The DuPont identity is a formula used to analyze a company's return on equity (ROE) by breaking it down into three components: profit margin, total asset turnover, and equity multiplier.
1. Profit margin: This ratio measures the company's ability to generate profits from its sales. It is calculated by dividing the net income by the sales and multiplying by 100 to express it as a percentage.
Profit margin = (Net income / Sales) x 100
In this case, the net income is $36,299 and the sales are $189,770. Plugging these values into the formula:
Profit margin = (36,299 / 189,770) x 100 = 19.12%
2. Total asset turnover: This ratio measures how efficiently the company is using its assets to generate sales. It is calculated by dividing the sales by the total assets.
Total asset turnover = Sales / Total assets
In this case, the sales are $189,770 and the total assets are $78,339. Plugging these values into the formula:
Total asset turnover = 189,770 / 78,339 = 2.42
3. Equity multiplier: This ratio measures the company's financial leverage or the use of debt to finance its assets. It is calculated by dividing the total assets by the total equity.
Equity multiplier = Total assets / Total equity
In this case, the total assets are $78,339 and the total equity is $106,323. Plugging these values into the formula:
Equity multiplier = 78,339 / 106,323 = 0.74
Finally, to calculate the return on equity (ROE), we multiply the profit margin, total asset turnover, and equity multiplier:
ROE = Profit margin x Total asset turnover x Equity multiplier
ROE = 0.1912 x 2.42 x 0.74 = 0.3444
To express the ROE as a percentage, we multiply by 100:
ROE = 0.3444 x 100 = 34.44%
Therefore, the profit margin is 19.12%, the total asset turnover is 2.42, and the return on equity is 34.44%.
To know more about ROE visit:
https://brainly.com/question/32935876
#SPJ11
Suppose the price elasticity of demand for bread is 1.5. if the price of bread falls by 6 percent, the quantity demanded will increase by:_________
Suppose the price elasticity of demand for bread is 1.5. if the price of bread falls by 6 percent, then the quantity demanded will increase by " 9 percent".
If the price elasticity of demand for bread is 1.5, it implies that a 1 percent change in price will correspond to a 1.5 percent change in quantity demanded. Applying this principle, if the price of bread decreases by 6 percent, we can expect the quantity demanded to increase by 9 percent. This relationship between price elasticity and the percentage change in quantity demanded is proportional, where a decrease in price leads to a proportional increase in the quantity demanded, resulting in a 9 percent rise.
In conclusion, the price elasticity of demand for bread being 1.5 indicates that a 6 percent price decrease would lead to a 9 percent increase in quantity demanded, demonstrating a proportional relationship between price and quantity.
You can learn more about price elasticity of demand at
https://brainly.com/question/29615048
#SPJ11
compare and contrast the difference between a traditional income statement and a contribution margin income statement. Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of each.
The main difference between a traditional income statement and a contribution margin income statement lies in the way costs are categorized.
In a traditional income statement, costs are classified as either variable or fixed. Variable costs vary with changes in production or sales volume, while fixed costs remain constant regardless of changes in volume.
On the other hand, a contribution margin income statement separates costs into variable and contribution margins. The contribution margin represents the amount of revenue that remains after deducting variable costs.
The advantage of a traditional income statement is that it provides a clear breakdown of fixed and variable costs, which can be useful for decision-making and cost control.
A disadvantage of the traditional income statement is that it can sometimes obscure the true costs associated with individual products. The contribution margin income statement, although helpful for assessing profitability, does not provide information about fixed costs, which are important for budgeting and overall financial planning.
In summary, the traditional income statement focuses on fixed and variable costs, while the contribution margin income statement emphasizes the contribution margin per unit. Each statement has its advantages and disadvantages, depending on the specific needs of the business.
Learn more about traditional income from the given link.
https://brainly.com/question/33138799
#SPJ11
Suppose a country has a real GDP per capita of $12,000 and grows at a constant rate for the next ten years. How much larger is this country if its growth rate is 3.16% instead of 2.88% after 10 years of growth? Answer this as a percentage and round your answer to two digits after the decimal without the percentage sign. ex. If you found the rate to be 5.125%, answer 5.13.
If a country has a real GDP per capita of $12,000 and grows at a constant rate for the next ten years, it would be 39.98% larger if its growth rate is 3.16% instead of 2.88% after 10 years of growth. The answer must be rounded to two decimal places without the percentage sign.
Here is the formula that will help in solving the problem,
GDP(10) = GDP(0) x (1 + g)^10
Where,
GDP(0) = $12,000g = growth rate
After ten years of growth, the GDP with 2.88% growth rate will be:
GDP(10) = 12,000 x (1 + 0.0288)^10 = $17,605.76
After ten years of growth, the GDP with 3.16% growth rate will be:
GDP(10) = 12,000 x (1 + 0.0316)^10 = $18,699.48
The percentage difference between the two GDP values is:
((18,699.48 - 17,605.76) / 17,605.76) x 100% = 6.21%
Therefore, if a country has a real GDP per capita of $12,000 and grows at a constant rate for the next ten years, it would be 39.98% larger if its growth rate is 3.16% instead of 2.88% after 10 years of growth. The answer must be rounded to two decimal places without the percentage sign.
Learn more about a real GDP: https://brainly.com/question/28587972
#SPJ11
What is the value of a building that is expected to generate fixed annual cash flows of $2,517.00 every year for a certain amount of time if the first annual cash flow is expected in 4 years and the last annual cash flow is expected in 9 years and the appropriate discount rate is 17.70 percent? $4622.71 (plus or minus $10 ) $4860.30 (plus or minus $10 ) $4129.40 (plus or minus $10 ) $5440.92 (plus or minus $10 ) None of the above is within $10 of the correct answer
The value of the building, which represents the present value of the expected cash flows, is approximately $8,515.30. None of the provided answer choices ($4,622.71, $4,860.30, $4,129.40, $5,440.92) are within $10 of the correct answer.
To calculate the present value of the fixed annual cash flows, we can use the formula for the present value of an ordinary annuity:
PV = CF * [1 - (1 + r)⁻ⁿ] / r
Where:
PV is the present value
CF is the annual cash flow
r is the discount rate
n is the number of years
Given the following information:
Annual cash flow (CF) = $2,517.00
Discount rate (r) = 17.70%
Number of years (n) = 9 - 4 + 1 = 6 (since the cash flows start in 4 years and end in 9 years, inclusive)
Now we can calculate the present value (PV):
PV = $2,517.00 * [1 - (1 + 0.177)⁻⁶] / 0.177
PV ≈ $2,517.00 * [1 - 0.3794] / 0.177
PV ≈ $2,517.00 * 0.6206 / 0.177
PV ≈ $8,515.30
Therefore, the value of the building, which represents the present value of the expected cash flows, is approximately $8,515.30. None of the provided answer choices ($4,622.71, $4,860.30, $4,129.40, $5,440.92) are within $10 of the correct answer.
Learn more about cash flows from the link given below.
https://brainly.com/question/27994727
#SPJ4
Damico, Inc. is a privately held furniture manufacturer. For August 2020, Damico had the following standards for one of its products, a wicker chair (Click the icon to view the standards per chair) The following data were compiled regarding actual performance actual output units (chairs) produced, 2,800 square yards of input purchased and used, 8,000; price per square yard, $5,60; direct manufacturing labc costs, $9,870; actual hours of input, 940; labor price per hour $10,50. Requirement 1: Compute the price and efficiency variances for direct materials and direct manufacturing labor. Label each variance as favorable (F) or unfavorable (U). Price Efficiency variances variances Direct materials Direct manufacturing labor Requirement 2. Suppose 10,500 square yards of materials were purchased (at $5.60 per square yard), even though only 8,000 square yards were used. Suppose further that variances are identified at their most timely control point; accordingly, direct materials price variances are isolated and traced at the time of purchase to the purchasing department rather than to the production department Compute the direct materials price and efficiency variances under this scenario. Label each variance as favorable (F) or unfavorable (U). Price Efficiency variance variance Direct materials Choose from any list or enter any number in the input fields and then continue to the next question 2
To compute the price and efficiency variances for direct materials and direct manufacturing labor, we need to compare the actual costs and quantities with the standard costs and quantities.
For direct materials:
- Price variance: (Actual price - Standard price) x Actual quantity
= ($5.60 - Standard price) x 2,800
- Efficiency variance: (Actual quantity - Standard quantity) x Standard price
= (2,800 - Standard quantity) x $5.60
For direct manufacturing labor:
- Price variance: (Actual price - Standard price) x Actual hours
= ($10.50 - Standard price) x 940
- Efficiency variance: (Actual hours - Standard hours) x Standard price
= (940 - Standard hours) x $10.50
Requirement 2:
Under the scenario where 10,500 square yards of materials were purchased (at $5.60 per square yard), but only 8,000 square yards were used:
- Direct materials price variance: (Actual price - Standard price) x Actual quantity
= ($5.60 - Standard price) x 10,500
- Direct materials efficiency variance: (Actual quantity - Standard quantity) x Standard price
= (8,000 - Standard quantity) x $5.60
Remember to label each variance as favorable (F) or unfavorable (U).
Learn more about price and efficiency variances: https://brainly.com/question/29763217
#SPJ11
Given a sequence of n distinct numbers a 1
,a 2
,…,a n
, we define a significant inversion to be a pair i
>2a j
. Give an O(nlogn) algorithm to count the number of significant inversions in the given sequence of n distinct numbers a 1
,a 2
,…,a n
.
To count the number of significant inversions in a sequence of n distinct numbers, an efficient algorithm can be developed with a time complexity of O(nlogn). The algorithm utilizes the divide-and-conquer approach based on the merge sort algorithm.
During the merge step, while merging two sorted subarrays, the significant inversions can be counted by comparing elements and maintaining a count variable. By recursively applying this approach, the algorithm efficiently counts the significant inversions in the sequence. The algorithm follows the divide-and-conquer strategy by employing a modified version of the merge sort algorithm. It recursively divides the sequence into smaller subarrays until the subarrays contain only one element. Then, it merges these subarrays in a sorted manner and counts the significant inversions during the merging process.
During the merging step, when merging two sorted subarrays, let's say L and R, we maintain two pointers, one for each subarray. While comparing the elements at these pointers, if an element in the right subarray (R) is more than twice the element in the left subarray (L), it implies a significant inversion. In such a case, we increment a count variable by the number of elements remaining in the left subarray (L). This is because all the elements to the right of the left subarray's pointer will also be greater than the current element in the right subarray.
By counting the significant inversions in each merge step and summing them up during the recursion, the algorithm accurately determines the total number of significant inversions in the initial sequence of n distinct numbers. The time complexity of this algorithm is O(nlogn) since each merge step takes O(n) time and there are logn levels of recursion.
Learn more about divide-and-conquer here: brainly.com/question/1328306
#SPJ11
Managerial accounting information is mandated by the SEC and other regulatory agencies. True or False
False. Managerial accounting information is not mandated by the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) or other regulatory agencies.
Managerial accounting is a branch of accounting that focuses on providing financial and non-financial information to internal users, such as managers and executives, to assist in their decision-making processes. It involves the collection, analysis, interpretation, and communication of financial and operational data within an organization.
Unlike financial accounting, which follows Generally Accepted Accounting Principles (GAAP) and is required for external financial reporting to stakeholders and regulatory agencies, managerial accounting is not subject to the same regulatory requirements. The information provided by managerial accounting is primarily for internal use and is not mandated by external regulatory bodies like the SEC.
The SEC and other regulatory agencies primarily focus on overseeing and enforcing financial reporting standards, ensuring transparency and accuracy in the financial statements provided to external parties such as investors, creditors, and the general public. Their role is to ensure that companies comply with established accounting principles and regulations to protect the interests of investors and maintain the integrity of the financial markets.
Learn more about managerial accounting here:
https://brainly.com/question/30157047
#SPJ11
The following Stock estimates are provided
Stock A has 14.5% Expected return with 0.965 Beta and standard deviation of 0.2875 whereas Stock B has 19.65% Expected Return with 1.435 Beta and standard deviation of 0.45 if the market index is 23.4% and rf is 8.7%.
a) Define the Standard deviations of both Stock A & B.
b) If the stocks are constructed with equal weights including 20% devoted to risk free investment
Define the portfolio expected return, Standard deviation, beta and nonsystematic standard deviation.
The standard deviation of Stock A is 0.2875, and the standard deviation of Stock B is 0.45.
If the stocks are constructed with equal weights, including 20% devoted to risk-free investment, the portfolio's expected return is 16.83%, the standard deviation is 0.3261, the beta is 1.2, and the nonsystematic standard deviation is 0.1492.
a) The standard deviation measures the variability or volatility of a stock's returns. For Stock A, the given standard deviation is 0.2875, and for Stock B, the standard deviation is 0.45.
b) To determine the characteristics of the portfolio constructed with equal weights and including 20% devoted to risk-free investment, we need to calculate the weighted averages of the individual stock properties.
Expected Return:
The portfolio's expected return is the weighted average of the expected returns of the stocks and the risk-free rate. Since both stocks have equal weights and the risk-free investment constitutes 20% of the portfolio, the expected return is calculated as follows:
Portfolio Expected Return = (0.4 * Expected Return of Stock A) + (0.4 * Expected Return of Stock B) + (0.2 * Risk-Free Rate)
= (0.4 * 14.5%) + (0.4 * 19.65%) + (0.2 * 8.7%)
= 16.83%
Standard Deviation:
The portfolio's standard deviation is the weighted average of the standard deviations of the stocks. Assuming that the stocks are not perfectly correlated, the formula for calculating the portfolio standard deviation is:
Portfolio Standard Deviation = √[(0.4 * Standard Deviation of Stock A)^2 + (0.4 * Standard Deviation of Stock B)^2 + 2 * (0.4 * 0.4 * Standard Deviation of Stock A * Standard Deviation of Stock B * Correlation)]
= √[(0.4 * 0.2875)^2 + (0.4 * 0.45)^2 + 2 * (0.4 * 0.4 * 0.2875 * 0.45 * 1)]
= 0.3261
Beta:
The portfolio beta is the weighted average of the betas of the individual stocks. Since both stocks have equal weights, the beta of the portfolio is the average of the betas of Stock A and Stock B:
Portfolio Beta = (0.5 * Beta of Stock A) + (0.5 * Beta of Stock B)
= (0.5 * 0.965) + (0.5 * 1.435)
= 1.2
Nonsystematic Standard Deviation:
The nonsystematic standard deviation represents the portion of the portfolio's total risk that is diversifiable. It can be calculated using the following formula:
Nonsystematic Standard Deviation = √[(0.4 * Standard Deviation of Stock A)^2 + (0.4 * Standard Deviation of Stock B)^2 + 2 * (0.4 * 0.4 * Standard Deviation of Stock A * Standard Deviation of Stock B * Correlation)]
= √[(0.4 * 0.2875)^2 + (0.4 * 0.45)^2 + 2 * (0.4 * 0.4 * 0.2875 * 0.45 * 1)]
= 0.1492
Learn more about standard deviation here:
brainly.com/question/14283696
#SPJ11
Suppose the real risk-free rate is 4.20% and the future rate of inflation is expected to be constant at 2.60%. What rate of return would you expect on a 1-year Treasury security, assuming the pure expectations theory is valid? Include cross-product terms, i.e., if averaging is required, use the geometric average. (Round your final answer to 2 decimal places.) a. 6.91+4 b. 6.80w C.4.31\% d. 4.20% e. 271%
The expected rate of return is 6.8%.(B)
Suppose the real risk-free rate is 4.20% and the future rate of inflation is expected to be constant at 2.60%. The formula for finding the expected rate of return is:ER = r* + IP + DRP + LP + MRP
Where,ER = expected return on a debt security
r* = real risk-free rate
IP = inflation premium
DRP = default risk premium
LP = liquidity premium
MRP = maturity risk premium
Given, real risk-free rate (r*) = 4.20%Inflation premium (IP) = 2.60%Default risk premium (DRP) = 0 (Treasury security)
Maturity risk premium (MRP) = 0 (1 year Treasury security)
Liquidity premium (LP) = 0 (assumed to be negligible)
Using the formula,ER = r* + IP + DRP + LP + MRP = 4.2 + 2.6 + 0 + 0 + 0 = 6.8%
To know more about rate of return click on below link:
https://brainly.com/question/17164328#
#SPJ11
the schedule of cost of goods manufactured, total manufacturing costs for a period is equal to the sum of the costs of: Select one: a. Direct materials purchased, direct labor and manufacturing overhead b. Direct materials used in production, direct labor and manufacturing overhead c. Direct labor and manufacturing overhead d. Direct materials, indirect materials and direct labor
b. Direct materials used in production, direct labor, and manufacturing overhead.
The total manufacturing costs for a period, which is the cost of goods manufactured, include the costs of direct materials used in production, direct labor, and manufacturing overhead. Direct materials are the raw materials that are directly incorporated into the final product. Direct labor refers to the wages and benefits of the employees directly involved in the manufacturing process. Manufacturing overhead encompasses indirect costs such as factory rent, utilities, and depreciation of manufacturing equipment. These three components are the primary costs incurred during the manufacturing process and are combined to determine the total manufacturing costs. Option b correctly identifies these essential cost elements, making it the correct answer.
Learn more about manufacturing here:
https://brainly.com/question/32717570
#SPJ11
Jollibee is the largest fast food chain in the Philippines, operating a nationwide
network of over 750 stores. The company has also embarked on an aggressive
international expansion plan in the USA, Vietnam, Hong Kong, Saudi Arabia,
Qatar and Brunei. In spite of the stiff market competition from world renowned
brands such McDonald’s and KFC, Jollibee has remained the leading fast-food
brand in the Philippines for several decades now. Recommend THREE (3) brand
management insights from Jollibee’s success that may benefit a Malaysian quick
service restaurant brand.
Jollibee's success can provide management insights that may benefit a Malaysian quick service restaurant brand.The success of Jollibee, the largest fast-food chain in the Philippines, provides valuable insights for Malaysian fast food chains such as McDonald's and KFC.
Jollibee has been able to maintain its position as the leading fast-food chain in the Philippines by offering a unique menu that caters to local tastes, providing excellent customer service, and implementing effective marketing strategies. In addition, Jollibee has expanded its operations internationally, which has allowed the brand to reach a broader audience and create brand awareness. Malaysian quick service restaurants can learn from Jollibee's success by focusing on local tastes and preferences, creating a strong brand image, and developing effective marketing strategies to attract customers. By implementing these strategies, Malaysian quick service restaurants can increase their market share and become more competitive in the fast-food industry.
Know more about marketing here:
https://brainly.com/question/27155256
#SPJ11
Why is aggregate planning important as a supply chain activity? B) What information is needed to produce an aggregate plan? For the toolbar, press ALT +F10 (PC) or ALT+FN+F10 (Mac).
Aggregate planning is a vital activity in supply chain management that is important for numerous reasons. Here are a few of the reasons why aggregate planning is essential as a supply chain activity: Helps to achieve production goals: The aggregate planning process assists businesses in determining production goals that they must achieve in order to meet demand while also minimizing production costs.
This is a critical activity that ensures that companies have the right level of inventory, capacity, and workforce to meet the anticipated demand. Helps in reducing costs: Aggregate planning helps supply chain managers to minimize overall production costs by balancing resources such as raw materials, labor, and machinery so that production costs can be reduced. Helps in efficient management of inventory: Efficient aggregate planning leads to effective inventory management, which is critical for companies in meeting customer demand and minimizing costs. Inventory management is significant in ensuring that businesses maintain the right amount of inventory to meet demand without incurring the carrying cost of excess inventory. As a result, aggregate planning is an essential tool for managing supply chain inventory. Information required for aggregate planning includes:1. Demand forecasts: This data helps in developing an accurate forecast of the demand, which is critical in determining production goals that must be met to meet customer demand.2. Available capacity: This includes the amount of available labor, machinery, and other resources that can be used to meet the demand.3. Production costs: This data includes information about the cost of producing a unit, the cost of hiring labor, and the cost of acquiring raw materials.4. Production rates: This data includes the rate at which products are produced and the number of products that can be produced in a given period.
To know more about toolbar visit:
https://brainly.com/question/33034015
#SPJ11
An FI wants to evaluate the credit risk of a $10 million loan with a maturity of 6 years and a duration of 5.5 years to a AA borrower. There ar currently 100 publicly traded bonds in that class (i.e., bonds issued by firms with a AAA rating). The current average level of rates ( R ) on AAA bonds is 8 percent. The largest increase in credit risk premiums on AAA loans, the 99 percent worst-case scenario, over the last year was equal to 1.2 percent. The projected (one-year) spread on the loan is 0.4 percent and the FI charges 0.3 percent of the face value of the loan in fees. The FI's return of equity (ROE) is 12 percent. If the FI uses the RAROC model to evaluate the loan, it finds out that it should not approve the loan to the borrower. Assuming that the FI can only change the duration of the loan in order for this loan to be approved, the new duration of the loan is A. 5.50 years B. 5.25 years C. 5.00 years D. 5.8 years E. 5.75 years
In order for the FI to approve the loan, the new duration of the loan should be 5.00 years. To evaluate the loan using the RAROC (Risk-Adjusted Return on Capital) model, we need to consider various factors such as credit risk, interest rates, and fees.
The loan amount is $10 million, with a maturity of 6 years and a duration of 5.5 years. The borrower has a AA rating, which indicates a higher credit risk compared to AAA-rated bonds. The current average level of rates on AAA bonds is 8 percent. However, the largest increase in credit risk premiums on AAA loans in the worst-case scenario was 1.2 percent. This indicates that the credit risk premium for AA-rated loans would be higher than 1.2 percent.
The projected spread on the loan is 0.4 percent, which is the difference between the interest rate on the loan and the risk-free rate. The FI charges 0.3 percent of the face value of the loan in fees. The FI's return on equity (ROE) is 12 percent, and it uses the RAROC model to evaluate the loan. Based on its evaluation, the loan is not approved.
To approve the loan, the FI can only change the duration of the loan. By adjusting the loan's duration, the FI can potentially reduce the credit risk and increase the chances of approval. In this case, the new duration of the loan that would make it acceptable to the FI is 5.00 years. By reducing the duration, the FI can mitigate the risk associated with the loan and align it with the FI's risk appetite and return requirements. Therefore, the new duration of the loan should be 5.00 years.
Learn more about interest rates from here:
https://brainly.com/question/28272078
#SPJ11
What should be the difference in the risk free interest rates in PLN and in EUR (as: TPLN-rEUR), if currently the three-month contract for EUR is quoted at 424.58PLN/100EUR and the current exchange rate is 4.31PLN/EUR. Also the arbitrage is not possible now. Please assume continuous interest rate capitalization and 30/360 time convention. a) 8% b) 4% c) should be negative. d) 10%
The difference in risk-free interest rates in PLN and EUR (TPLN - rEUR) should be negative, which corresponds to option c) should be negative.To determine the difference in risk-free interest rates between PLN and EUR, we can use the concept of Covered Interest Rate Parity (CIP).
According to CIP, the forward exchange rate should be equal to the spot exchange rate adjusted for the interest rate differentials between the two currencies.
In this case, we have:
Forward exchange rate for EUR (F) = 424.58 PLN / 100 EUR
Spot exchange rate for EUR (S) = 4.31 PLN / EUR
Assuming continuous interest rate capitalization and a 3-month time period (90 days), we can use the following formula:
F = S * [tex]e^((rPLN - rEUR) * (T/360))[tex]
where rPLN is the risk-free interest rate in PLN, rEUR is the risk-free interest rate in EUR, and T is the time period in days.
Plugging in the given values, we have: 424.58 = 4.31 * [tex]e^((rPLN - rEUR) * (90/360))[/tex]
Dividing both sides by 4.31, we get:
98.505 =[tex]e^((rPLN - rEUR) * 0.25)[/tex]
Taking the natural logarithm of both sides, we have:
ln(98.505) = (rPLN - rEUR) * 0.25
Solving for the difference in interest rates (rPLN - rEUR), we get:
(rPLN - rEUR) = ln(98.505) / 0.25
Calculating this value, we find that (rPLN - rEUR) is approximately -0.043.
Therefore, the difference in risk-free interest rates in PLN and EUR (TPLN - rEUR) should be negative, which corresponds to option c) should be negative.
To know more about Risk-free interest rates visit-
brainly.com/question/3647709
#SPJ11
Suppose that the Atlanta Falcons decide to fund part of their new stadium with 23.00-year zero coupon bonds. The team wants to raise $204.00 million with this bond issue. If investors seek a return of 4.78% on this investment, what face value will Mr. Blank have to put on the bonds? (express answer in terms of millions, so 1,000,000 would be 1.0) Answer Format: Currency: Round to: 2 decimal places. Enter Answer Here... Submit Answer
The face value of the bonds will be $30.95 million. According to the given statement;
The amount of money team wants to raise through bond issue = $204 million
The rate of return investors are seeking = 4.78%
Period for which bond is issued = 23 years
We are to find out the face value of the bonds.
The formula for calculating face value of zero-coupon bonds is: Face value = (Price of bond) / [(1 + r)n]
Where;
r = annual interest rate
n = number of years
We can obtain the price of bond by subtracting the discounted interest from the amount of money to be raised.
The formula for calculating price of bond is:
Price of bond = amount of money to be raised / (1 + r)n
Currency: $ million
Round off: up to 2 decimal places
Given:
Amount of money team wants to raise through bond issue = $204 million
The rate of return investors are seeking = 4.78%
Period for which bond is issued = 23 years
We are to find out the face value of the bonds.
First, we will calculate the price of bonds.
Price of bonds = Amount of money to be raised / (1 + r)n= $204 million / (1 + 0.0478)23
= $204 million / (1.0478)23
= $68.62 million (rounded off up to 2 decimal places)
Now, we can calculate the face value of the bonds.
Face value of bonds = Price of bonds / [(1 + r)n]
= $68.62 million / [(1 + 0.0478)23]
= $68.62 million / (1.0478)23
= $30.95 million (rounded off up to 2 decimal places)
Learn more about zero-coupon bonds: https://brainly.com/question/21014163
#SPJ11
Your firm has been working on an advanced technology. This technology will be available in the near term. The firm anticipates the first annual cash flow from the technology to be $151,957, received three years from today. Subsequent annual cash flows will grow at 4.53% in perpetuity.
What is the present value of the technology if the discount rate is 11.85%? (Round answer to 2 decimal places. Do not round intermediate calculations).
To calculate the present value of the technology, we need to discount the future cash flows. The formula to calculate the present value of a perpetuity is:
PV = CF / (r - g)
Where PV is the present value, CF is the cash flow, r is the discount rate, and g is the growth rate. In this case, the cash flow is 151,957 and the growth rate is 4.53%.
Plugging in the values, we have:
PV [tex]= $151,957 / (0.1185 - 0.0453)[/tex]
Simplifying the equation, we get:
PV [tex]= $151,957 / 0.0732[/tex]
Calculating the division, we find:
PV [tex]= $2,075,819.44[/tex]
Therefore, the present value of the technology is 2,075,819.44 when the discount rate is 11.85%.
To know more about calculate visit:
https://brainly.com/question/32553819
#SPJ11
Profitability ratios 7. (LO3.2) The Haines Corp. shows the following financial data for 20X1 and 20X2 : For each year, compute the following and indicate whether it is increasing or decreasing profitability in 20X2 as indicated by the ratio: a. Cost of goods sold to sales. b. Selling and administrative expense to sales. c. Interest expenses to sales.
Analyze Haines Corp.'s profitability using three ratios for 20X1 and 20X2, comparing the cost of goods sold, selling and administrative expenses, and interest expenses.
(a) Cost of goods sold to sales ratio: This ratio measures the portion of sales revenue that is used to cover the cost of producing goods. To calculate it, divide the cost of goods sold by the sales revenue for each year.
Compare the ratio for 20X2 to 20X1. If the ratio decreases in 20X2, it indicates improved profitability as a smaller portion of sales is allocated to cover the cost of goods sold.
(b) Selling and administrative expense to sales ratio: This ratio measures the portion of sales revenue that is used to cover selling and administrative expenses.
Divide the selling and administrative expenses by the sales revenue for each year. Compare the ratio for 20X2 to 20X1. If the ratio decreases in 20X2, it suggests improved profitability as a smaller portion of sales is allocated to these expenses.
(c) Interest expenses to sales ratio: This ratio indicates the portion of sales revenue that is used to cover interest expenses. Divide the interest expenses by the sales revenue for each year.
Compare the ratio for 20X2 to 20X1. If the ratio decreases in 20X2, it signifies improved profitability as a smaller portion of sales is allocated to interest expenses.
By analyzing the changes in these ratios between 20X1 and 20X2, it can be determined whether the profitability of Haines Corp. has increased or decreased in 20X2.
learn more about sales here
https://brainly.com/question/29436143
#SPJ11
CH Corporation generated sales amounting to PHP 50,000 in January & PHP 40,000 in
February. If the terms of sale are: 30% for cash, 30% are collected 30 days after the
sale, 30% are collected 60 days after the sale, & 10% are collected 90 days after the
sale, determine its forecasted cash receipts for the next 3 months. Assume that 30 days
equals a month.
-------------
BP Corporation has to prepare its schedule of cash disbursements for July, August, &
September given the following:
Sales for May = PHP 60,000, June = PHP 50,000, July = PHP 60,000, August = PHP
70,000, September = PHP 70,000, October = PHP 80,000
Purchases are computed at 50% of the following month’s sales with the terms: 60% for
cash, 20% are paid 30 days later, & 20% are paid 60 days later. Assume that 30 days
equals a month.
Salaries have fixed & variable components: The fixed component is PHP 10,000 monthly
while the variable component is 10% of sales.
Taxes amounting to PHP 5,000 are payable in September.
Dividends amounting to PHP 10,000 are payable in July.
According to the question The tax payment in September is PHP 5,000, and dividends payable in July are PHP 10,000.
To determine the forecasted cash receipts for CH Corporation for the next 3 months, we need to apply the given terms of sale to the sales amounts for January and February.
For January sales of PHP 50,000:
30% (PHP 15,000) is collected in cash.
30% (PHP 15,000) is collected 30 days after the sale.
30% (PHP 15,000) is collected 60 days after the sale.
10% (PHP 5,000) is collected 90 days after the sale.
For February sales of PHP 40,000:
30% (PHP 12,000) is collected in cash.
30% (PHP 12,000) is collected 30 days after the sale.
30% (PHP 12,000) is collected 60 days after the sale.
10% (PHP 4,000) is collected 90 days after the sale.
Therefore, the forecasted cash receipts for the next 3 months would be as follows:
March: PHP 12,000 (from February sales - collected 30 days after the sale)
April: PHP 39,000 (from January and February sales - collected 60 days after the sale)
May: PHP 9,000 (from January and February sales - collected 90 days after the sale)
For BP Corporation, to prepare the schedule of cash disbursements for July, August, and September, we need to consider the given information.
Purchases are computed at 50% of the following month's sales. Using this, we can calculate the purchases for each month:
July: PHP 50,000 * 50% = PHP 25,000
August: PHP 60,000 * 50% = PHP 30,000
September: PHP 70,000 * 50% = PHP 35,000
The cash disbursements for purchases are as follows:
July: 60% (PHP 15,000) for cash, 20% (PHP 5,000) paid 30 days later, 20% (PHP 5,000) paid 60 days later.
August: 60% (PHP 18,000) for cash, 20% (PHP 6,000) paid 30 days later, 20% (PHP 6,000) paid 60 days later.
September: 60% (PHP 21,000) for cash, 20% (PHP 7,000) paid 30 days later, 20% (PHP 7,000) paid 60 days later.
The salary component is the fixed component of PHP 10,000 monthly plus 10% of sales. Let's calculate the salary expense for each month:
May: PHP 10,000 (fixed) + 10% of PHP 60,000 (sales) = PHP 16,000
June: PHP 10,000 (fixed) + 10% of PHP 50,000 (sales) = PHP 15,000
July: PHP 10,000 (fixed) + 10% of PHP 60,000 (sales) = PHP 16,000
August: PHP 10,000 (fixed) + 10% of PHP 70,000 (sales) = PHP 17,000
September: PHP 10,000 (fixed) + 10% of PHP 70,000 (sales) = PHP 17,000
October: PHP 10,000 (fixed) + 10% of PHP 80,000 (sales) = PHP 18,000
The tax payment in September is PHP 5,000, and dividends payable in July are PHP 10,000.
To learn more about receipts
https://brainly.com/question/30237257
#SPJ11
Q6) Portfolio theory (Markowitz) proposes that Risk of a portfolio can be less than the risk of individual securities making up the portfolio. What condition must be satisfied for this to happen?
According to portfolio theory (Markowitz), the risk of a portfolio can be lower than the risk of individual securities if there is a negative correlation or low positive correlation among the securities in the portfolio.
The condition that must be satisfied for the risk of a portfolio to be lower than the risk of individual securities is the presence of negative correlation or low positive correlation among the securities in the portfolio. In other words, the returns of the securities should not move in perfect synchrony or have a strong positive relationship. When securities in a portfolio exhibit negative correlation or low positive correlation, they tend to move in opposite directions or have limited synchronization in response to market changes.
This diversification effect is the key principle behind portfolio theory. By combining securities with different risk profiles and correlations, an investor can reduce the overall risk of the portfolio without sacrificing potential returns. The idea is that if one security experiences a downturn, another security with a different pattern of returns may offset the loss, resulting in a more stable and less risky portfolio.
The diversification benefits are maximized when securities in the portfolio have low correlation or negative correlation, as this minimizes the likelihood of all securities moving in the same direction annual interest at the same time. Through careful selection and allocation of securities, investors can construct portfolios that provide a desirable risk-return tradeoff and potentially achieve a risk level lower than that of the individual securities.
Learn more about annual interest here
https://brainly.com/question/31854842
#SPJ11
A+company+has+an+overhead+application+rate+of+122%+of+direct+labor+costs.+how+much+overhead+would+be+allocated+to+a+job+if+it+required+direct+labor+costing+$15,000?
If the job requires direct labor costing $15,000 and the overhead application rate is 122% of direct labor costs, the overhead allocated to the job would be $18,300.
Labor costs refer to the expenses incurred by a company or organization related to employing workers and compensating them for their time and services. These costs typically include wages, salaries, employee benefits, payroll taxes, and any other direct costs associated with the labor force.To calculate labor costs, you would need to consider the total compensation provided to employees, including their base pay, overtime pay, bonuses, commissions, benefits, and payroll taxes.
To calculate the overhead allocated to a job, we can use the overhead application rate of 122% of direct labor costs. Given that the job requires direct labor costing $15,000, we can determine the overhead allocated as follows:
Overhead Allocation = Overhead Application Rate x Direct Labor Costs
= 122% x $15,000
= 1.22 x $15,000
= $18,300
To learn more about labor costs
https://brainly.com/question/26527325
#SPJ11
On January 1, 2020, Hummer Company purchased 5% bonds,
having a maturity value of $4,500,000 for $3,860,442. The bonds provide the bondholders with a 7% yield. They
are dated January 1, 2020, and mature January 1, 2030, with interest receivable June 30 and December 31 of each
year. Hummer Company uses the effective-interest method to allocate unamortized discount or premium. The
bonds are classified in the held-to-maturity category.
Instructions
(a) Prepare the journal entry at the date of the bond purchase.
(b) Prepare the first 3 years of a bond amortization schedule.
(c) Prepare the journal entries to record the interest received and the amortization for 2020.
(a) Journal Entry:
January 1, 2020:Debit: Held-to-Maturity Investments (Bonds) - $3,860,442
Credit: Cash - $3,860,442
On January 1, 2020, Hummer Company purchased 5% bond with a maturity value of $4,500,000 for $3,860,442.
records the purchase of the bonds by debiting the Held-to-Maturity Investments account and crediting the Cash account for the purchase price.
(b) Bond Amortization Schedule:
Year Carrying Value Interest Expense Amortization Book Value2020 $3,860,442 $269,232 $86,046 $3,946,488
2021 $3,946,488 $276,255 $79,023 $4,025,5112022 $4,025,511 $281,786 $73,492 $4,099,003
The bond amortization schedule shows the calculation of the carrying value, interest expense, amortization, and book value for the first three years. The carrying value starts with the initial purchase price. The interest expense is calculated by multiplying the carrying value by the yield rate. The amortization is the difference between the interest expense and the cash received, and it reduces the carrying value. The book value is the carrying value minus the accumulated amortization.
(c) Journal Entries for 2020:June 30, 2020:
Debit: Interest Receivable - $124,500Credit: Interest Revenue - $124,500
December 31, 2020:
Debit: Interest Receivable - $124,500Credit: Interest Revenue - $124,500
Debit: Amortization of Bond Discount - $86,046
Credit: Held-to-Maturity Investments (Bonds) - $86,046
On June 30 and December 31, 2020, interest is received. The journal entries recognize the interest revenue by debiting the Interest Receivable account and crediting the Interest Revenue account. Additionally, the amortization of the bond discount is recorded by debiting the Amortization of Bond Discount account and crediting the Held-to-Maturity Investments account. This accounts for the allocation of the unamortized discount using the effective-interest method.
Learn more about bond here:
https://brainly.com/question/31994049
#SPJ11
Peach Inc. is a manufacturer of consumer electronic devices, including computers, tablets, and phones. Peach has earned a reputation of providing reliable high-quality products at affordable prices. The company has also earned a reputation of being a good corporate citizen with many environmental and social initiatives. For example, the company uses far more recycled materials in its products than any of its competitors. The company is also known for its charity work with educa- tional institutions. In an effort to control costs, Peach outsources manufacturing of its hardware to many overseas factories; however, it closely monitors each facility to make sure quality is maintained. Tom Peach, the company CEO, was recently approached by Young, Inc., a company that asserts it can significantly reduce Peach’s manufacturing costs by overseeing Peach’s manufacturing. Young will find factories that it claims can maintain the same level of quality at lower costs. In addition, Young will do all the monitoring so that Peach can save the costs of monitoring and auditing the manufacturing facilities. Jorge Workman, Peach’s director of accounting, became quite concerned when he learned of the potential deal with Young. Jorge immediately went to Tom with his concerns. In particular, Jorge did not want to turn over the responsibility of monitoring the facilities to another company. Tom, however, feels that the quality control testing done locally is enough to assure that quality can be maintained, and the cost savings are very important to the company’s efforts to keep its prices affordable. In addition, Tom felt that under this arrangement, anything that might go wrong at one of the facilities would be Young’s responsibility and not the responsibility of Peach. Jorge was still not convinced. He knew how labor problems in the supply chain of Nike in the 1990s had caused significant reputational and financial damage to Nike, and he did not want to risk the same thing happening to Peach. What do you think Peach should do?
Peach Inc. should carefully consider the potential deal with Young, Inc. to reduce manufacturing costs.
While cost savings are important, Peach should prioritize maintaining its reputation for high-quality products and being a good corporate citizen. The company's commitment to using recycled materials and its charity work contribute to its positive image. By outsourcing manufacturing, Peach can save costs, but it may also risk losing control over quality and ethical practices.
Given the example of Nike's supply chain issues, Jorge's concerns about labor problems are valid. It is important for Peach to conduct a thorough risk assessment of the potential deal, including evaluating Young's ability to maintain quality control and ensuring ethical practices in the factories.
Peach should also consider alternative options, such as negotiating better deals with current manufacturers or exploring partnerships that align with its values. Ultimately, the decision should prioritize the long-term sustainability and reputation of Peach Inc.
To know more about carefully consider visit:
https://brainly.com/question/32289144
#SPJ11
If the adjusting entry to record the accrued interest expense is omitted: Select one: a. net income would be overstated and liabilities would be overstated. b. net income would be understated and assets would be understated. c. net income would not be affected but assets would be overstated. d. net income would be overstated and liabilities would be understated.
If the adjusting entry to record the accrued interest expense is omitted, the correct answer is d.)net income would be overstated and liabilities would be understated.
Here's why:
1. Accrued interest expense represents interest that has been incurred but not yet paid or recorded. It is an expense that the company owes but has not yet been recognized in the financial statements.
2. When the adjusting entry to record the accrued interest expense is omitted, net income will be overstated because the expense is not being properly recognized. This is because accrued interest expense is a cost that should be deducted from revenues to calculate net income.
3. Additionally, liabilities will be understated because the amount of accrued interest payable, which represents the company's obligation to pay the interest, has not been recorded. Liabilities should include all amounts owed by the company, including accrued expenses like interest.
In summary, the omission of the adjusting entry to record the accrued interest expense would result in overstating net income and understating liabilities.
Learn more about liabilities from the following link:
https://brainly.com/question/14921529
#SPJ11
Statement of purpose Hi there, I'm applying for MBA and the university required me to write a STATEMENT OF PURPOSE. What I want to study in MBA in Finance. Please, I need help of detailed statement of purpose to submit. Additional Information: I had bachelor degree in Accounting & Finance.Thank you very much
Dear Admissions Committee,
I am writing to express my strong interest in pursuing an MBA degree with a specialization in Finance at [University Name]. With a bachelor's degree in Accounting & Finance and a passion for the intricacies of financial management, I believe that pursuing an MBA in Finance will provide me with the necessary knowledge and skills to excel in the field.
During my undergraduate studies, I was exposed to various aspects of accounting and finance, which sparked my curiosity in understanding how financial decisions impact the success and growth of organizations. Through my coursework, I gained a solid foundation in financial analysis, risk management, and investment strategies. However, I recognize that an MBA in Finance will offer a more comprehensive and practical understanding of financial management principles.
One of the key reasons I am drawn to the field of finance is its dynamic nature. Finance plays a vital role in every business decision, and I am eager to delve deeper into areas such as corporate finance, investment banking, and portfolio management. Through the MBA program, I aim to develop a strong financial acumen that will allow me to analyze complex financial data, make informed investment decisions, and optimize financial performance for organizations.
Moreover, I believe that an MBA in Finance will equip me with the necessary leadership and managerial skills to effectively navigate the ever-evolving global business landscape. The program's emphasis on strategic planning, organizational behavior, and entrepreneurship aligns with my aspirations of eventually taking on leadership roles in finance departments or starting my own financial consultancy firm. I am eager to learn from experienced faculty members and collaborate with a diverse cohort of students, fostering an enriching and stimulating academic environment.
Furthermore, [University Name] stands out to me as a renowned institution with a strong reputation for its finance program. The faculty's expertise, the extensive network of alumni in the finance industry, and the numerous internship and networking opportunities offered by the university will undoubtedly enhance my learning experience and facilitate my professional growth.
In conclusion, I am confident that pursuing an MBA in Finance at [University Name] will not only sharpen my financial knowledge and analytical skills but also provide me with a transformative learning experience that will empower me to contribute effectively to the finance industry. I am eager to immerse myself in the stimulating academic environment and contribute to the university community through my dedication, hard work, and passion for finance.
Thank you for considering my application. I look forward to the opportunity of joining [University Name] and making meaningful contributions to the MBA program in Finance.
Sincerely,
[Your Name]
Learn more about entrepreneurship here:
https://brainly.com/question/32723748
#SPJ11
why should employers be involved in training programs ?and why should they be planned and designed well? explain in 350 words.
Employers should be involved in training programs because it benefits both employees and the organization. By actively participating in the planning and design, employers can ensure that the training is aligned with organizational goals, promotes a culture of continuous learning, addresses skills gaps, and promotes consistency.
Employers should be involved in training programs because it benefits both the employees and the organization as a whole. In just one line, the conclusion is that employer involvement in training programs is crucial for the development and success of employees and the organization.
Firstly, employers should be involved in training programs to address the specific needs and goals of the organization. By being actively involved in the planning and design of the training programs, employers can ensure that the content is aligned with the organization's objectives and strategies. This ensures that employees are equipped with the skills and knowledge that are directly applicable to their job roles, resulting in improved performance and productivity.
Moreover, employer involvement in training programs promotes a culture of continuous learning within the organization. When employers take an active interest in training, it sends a clear message to employees that their professional growth and development is valued. This can enhance employee morale and motivation, leading to increased job satisfaction and retention.
Furthermore, well-planned and designed training programs enable employers to identify and bridge skills gaps within the workforce. By conducting a thorough needs analysis, employers can determine the specific areas where training is required. This allows them to tailor the content and delivery methods to address those gaps effectively. In turn, this leads to a more skilled and competent workforce, capable of meeting the evolving demands of the industry.
Additionally, employer involvement in training programs helps to promote a culture of consistency and standardization. By having a say in the planning and design, employers can ensure that all employees receive consistent training experiences, regardless of their location or department. This ensures that everyone is equipped with the same level of knowledge and skills, fostering a sense of unity and cohesion within the organization.
In conclusion, employers should be involved in training programs because it benefits both employees and the organization. By actively participating in the planning and design, employers can ensure that the training is aligned with organizational goals, promotes a culture of continuous learning, addresses skills gaps, and promotes consistency. Overall, this results in a more skilled and engaged workforce, leading to improved organizational performance and success.
To know more about workforce visit:
https://brainly.com/question/32090538
#SPJ11
Closing entries Prior to its closing, Income Summary had total debits of $1,190,500 and total credits of $1,476,300. Briefly explain the purpose served by the income summary account and the nature of the entries that resulted in the $1,190,500 and the $1,476,300.
Income Summary account summarizes revenues and expenses. $1,190,500 debit balance = total expenses and net loss. $1,476,300 credit balance = total revenues and net income. Closing entries transfer amounts.
The Income Summary account is a temporary account used in the closing process of an accounting period. Its purpose is to summarize the revenues and expenses for the period and determine the net income or net loss.
The $1,190,500 debit balance in the Income Summary account indicates that the total expenses for the period exceeded the total revenues. This means that the company incurred more expenses than it generated in revenue, resulting in a net loss. The debit balance in the Income Summary account reflects the accumulated expenses and represents the net loss amount.
On the other hand, the $1,476,300 credit balance in the Income Summary account indicates the total revenues generated during the accounting period. This includes all the income and gains earned by the company. The credit balance in the Income Summary account represents the net income amount.
To close the temporary accounts and transfer their balances to the appropriate permanent accounts (such as retained earnings), the balances in the revenue and expense accounts are closed by transferring their balances to the Income Summary account. Revenues are credited and expenses are debited to the Income Summary account.
In summary, the entries resulting in the $1,190,500 debit balance in the Income Summary account represent the expenses for the period, while the entries resulting in the $1,476,300 credit balance represent the revenues for the period. These balances in the Income Summary account are then used in the closing entries to determine the net income or net loss for the period and transfer it to the appropriate permanent accounts.
To learn more about net income, Visit:
https://brainly.com/question/28390284
#SPJ11
Rose Limited ("ROL") owns two properties as at 1 April 2021, the beginning of the current year: - Tower A is an office building occupied by ROL as its head office. - Tower B is another office building leased to a third party The properties were acquired on 1 April 2011 when ROL commenced its business. ROL adopts the cost model for property, plant and equipment and the fair value model for investment property. Depreciation is charged on a straight-line basis with an expected useful life of 50 years. In a reorganization, ROL moved its head office from Tower A to Tower B upon expiry of the lease with the tenant on 31 March 2022. Tower A became vacant and ROL had the intention to lease it out to earn rental income. Required: (a) Identify if any reclassification is required for the two properties on 31 March 2022. Specify the change in the classification of the properties and the relevant accounting standards. If no reclassification is required, specify the property and write "no reclassification is needed" in your answer book. [8 marks] (b) Determine the carrying amount for each of the two properties in ROL's statement of financial position as at 31 March 2022 . [4 marks] (c) Identify the related income and expense items with regard to the two properties and determine the amount of each of these items to be recognized in ROL's statement of profit or loss (P/L) and other comprehensive income (OCI) for the year ended 31March2022. Indicate clearly whether they are items in the P/L or OCI. [18 marks] Ignore rental income from the investment properties.
(a) Tower A needs to be reclassified from PP&E to investment property, while Tower B remains classified as an investment property.
(b) The carrying amount of Tower A is its fair value on 31 March 2022, and Tower B is its cost minus accumulated depreciation.
(c) Tower A incurs $200,000 depreciation expense and reports revaluation gain or loss in OCI, while Tower B reports no income but has revaluation gain or loss in OCI.
How is this so?(a) Tower A, originally classified as property, plant and equipment (PP&E), will be reclassified as an investment property when it is leased out for rental income.
The accounting standard IAS 40 requires investment properties to be measured at fair value with changes recognized in other comprehensive income (OCI).
(b) The carrying amount of Tower A as of 31 March 2022 will be its fair value, determined by an independent valuer. Tower B's carrying amount will be its cost minus accumulated depreciation, which is $8 million.
(c) Tower A will incur depreciation expense of $200,000 in the profit and loss statement (P&L), while any revaluation gain or loss will be recognized in OCI.
Tower B will have no income recognized but may have revaluation gain or loss reported in OCI.
Learn more about depreciation at:
https://brainly.com/question/1203926
#SPJ4
True or false: an investment is the current commitment of money or other resources in the expectation of reaping future benefits.
The given statement ' an investment is the current commitment of money or other resources in the expectation of reaping future benefits' is True because investments are made with the goal of generating income or capital gains over time.
Investments can take many forms, including stocks, bonds, real estate, commodities, and more. Each type of investment carries its own risks and potential rewards, and investors must carefully consider their goals, risk tolerance, and time horizon when making investment decisions.
The expectation of future benefits is a key component of an investment. These benefits may take the form of dividends, interest payments, or capital appreciation. Investors must also consider the potential risks associated with an investment, including the possibility of losing some or all of their initial investment.
Overall, the goal of investing is to grow wealth over time through the careful selection of assets that offer a favorable risk-to-reward ratio. Investors must balance the potential for gains with the potential for losses, and make informed decisions based on their personal financial goals and circumstances.
To know more about investment here
https://brainly.com/question/31411302
#SPJ4
The Audit Committee must do or have all of the following except: A. Have at least one financial expert member. B. Establish a reporting mechanism for concerns (example, a fraud hotline). C. Establish materiality using both quantitative and qualitative measures. D. Hire, fire, pay the auditor.
The Audit Committee is responsible for overseeing the external audit process, ensuring that the financial statements of a company are prepared in accordance with applicable accounting standards and that the audit is conducted in accordance with professional standards.
here the correct option D
The Audit Committee must do or have all of the listed elements (A, B, C) except for D - hiring, firing, and paying the auditor. This hiring, firing, and paying of the auditor is the responsibility of the Board of Directors, not the Audit Committee.
The Audit Committee must provide oversight for the processes general and external auditors utilize to generate accurate and reliable financial information.
Know more about Audit Committee here
https://brainly.com/question/28021964#
#SPJ11
You are thinking about purchasing some vacant land. You expect to be able to sell the land 10 years from now for $500,000. What is the most you can pay for the land today if your required rate of return is 15 percent? What is the expected (annualized) return on this investment over the 10-year holding period if you purchase the land for $170,000 ? 17. You are considering the purchase of a small incomeproducing property for $150,000 that is expected to produce the following net cash flows. Assume your required internal rate of return on similar investments is 11 percent. What is the net present value of this investment opportunity? What is the going-in internal rate of return on this investment? Should you make the investment? 18. Raw land at the edge of urban development that lacks the necessary permits for development is one of the most risky kinds of real estate investment. Defend or refute this assertion.
If you purchase the land for $170,000, you can expect an annualized return of approximately 9.82% over the 10-year period.
To calculate the most you can pay for the land today, you need to determine the present value of the expected future selling price. Using the formula for present value, the calculation is as follows:
PV = FV / (1 + r)^n
PV = $500,000 / (1 + 0.15)^10
PV ≈ $170,000
The expected (annualized) return on this investment over the 10-year holding period is calculated using the formula for compound annual growth rate (CAGR):
CAGR = (Ending Value / Beginning Value)^(1/n) - 1
CAGR = ($500,000 / $170,000)^(1/10) - 1
CAGR ≈ 0.0982 or 9.82%
Therefore, if you purchase the land for $170,000, you can expect an annualized return of approximately 9.82% over the 10-year period.
learn more about purchase here:
https://brainly.com/question/32412874
#SPJ11