If you open event viewer after opening a document without saving it, you will see under details: Event Data: Microsoft Word: Want to save your changes to document xx?
This will be followed by numerical figures and code for the date and version when the last changes were made.
What is an event viewer?An event viewer is an application that enables a computer user to track the series of changes that they have made to a document. The event viewer can also inform you of the status of your work.
For example, in the scenario above, the event viewer informs you that you still have unsaved work and asks if you would want to save this document.
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Which of these are likely considerations for developing a computer policy? Check all that apply.-whether users should be able to view non-work-related-websites-whether users should be able to install software-whether you should set a device password
It is important to consider all of these factors when developing a computer policy to ensure the security and productivity of the organization. The policy should be communicated clearly to all employees and enforced consistently to ensure compliance.
Firstly, deciding whether users should be able to view non-work-related websites is important as it could potentially lead to a decrease in productivity and also pose security risks. Allowing unrestricted access to the internet can lead to employees visiting malicious websites or inadvertently downloading malware.
Secondly, allowing users to install software on work devices can also be a security risk. It is important to restrict software installations to only approved programs to avoid potential security breaches and ensure that software licenses are properly managed.
Lastly, setting a device password is crucial to protect sensitive information and prevent unauthorized access to devices. A strong password policy is necessary to safeguard against hacking attempts and to ensure that only authorized personnel have access to sensitive data.
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a processor that includes circuitry for two or more processing units is called a ____ processor.
A processor that includes circuitry for two or more processing units is called a multi-core processor."
A multi-core processor is designed to improve the performance and efficiency of modern computers by incorporating multiple processing units into a single chip. Each core within the processor can handle its own set of instructions simultaneously, allowing the computer to process multiple tasks at the same time, resulting in faster and more responsive performance.
These processors are commonly used in high-end desktops, laptops, servers, and other computing systems that require high processing power. The number of cores included in a multi-core processor can range from two to dozens, depending on the application and specific requirements. Multi-core processors have revolutionized modern computing and have become an essential component of today's technology.
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Which of the following types of signals can be relayed through a linear transponder? A. FM and CW. B. SSB and SSTV. C. PSK
The types of signals that can be relayed through a linear transponder are "SSB and CW".
A linear transponder is a type of satellite communication system that re-transmits signals received from one frequency to another. Linear transponders are used by amateur radio operators for communication purposes. The transponder amplifies the received signal and re-transmits it on a different frequency to allow communication between users. SSB (single sideband) and CW (continuous wave) signals can be relayed through a linear transponder. Other types of signals such as FM (frequency modulation), SSTV (slow scan television), and PSK (phase shift keying) cannot be relayed through a linear transponder because they require a different type of modulation and demodulation process.
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in the interface searchtreeinterface, what does the method getentry return if the object being sought doesn't exist?
In the SearchTreeInterface, the method 'getEntry' returns null if the object being sought does not exist in the search tree. This method takes a single parameter, the key associated with the object being sought. If the search tree does not contain a node with the given key, then the 'getEntry' method will traverse the tree recursively and return null when it reaches the end of a branch without finding the desired object.
It is important to note that the 'getEntry' method only returns the object associated with a given key if it exists in the search tree. If the search tree allows duplicate keys, it will only return the first occurrence of the key in the tree. If there are multiple occurrences of the key in the tree, then the behavior of the 'getEntry' method is implementation-dependent.
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to use the gpt partitioning system on a hard drive, what firmware is required?
No specific firmware is required to use the GPT partitioning system on a hard drive. Most modern systems and operating systems support GPT natively.
GPT (GUID Partition Table) is a partitioning scheme for hard drives that has been widely adopted since it was introduced as part of the Unified Extensible Firmware Interface (UEFI) specification. It replaces the older Master Boot Record (MBR) partitioning scheme, which has limitations such as support for only four primary partitions. Since its introduction, most modern systems and operating systems support GPT natively, including Windows (Vista and newer), macOS (Intel-based Macs since 2006), and most Linux distributions. As a result, no specific firmware is required to use GPT on a hard drive. However, it's important to note that some older systems or operating systems may not support GPT, so compatibility should be checked before using it.
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True/False: Field values edited in Form view are also changed in the form's underlying table.
The statement is True. When field values are edited in Form view, the changes are also reflected in the form's underlying table. This is because forms in a database serve as an interface for data entry and editing, directly affecting the data stored in the tables.
A database is an organized collection of data that is stored and managed on a computer. A database is typically used to store large amounts of structured data, such as customer information, inventory data, financial records, or scientific research data.
Databases can be organized in different ways, depending on the type of data they contain and how that data is used. Some common types of databases include:
Relational databases: These are databases that organize data into tables with rows and columns, with each row representing a unique record and each column representing a specific type of data.
NoSQL databases: These are databases that are designed to handle unstructured or semi-structured data, such as documents, images, or videos.
Object-oriented databases: These are databases that are designed to store data in the form of objects, which can be manipulated using programming languages.
Distributed databases: These are databases that are spread across multiple computers or servers, allowing for increased scalability and performance.
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In Fedora 13, you can use the ____ command and manage swap space. a. pathchk b. fdisk c. cat d. fsck
In Fedora 13, you can use the "swapon" command to manage swap space. This command allows you to activate or deactivate swap partitions and files, view the status of swap space, and specify the priority of multiple swap areas.
Additionally, you can use the "free" command to view information about memory usage, including swap space. Overall, managing swap space is an important aspect of optimizing system performance, and Fedora 13 provides several tools for doing so efficiently.
The fdisk command allows you to create, delete, and manipulate partitions on a hard drive, including the creation and management of swap space. Swap space is a section on the hard drive that serves as virtual memory, which is used when the physical memory (RAM) becomes full. In summary, when managing swap space in Fedora 13, you should utilize the fdisk command to effectively handle partitioning tasks related to swap space on your system.
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A well-implemented ethics and compliance program and a strong ethical culture can lead to: a. more fear of retaliation by management. b. less comfort for employees reporting misconduct. c. less pressure on employees to misbehave . d. more negative views on the organization.
A well-implemented ethics and compliance program and a strong ethical culture can lead to less pressure on employees to misbehave (option c).
A well-designed ethics and compliance program provides guidelines and policies that employees can follow to ensure that they behave ethically and legally. Such a program can help to create a culture of integrity and accountability that promotes ethical behavior and minimizes the risk of misconduct.
When employees are aware of the ethical standards expected of them, and when they know that these standards are being consistently enforced, they are less likely to engage in unethical or illegal behavior.
A strong ethical culture is also important for promoting ethical behavior. An ethical culture is one in which employees understand the importance of ethical behavior and are committed to upholding ethical standards.
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Which of the following statements best describes Windows Apps? (Choose all that apply)
a. They are designed to run in a single, full window display.
b. They are designed to run only on a single form factor (desktops, laptops, or tablets).
c. They are available from the Windows Store.
d. They are certified for content by Microsoft.
Windows Apps are designed to run in a single, full window display and are available from the Windows Store.
Windows Stores are not designed to run only on a single form factor and can be used on desktops, laptops, or tablets. Additionally, Windows Apps may or may not be certified for content by Microsoft. Overall, Windows Apps offer a user-friendly experience with easy installation and updates through the Windows Store. These apps can range from productivity tools to entertainment apps and are designed to be optimized for touch and non-touch devices. With their focus on ease of use and accessibility, Windows Apps are a popular choice for many Windows users.
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a displayport is an alternative to dvi that also supports high-definition audio and video. True or False
True. DisplayPort is a digital display interface developed by the Video Electronics Standards Association (VESA).
It is an alternative to other digital video standards such as HDMI and DVI. DisplayPort supports high-definition audio and video, as well as high resolutions, high refresh rates, and multi-streaming capabilities. DisplayPort also allows for the use of adapters to convert the signal to other video standards, such as VGA or HDMI. Its capabilities make it a popular choice for connecting computer monitors, laptops, and other devices to displays, including high-performance gaming monitors and virtual reality headsets.
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which http method does a browser use when you upload files to a specific web address?
When uploading files to a specific web address, the browser typically uses the HTTP POST method.
This method is commonly used for submitting forms and uploading data to a server. The POST method sends data in the message body of the HTTP request, which can include file uploads as well as other form data. In addition to the POST method, there are several other HTTP methods that can be used for interacting with web resources. The most common of these methods are GET, PUT, DELETE, and PATCH. Each method is designed for a specific purpose, and the appropriate method to use depends on the type of action being performed. GET is used to retrieve data from a web resource, while PUT is used to update an existing resource with new data. DELETE is used to remove a resource, and PATCH is used to update a portion of an existing resource.
Overall, the HTTP method used when uploading files to a specific web address is the POST method. This method is widely supported by web servers and browsers and is designed specifically for sending data from the client to the server.
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____ reference sources include almanacs, dictionaries, directories, and encyclopedias.
Print reference sources include almanacs, dictionaries, directories, and encyclopedias.
These are typically physical books that are designed to be consulted for quick reference, and they contain a wealth of information on a variety of topics. Almanacs provide information on calendars, astronomical events, weather, and other general knowledge.
Dictionaries provide definitions of words and often include information on spelling, pronunciation, and word origins. Directories provide contact information for individuals, organizations, and businesses. Encyclopedias provide information on a wide range of topics, including history, science, literature, and the arts.
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Which of the following uses a function to calculate the total value for cells B2 through B5? A) =SUM(B2:B5) B) =AVERAGE(B2:B5) C) =MAX(B2:B5) D) =MIN(B2:B5)
Excel is a powerful spreadsheet software that allows users to manipulate data in a variety of ways. One of the most commonly used functions in Excel is the SUM function, which is used to add up the values of a range of cells.
In this question, we are asked to identify which function would be used to calculate the total value for cells B2 through B5. The correct answer is A) =SUM(B2:B5).
When we enter the formula =SUM(B2:B5) into a cell in Excel, the software will automatically calculate the sum of the values in cells B2, B3, B4, and B5, and display the result in the cell where the formula is entered. This makes it easy to quickly add up a large number of values without having to manually enter each individual number.
Option B) =AVERAGE(B2:B5) would calculate the average value of the cells B2 through B5. This formula would be used if we wanted to find the average value of a range of cells rather than the total value.
Option C) =MAX(B2:B5) would give us the maximum value in the range of cells, while option D) =MIN(B2:B5) would give us the minimum value in the range of cells. These functions are used when we want to find the largest or smallest value in a range of cells.
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Objects in which all code and required data are contained within the object itself are ____.a. instancesb. containedc. nulld. encapsulated
Objects in which all code and required data are contained within the object itself are "encapsulated".
Encapsulation is one of the fundamental principles of object-oriented programming (OOP) and refers to the practice of bundling data and code together in a single unit, the object. Encapsulation allows for the abstraction of an object's internal state and behavior, and restricts access to its data and functions to only those methods that are explicitly exposed through the object's interface. In an encapsulated object, the data and functions are contained within the object, and are not accessible from outside the object unless specifically allowed. This provides a level of data protection and security, and makes the code more modular and maintainable. In OOP, objects are instances of a class, which is a blueprint or template for creating objects. When an object is created, it contains all of the code and data required for it to function, and is considered to be encapsulated.
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a sequential organization and a hierarchical organization of a document are one and the same thing.
T/F
False. a sequential organization and a hierarchical organization of a document are one and the same thing.
A sequential organization of a document refers to its structure based on the order in which its sections or paragraphs are presented. This means that the document is organized in a linear fashion from beginning to end, with each section following the previous one in a logical sequence.
On the other hand, a hierarchical organization of a document refers to its structure based on a hierarchy of headings or sections. This means that the document is organized into sections that are related to one another in a hierarchical manner, with some sections being subordinates of others. The hierarchy may be indicated by different levels of headings or by indentations.
While there may be some overlap between these two types of organization in a document, they are not necessarily the same thing.
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Which of the following is the final stage of the program development life cycle (PDLC)? A) Making a Plan B) Coding C) Testing and Documentation D) Debugging.
The final stage of the Program Development Life Cycle (PDLC) is D) Debugging.
This stage involves identifying and fixing any errors or issues that may have been missed during the testing phase. Debugging is a crucial step to ensure that the program is running smoothly and as intended. It involves analyzing code and making necessary changes to fix any bugs or glitches. Once the debugging stage is complete, the program can be considered fully developed and ready for deployment. It is important to note that while debugging is the final stage of the PDLC, ongoing maintenance and updates may be necessary to ensure the program continues to function properly. This answer is 100 words.
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Under the standard, Ethernet switches can provide enough power over UTP for ________. A) wireless access points B) voice over IP telephones C) both A and B D) neither A nor B
Under the standard, Ethernet switches can provide enough power over UTP for both A) wireless access points and B) voice over IP telephones, making the correct answer C) both A and B.
Ethernet switches can provide enough power over UTP for both wireless access points and voice over IP telephones. This is made possible through the use of Power over Ethernet (PoE) technology, which allows power to be delivered over the same Ethernet cable that is used for data transmission.
This eliminates the need for separate power cables, simplifies installation and maintenance, and reduces overall costs. So, the correct answer to your question is option C) both A and B.
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What is a disadvantage of using router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing? A) does not support VLAN-tagged packets B. requires the use of more physical interfaces than legacy inter-VLAN routing C. does not scale well beyond 50 VLANs D. requires the use of multiple router interfaces configured to operate as access links
Router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing is a method of routing traffic between VLANs using a single physical interface on a router. However, this method has a disadvantage.
The disadvantage of using router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing is that it requires the use of multiple router interfaces configured to operate as access links. This means that the router needs to have multiple virtual interfaces configured for each VLAN, which can become difficult to manage as the number of VLANs increases.
In conclusion, the disadvantage of using router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing is that it requires the use of multiple router interfaces configured to operate as access links. This can make it difficult to manage as the number of VLANs increases, making it less scalable than other methods of inter-VLAN routing.
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Extranets use _____ technology to make communication over the Internet more secure.
a) telepresence
b) anti-malware
c) virtual private network
d) voice-over IP
e) videoconferencing
The correct answer is (c) virtual private network (VPN). Extranets are private networks that allow secure communication between two or more organizations over the internet.
They are often used for collaboration and sharing of information between organizations that have a business relationship. To ensure that communication over the internet is secure, extranets use VPN technology.
A VPN is a network technology that creates a secure and encrypted connection between two or more devices over the internet. It allows users to send and receive data across shared or public networks as if their devices were directly connected to a private network. VPNs use encryption protocols to protect data from interception and provide authentication mechanisms to ensure that only authorized users can access the network.
This makes VPNs an effective technology for securing communication over the internet and protecting sensitive data from unauthorized access.
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Which two protocols are used to provide server-based AAA authentication? (Choose two.)
A. SNMP
B. 802.1x
C. SSH
D. RADIUS
E. TACACS+
The two protocols used to provide server-based AAA authentication are RADIUS and TACACS+.
RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service) is a protocol used for AAA authentication, authorization, and accounting. It is commonly used for remote access servers, such as VPNs, to authenticate and authorize users. TACACS+ (Terminal Access Controller Access Control System Plus) is another AAA protocol that is often used in enterprise networks. It provides separate authentication, authorization, and accounting services, making it more flexible and secure than RADIUS. Both protocols provide centralized authentication and authorization services for network devices and services, enabling administrators to control access to sensitive resources and track user activity.
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defines a user group, which serves as another set of user for whom we specify rights.a. owner rightsb. group rightc. user rightsd. admin right
The correct answer is "b. group right". A user group is a collection of database users that share common access requirements to a set of database objects.
When you define a user group, you can assign specific rights to the group as a whole, such as read, write, or execute permissions on certain tables or views.
Assigning group rights can be a useful approach for managing database security and access control.
For example, you might create a user group for all employees in a particular department who need access to a specific set of tables or views. By assigning group rights to this user group, you can ensure that all members of the group have the necessary permissions to do their jobs, without having to set permissions for each user individually.
It's worth noting that in addition to group rights, you can also assign individual user rights (answer c) or owner rights (answer a) to control database access. Individual user rights are specific permissions granted to an individual database user, while owner rights are permissions granted to the owner of a specific database object, such as a table or view.
Admin rights (answer d) typically refer to permissions granted to a database administrator, who has broad privileges to manage and administer the entire database.
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the minimum height of a rackmount server is 2 inches; this is called a 1u server. True or False
True, the minimum height of a rackmount server is 2 inches, and this is referred to as a 1U server.
A rackmount server is a type of computer server that is designed to be mounted onto a rack or cabinet. The height of a rackmount server is measured in rack units (U), with one rack unit being equal to 1.75 inches (4.445 cm). Therefore, a server with a height of 2 inches is referred to as a 1U server. Rackmount servers are popular in data centers and other enterprise environments due to their space-saving design and the ability to easily scale and manage large numbers of servers. They are often used for mission-critical applications that require high availability and reliability.
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Which Windows tool can you use to find out if the hard drive is slowing down Windows performance? a) Task Manager b) System Configuration c) Disk Cleanup d) Disk Defragmenter
The Windows tool that can be used to find out if the hard drive is slowing down Windows performance is Disk Defragmenter.
Disk Defragmenter is a built-in Windows tool that analyzes the hard drive and consolidates fragmented data on the drive, allowing files to be accessed more quickly and improving overall system performance. A fragmented hard drive can slow down system performance and cause programs to load slowly or freeze.
By running Disk Defragmenter, you can identify if the hard drive is fragmented and causing performance issues. If the analysis reveals that the hard drive is highly fragmented, you can then run the defragmentation process to reorganize the data on the drive and improve performance.
While other tools such as Task Manager, System Configuration, and Disk Cleanup can help optimize system performance in other ways, Disk Defragmenter is specifically designed to address issues related to hard drive fragmentation and can help improve system performance if the hard drive is causing performance issues.
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which of the following devices are classified as modems? (choose two)
A. DSL
B. Cable
C. WAP
D. ISDN TA
A and D DSL AND ISDN TA are classified modems,
A modem is a device that converts digital signals from a computer into analog signals that can be transmitted over telephone lines. DSL modems (A) and ISDN TA (D) are both devices that perform this function. Cable (B) and WAP (C) are not modems, as they do not perform this conversion process.
In more detail, a DSL modem (A) connects a computer to the internet using a Digital Subscriber Line (DSL) connection. DSL is a technology that allows high-speed internet access over standard copper telephone lines. The DSL modem converts the digital signals from the computer into analog signals that can be transmitted over the phone lines, and vice versa. An ISDN TA (D) is a Terminal Adapter that connects a computer to an Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) line. ISDN is a technology that provides digital telephony services over standard phone lines. The ISDN TA acts as a modem by converting the digital signals from the computer into analog signals that can be transmitted over the ISDN line. Cable (B) and WAP (C) are not modems. Cable modems are devices that connect a computer to the internet over a cable TV network. WAP stands for Wireless Access Point, which is a device that allows wireless devices to connect to a wired network. Neither of these devices performs the function of converting digital signals into analog signals, so they are not classified as modems.
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a form of telehealth technology in which clinical data or images are captured at one point in time and used at a later time is:
The form of telehealth technology in which clinical data or images are captured at one point in time and used at a later time is called store-and-forward telemedicine.
Store-and-forward telemedicine involves capturing medical data, such as images, videos, or medical records, and transmitting them to a healthcare provider or specialist at a later time for diagnosis or treatment. This type of telemedicine is commonly used in specialties such as dermatology, radiology, and pathology, where visual data is critical for diagnosis.
Store-and-forward telemedicine allows for asynchronous communication between healthcare providers, which means that the patient and provider do not need to be present at the same time. This type of telemedicine can be convenient for both patients and providers, as it allows for flexible scheduling and reduces the need for in-person visits.
Overall, store-and-forward telemedicine is a valuable tool for improving access to healthcare and providing more efficient and effective medical care.
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a picture password is made up of what components? (choose all that apply.) a. Picture b. Letters c. Symbols d. Numbers
A picture password is made up of the following components: a. Picture, c. Symbols. A picture password is a security feature in Windows operating system that allows users to sign in using a combination of gestures or patterns drawn on an image instead of a traditional password.
The user chooses an image and then creates a set of gestures or patterns, such as circles, lines, or taps, on specific parts of the image. When the user logs in, they simply redraw the same gestures or patterns on the image to authenticate themselves. Picture password is designed to be an easier and more intuitive way of logging into a device, especially on touch-enabled devices such as tablets and smartphones. However, it may not be as secure as traditional passwords as the gestures or patterns may be easily guessed or observed.
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Checking parameters before they're used to make sure they're valid is referred to as A) raising an error. B) data validation C) throwing an exception D) none of the above.
The process of checking parameters before they're used to ensure they're valid is referred to as data validation. Data validation is an essential step in programming as it verifies that the input provided by users or other systems meets the predefined criteria and rules, ensuring that the data is accurate, complete, and relevant. This process helps maintain data integrity and prevents errors or inconsistencies within the program.
To provide a step-by-step explanation:
1. Define the validation rules: Set the criteria and restrictions for the input parameters, such as data type, range, format, or other specific conditions.
2. Collect input data: Obtain the user input or data from another system that needs validation.
3. Check the input data: Evaluate the collected data against the predefined validation rules.
4. Provide feedback: If the input data fails to meet the validation rules, inform the user or system about the invalid data and request them to provide the correct data.
5. Continue the program: Once the input data has been successfully validated, proceed with the rest of the program execution.
By following these steps, you can ensure that the data being used in your program is valid and prevent potential issues caused by incorrect or invalid input parameters.
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according to the required reading, personal style is the same thing as regional style
No, personal style is not the same thing as regional style.
Personal style refers to the way an individual expresses themselves through their clothing choices, accessories, and overall aesthetic. It is a reflection of their personality, preferences, and identity. On the other hand, regional style refers to the fashion trends and clothing styles that are specific to a particular geographic location or culture. It can be influenced by factors such as climate, history, and social norms.
While personal style and regional style may overlap at times, they are ultimately distinct concepts. Personal style allows individuals to express their unique identities and can vary greatly from person to person, regardless of their geographic location. On the other hand, regional style is shaped by the cultural and historical context of a specific region and tends to be more uniform across a group of people. For example, someone living in New York City may have a personal style that is edgy and avant-garde, while someone in Los Angeles may prefer a more laid-back, bohemian look. However, both individuals may incorporate elements of regional style into their outfits. The New Yorker may opt for black leather jackets and chunky boots, which are often associated with the city's punk and rock scenes. Meanwhile, the Californian may wear flowing maxi dresses and sandals, which are a staple of the beachy, laid-back LA vibe. In conclusion, personal style and regional style are not interchangeable terms. While they can intersect and influence one another, they remain distinct concepts that are important to understanding the role of fashion and clothing in our lives.
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which are functions of a router? (select three) group of answer choices packet switching extension of network segments segmentation of broadcast domai
Three functions of a router are packet switching, extension of network segments, and segmentation of broadcast domains.
Packet switching is the primary function of a router, which involves forwarding packets from one network to another. Routers receive packets from different sources and use a routing table to determine the best path for each packet to reach its destination.
Another function of a router is the extension of network segments, which involves connecting multiple networks together and providing a way for devices on different networks to communicate with each other. Routers can connect different types of networks, such as LANs, WANs, and the Internet, and enable communication between them.
Segmentation of broadcast domains is also a function of a router, which involves dividing a large network into smaller subnetworks to reduce the amount of broadcast traffic. By segmenting broadcast domains, routers can reduce network congestion, improve network performance, and enhance security.
Overall, routers are essential networking devices that provide connectivity and enable communication between different networks.
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you must use a comma or a period to separate a table name from its alias.
In the below query, "employees" is aliased as "e" and "departments" as "d." SQL (Structured Query Language) is a programming language used to manage relational databases. It is used to create, modify, and the data stored in a relational database management system (RDBMS).
When using SQL to create an alias for a table name, you should use the AS keyword, not a comma or a period. An alias helps simplify queries and improve readability. Here's an example:
SQL provides a standard syntax for creating and modifying tables, inserting, updating and deleting records, and querying data from tables. SQL commands are grouped into categories such as Data Definition Language (DDL), Data Language (DML), Data Control Language (DCL), and Transaction Control Language (TCL).
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