kangaroo during prometaphase of mitosis and determines that 32 chromatids are present. the role of fertilization in this animal is to (check all that apply)

Answers

The role of fertilization in kangaroo which contains 32 chromatids during prometaphase of mitosis will be:

(3) Increase the number of chromosomes per cell from 8 to 16.

(4) Combine the chromosomes from 2 haploid cells into a single diploid cell.

Mitosis is the type of cell division where the parent cell divides into two daughter cell and the number of chromosomes remain in the same. This is the reason why it is also called equational division. All the somatic cells, undergo mitosis.

Chromosomes are the compact form of genetic material. The chromosome is comprised of DNA and histone proteins. The structure of chromosome is comprised of two sister chromatids.

The given question is incomplete, the complete question is:

A cell biologist examines a diploid cell from a kangaroo during prometaphase of mitosis and determines that 32 chromatids are present. the role of fertilization in this animal is to (check all that apply).

Produce a new cell that has a combination of chromosomes from 2 different parentsIncrease the number of chromosomes per cell from 16 to 32Increase the number of chromosomes per cell from 8 to 16Combine the chromosomes from 2 haploid cells into a single diploid cell

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What proteins are synthesized in mitochondria?.

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Within the mitochondrion, mitochondrial ribosomes, small complexes of RNA and protein that translate mitochondrial RNA into proteins, are formed. Another important protein produced within the mitochondrion is ATP synthase, a component of the protein complex that produces ATP.

Mitochondria are membrane-bound cell organelles that produce the majority of the chemical energy required to power the cell's biochemical reactions (mitochondrion, singular). The mitochondrial energy is stored in a small molecule known as adenosine triphosphate (ATP).

Because it powers metabolic processes, ATP, a complex organic chemical found in all forms of life, is often referred to as the molecular unit of currency. The mitochondria, also known as the "powerhouses of the cell," produce the energy required for the cell's survival and function.

As the power plants in nearly every human cell (as well as animal, plant, and fungi cells), mitochondria are critical in producing energy to power cellular function and, by extension, all of our biological processes.

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true or false: bone is a metabolically active structure that continuously goes through rounds of resorption and calscification till the age of 22.

Answers

Bone is a metabolically active tissue that throughout life undergoes constant re-modelling.

How did this occur?

Bone resorption can be defined as the process by which the bones are absorbed and broken down by the body. Osteoclast cells are responsible for the breakdown of bone minerals thus releasing calcium and phosphorous.Bone density tends to stay stable with equal amounts of bone formation and bone breakdown from about 25-30 years. After age 50, bone breakdown (resorption) outpaces bone formation and bone loss often accelerates.The resorption period has a  duration of 30–40 days which is then followed by bone formation over a period of 150 days .

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which of the following statements best describes homologous chromosomes?
They align on the metaphase plate in meiosis Il.
They were inherited from the same parent.
They carry information for the same traits
They carry the same alleles.

Answers

The homologous chromosomes are those chromosomes which carries the information for the same traits in the DNA. Thus, the correct option is C.

What are Homologous chromosomes?

The pairs of chromosomes that contains the genetic maternal as well as the paternal chromatid of the same length and genetic position, and are joined through the centromere is referred to as the homologous chromosome.

The homologous chromosomes are present in the nucleus of the organism's gamete which pairs up during meiosis. This event is crucial to promote variation in the genetic material. The homologous chromosome pair exchanges genes via genetic recombination or crossing-over so that genetic diversity may be promoted in the species.

Therefore, the correct option is C.

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a zedonk is a diploid hybrid animal produced from a cross between a zebra and donkey. a donkey has 62 chromosomes and a zebra has between 32 and 46 chromosomes depending on the species. zedonks usually have 54 chromosomes. zedonks are .'

Answers

Typically, zedonks have 54 chromosomes. There are allodiploid zedonks.

A zeedonk has how many chromosomes?

Hybrid organisms with an odd number of chromosomes are the simple cause of sterility. Combining a plains zebra (which has 44 chromosomes) and a donkey will result in a zonkey (62 chromosomes). The offspring has 53 chromosomes as a result.

Another type of polyploidy is allopolyploidy, in which organisms have three or more sets of chromosomes that have different species-specific origins. Allopolyploid organisms have genomes from various species because the prefix allo means "different." Autopolyploidy is less frequent than allopolyploidy, especially in plants.

Allopolyploidy. Polyploids with chromosomes derived from two or more diverged taxa are known as allopolyploids, amphipolyploids,

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which of the following is not a result of parasympathetic stimulation? group of answer choices increased vasoconstriction of most blood vessels increased peristalsis (activity) of the digestive viscera constriction of the pupils assists in salivation (producing and releasing saliva)

Answers

The parasympathetic nerve systems are stimulated, and this causes the pupils to form. lower blood pressure and heart rate. So, "Dilation of pupil" is the appropriate response.

The parasympathetic nerve system speeds up digestion while slowing down breathing and heart rate. The condition known as dilated pupils (mydriasis) occurs when the eye's dark center is larger than usual. The syndrome may be brought on by dilating eye drops used during an eye checkup, undesirable drug/medication side effects, or physical damage. Although unusual pupil dilation may be the result of a medical condition, it is common for pupils to naturally dilate in response to changes in light and emotional events. The pupils—the dark circles in the middle of your eyes—are bigger than usual if your pupils are dilated. Usually, the size of the pupils in each eye is the same.

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A cell in metaphase would have which of the following characteristics?

Definition
Sister chromatids are present
Condensed chromosomes
Spindle fibers attached to kintechores
Chromosomes aligned along the cell equator

Answers

During Metaphase stage of cell division, the chromosomes are aligned along the cell equator which is also known as metaplate. Thus, the correct option is D.

What is Metaphase?

Cell cycle is defined as the series of events which occur during the life cycle of a cell. In this cycle, the major portion is of interphase while the minor portion is the time where the actual cell division (M-phase) takes place.

Karyokinesis is the division of nucleus. Metaphase is the second stage of karyokinesis. Metaphase is a stage during the process of cell division such as mitosis or meiosis. Normally, individual chromosomes are spread out in the cell nucleus. During the metaphase stage, nucleus dissolves and the cell's chromosomes condense together and move together, aligning in the center of the dividing cell on the equator.

Therefore, the correct option is D.

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The hiv virus attacks only a certain type of white blood cells, and not other cell types. Why?.

Answers

Due to the absence of HIV receptors on other cell types, the HIV virus only affects a specific subset of white blood cells.

How do white blood cells react to HIV?

The CD4 cells in white blood are where HIV is found. HIV replicates itself once it enters the CD4 cell. The CD4 cell is then killed by HIV, and the new HIV copies seek out additional CD4 cells to infect and re-start the cycle. Immune system cells that aid the body in battling infections and diseases are killed by HIV.

An essential component of the immune system are white blood cells. A subset of white blood cells known as CD4+ cells are infected by HIV and destroyed. The body can no longer fight off infection if too many CD4+ cells are lost.

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What are the 4 main digestive enzymes?.

Answers

The  4 main digestive enzymes are

Amylase : This is synthesized in the mouth and pancreas. It used to breaks down complex carbohydrates.

Lipase : This is synthesized in the pancreas. It is used to breaks down fats.

Protease : This is synthesized in the pancreas. It is used to  breaks down proteins.

Sucrase : This is synthesized in the pancreas. It is used to breaks down sucrose.

Enzymes are biological polymers that catalyze biochemical reactions, according to this definition. In the body, enzymes trigger chemical processes. Enzymes are involved in digestion, muscular growth, and the breakdown of food particles. Enzymes actually speed up chemical reactions that support life. Important bodily processes are carried out with the aid of enzymes.

Hence, the main digestive enzymes are catalyze biochemical reactions.

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imagine that one egg cell unites with one sperm cell at fertiliszation nine months later twin brothers are born select all of the true statements

Answers

If one egg cell unites with one sperm cell at fertilization nine months later twin brothers are born, the brothers received their identical DNA from the mother.

One egg cell unites with one sperm cell at fertilization nine months later twin brothers are born.

There are two types of twins. In one example, dizygotic twins. It can occur when two of her eggs are present in the mother's body at the same time and both are fertilized. Each will grow into their own baby. Any baby that grows out of it will not have the same her DNA. This is because each egg and sperm does not have the same DNA. They are basically like other siblings, but were born at the same time.On the other hand, another type of twins is called identical twins. There is only one egg and only one sperm can fertilize it. A fertilized egg usually divides into a baby. However, once fertilized and division begins, the eggs can fall apart. After falling apart, each half begins to split and grow into a baby. And since these two babies came from the same fertilized egg, they have the same DNA. Dizygotic twins each have their own DNA, but identical twins share the same DNA.

Even if identical twins have exactly the same DNA, they are not exactly identical. So mothers can tell identical twin babies apart. However, identical ones have the same genotype. In any case, they are born from the same fertilized egg. Furthermore, DNA is basically like a guide for building something, so even though identical twins aren't exactly identical, the way their bodies are built is random. is able to have an identifiable fingerprint. Another important factor in why identical twins are not exactly identical is the environment in which they were raised. In other words, in basic biology, it is said that identical twins have the same DNA.

Your question is incomplete, but most probably your full question was

Imagine that one egg cell unites with one sperm cell at fertilization nine months later twin brothers are born select all of the true statements

the brothers received identical DNA from the motherthe brothers DNA not necesarilly  more similar than two brothers born years apartthe brothers received identical DNA from the father

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What are the 3 types of substitution mutations?.

Answers

Base substitutions, deletions, and insertions are the three different forms of DNA mutations.

A mutation is a long-lasting alteration to the DNA's nucleotide sequence that can occur during replication and/or recombination. Damaged DNA can change by base pair replacement, deletion, or insertion. The majority of the time, mutations are benign, unless they result in tumor growth or cell death. Cells have developed systems for repairing damaged DNA due to the deadly potential of DNA mutations.

Different Mutations

Base substitutions, deletions, and insertions are the three different forms of DNA mutations.

1. Base Replacements

Point mutations are single nucleotide replacements; you may recall the point mutation Glu ——-> Val is the culprit of sickle cell anemia. There are two types of point mutations, the most prevalent of which are.

Transition and Transversion.

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What are the major qualities of political parties?.

Answers

Characteristics or major qualites of a political party are- A political party has members who agree on some policies and programmes for the society.

Political party acts as a link between public and the government. Characteristics or major qualites of a political party are- A political party has members who agree on some policies and programmes for the society. With a view to promoting the common good. They pursue special ideology. It seeks to implement the policies by winning popular support, achieved through elections. Leader and party workers come together to contest and conduct elections and hold power in the government for well being of the public. The parties which do not get majority, they don't win the election and act as opposition parties.

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What does somatic mean ?.

Answers

relating to the body, especially as distinct from the mind.

when the protein gramicidin is integrated into a membrane, an h channel forms and the membrane becomes very permeable to protons ( h ions). if gramicidin is added to an actively respiring muscle cell, how would it affect the various processes involved in cellular respiration and oxidative phosphorylation? (assume that gramicidin does not affect the production of nadh and fadh2 during the early stages of cellular respiration.) sort the labels into the correct bin according to the effect that gramicidin would have on each process.

Answers

A membrane produces an H+ channel when the protein gramicidin is incorporated into it, making the membrane highly permeable to protons (H+ ions).

Gramicidin is an antibiotic, right?

Gramicidin is a polypeptide antibiotic that, like nystatin, creates tiny pores in cell membranes but only permits the transport of monovalent cations while blocking anions. The cation selectivity sequence of gramicidin in lipid bilayers and cell membranes is identical.

When does phosphorylation take place and what is it?

Normally, DNA damage results in phosphorylation, which creates space surrounding broken DNA so that repair mechanisms can function.

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After Mendel's work, biologist determined that a chromosome carries
a) only two genes
b) many genes
c) a single gene
d) many alleles for one gene

Answers

Answer: b) many genes

Explanation:

What are the 4 steps to cellular respiration?.

Answers

The four steps of cellular respiration are glycolysis, pyruvate oxidation, Krebs cycle and oxidative phosphorylation.

Glycolysis is the first step wherein the six carbon molecule called glucose undergoes a series of chemical transformations. At the end of this step, it gets converted into a three carbon organic molecule and two carbon pyruvate. Here, ATP is formed and NAD+ is converted to NADH.

The second step is pyruvate oxidation wherein each pyruvate from the glycolysis cycle moves to the mitochondrial matrix and gets converted to a two carbon molecule which binds to Coenzyme A. The is called Acetyl CoA. Carbon dioxide is released and NADH is formed.

The third step is called the Krebs Cycle which is also called Citric cycle. The Acetyl CoA of the last step combines with a four carbon molecule to process in cyclic manner to again form a four carbon molecule. Here carbon dioxide is release and ATP, NADH, FADH₂ is produced.

In the final step of oxidative phosphorylation, protons flow back into the matrix by an enzyme called ATP synthase. These protons are made available when by the released electrons of NADH and FADH₂. As the electrons move down the process, it releases energy to create a gradient. This is called electron transport chain. At the end of the chain the electrons are accepted oxygen and protons form water.

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Which of the following statements describes integral membrane proteins?
I. They protect the contents of the cell from chaotropic agents such as urea.
II. They are easily dissociated from the membrane by changes in pH or high salt concentration.
III. They are held tightly in place by hydrophobic effects between the membrane and hydrophobic amino acids.
A) I, II, III
B) I, III
C) I
D) II
E) III

Answers

Integral membrane proteins have characteristics that make them unique from other microorganic phenomena, therefore we can say that the correct answer is a, since they are all functions that it possesses for its proper physiological functioning.

Integral Membrane Proteins

Thanks to its hydrophobic and hydrophilic composition, it can create a kind of bilayer, which promotes the transport of molecules with different compositions.

In addition, membrane proteins due to the sodium potassium pump also create a concentration gap of both liquid and ions. The structure of this membrane, in turn, allows the passage of molecules that may affect its integrity to be prevented.

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Pyruvate dehydrogenase is the entry point for the glycolytic product pyruvate into oxidative metabolism (the citric acid cycle and oxidative phosphorylation). Because it occupies such an important checkpoint in metabolism, it is tightly regulated.
Determine whether the given conditions promote entry into oxidative metabolism or limit entry into oxidative metabolism. These abbreviations may be used: PDH is pyruvate dehydrogenase; PDK is pyruvate dehydrogenase kinase; PDP is pyruvate dehydrogenase phosphatase.

Answers

AnswersLow O2 levels, active PDK; - LimitHigh O2 levels, active PDH; - PromoteHigh oxygen levels, the presence of a PDK inhibitor; - PromoteHigh O2 levels, inactive PDH; - LimitHigh O2 levels, active PDK; - Limit

PDH catalyze pyruvate to acetyl-CoA that enters the citric cycle. By phosphorylating a single subunit of PDH, PDK suppresses the enzyme's catalytic activity.

      2.  It is converted to lactate, is the response.

An essential enzyme in the body's process of dephosphorylating proteins is phosphatase. As a result, once PDK inactivates PDH, it contributes to the positive regulation of PDH (by dephosphorylating the PDH subunit). As a result, pyruvates in a person with phosphatase deficit will be converted to lactate because PDH is rendered inactive after PDK phosphorylates it. Thus, the conversion of the pyruvates to acetyl-CoA cannot be catalyzed.

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Full Question:

a) Determine whether the following conditions promote entry into oxidative metabolism or limit entry into oxidative metabolism. The following abbreviations may be used: PDH is pyruvate dehydrogenase; PDK is pyruvate dehydrogenase kinase; PDP is pyruvate dehydrogenase phosphatase.

Low O2 levels, PDK active;

High O2 levels, active PDH;

High O2 levels, PDK inhibitor present;

High O2 levels, inactive PDH;

High O2 levels, PDK active;

b) What is the fate of pyruvate (in a human) if a person has a phosphatase deficiency?

It is processed to lactate.

It is processed to acetyl-CoA.

It is processed to ethanol.

Other Questions
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