explain about bGeneral structural characteristics (nucleic acid and protein, enveloped and non-enveloped)

Answers

Answer 1


Nucleic acids are biological macromolecules that store and transfer genetic information within cells. They are composed of individual units called nucleotides, which include a sugar, phosphate group, and nitrogenous base. The two primary types of nucleic acids are DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid) and RNA (ribonucleic acid).

Proteins are large molecules made up of amino acids joined by peptide bonds. They play crucial roles in many cellular functions, including structural support, enzymatic activity, and signal transduction. The sequence of amino acids in a protein determines its three-dimensional structure and function.

Enveloped entities, such as some viruses, have a lipid membrane surrounding their protein and nucleic acid components, providing additional protection and facilitating entry into host cells. Non-enveloped entities lack this lipid membrane and typically have a more resistant protein shell (capsid) protecting their genetic material. This difference can impact their stability and mode of transmission.

In summary, nucleic acids and proteins are essential biological macromolecules with distinct structures and functions. Entities like viruses can be either enveloped or non-enveloped, with implications for their stability and interaction with host cells.

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Related Questions

During a genetic screen, what needs to be done first?.

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The first step in a genetic screen is to select a suitable model organism for the study.

Genetic screening involves the identification of genetic variations that are associated with a particular phenotype. To conduct a genetic screen, researchers need to select an appropriate model organism that is amenable to genetic manipulation and has a well-characterized genome. The model organism should also have observable phenotypes that are easy to measure and quantify.

In conclusion, the first step in a genetic screen is to carefully select an appropriate model organism. This is crucial for the success of the study and helps to ensure that the results obtained are relevant and reliable.

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y-str typing is useful when one is confronted with a dna mixture containing more than one contributor.T/F

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When dealing with a DNA mixture that has both male and female contributors, Y-STR typing is helpful. In forensic deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) typing, short tandem repeat (STR) markers for autosomal STR are used to locate the missing, confirm familial ties, and perhaps link suspects to crime scenes. Hence it is true.

A repetitive unit of 1-6 base pairs makes up a short tandem repeat (STR), which is a small tandemly repeated DNA sequence. STRs are frequently employed in biological research due to their polymorphisms and high mutation rates. When two or more nucleotides are repeated in a pattern and are next to one another at a certain locus, a STR is created in the DNA.

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What accounts for the precision of crispr-cas9 genome editing?.

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The precision of CRISPR-Cas9 genome editing is due to the specific targeting of the Cas9 enzyme to a particular DNA sequence by a guide RNA (gRNA).

The gRNA binds to the complementary DNA sequence and directs Cas9 to cut the DNA at that specific location. This mechanism allows for precise editing of the genome, as the DNA sequence being targeted is known and can be controlled.

Additionally, the Cas9 enzyme has a high degree of specificity, meaning it is less likely to cut unintended DNA sequences. However, it is important to note that off-target effects can still occur and researchers are working to improve the precision of CRISPR-Cas9 technology.

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the region of the retina where the cone cells are most densely packed and images are sharpest is called the

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The region of the retina where the cone cells are most densely packed and images are sharpest is called the fovea centralis.

This small, central pit within the macula lutea of the retina contains the highest concentration of cone cells, which are responsible for color vision and visual acuity. The fovea allows for the highest level of visual acuity because it is the region of the retina where light is most directly focused. This means that the visual information that is received by the cone cells in the fovea is the most detailed and precise. Interestingly, while the fovea only takes up a small percentage of the total retina, it is responsible for the majority of our visual perception and is therefore crucial for many daily tasks such as reading, driving, and recognizing faces.
This small area, located in the central part of the retina, is responsible for our high-resolution central vision and color perception. Cone cells are photoreceptor cells that detect color and function best in well-lit conditions, enabling us to perceive fine details in our surroundings. The fovea's high concentration of cones allows us to see objects, text, and images with greater clarity and accuracy.

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the fibonacci sequence is a series of values that can be easily calculated with what kind of function?

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The Fibonacci sequence can be easily calculated with a recursive function. This function takes the sum of the previous two numbers in the sequence to generate the next number.

The function commonly used to calculate the Fibonacci sequence is a recursive function.  A recursive function is one that calls itself in its definition, allowing it to solve a problem by breaking it down into smaller instances of the same problem. In the case of the Fibonacci sequence, a recursive function would calculate the nth Fibonacci number by adding the (n-1)th and (n-2)th Fibonacci numbers, which are also calculated recursively.

Therefore, the correct answer to the question is that the Fibonacci sequence can be easily calculated with a recursive function.

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During the initiation of translation in bacteria, the small ribosomal subunit binds to which consensus sequence?

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During the initiation of translation in bacteria, the small ribosomal subunit binds to the Shine-Dalgarno sequence, which is a consensus sequence located in the 5' untranslated region (UTR) of the mRNA.

The Shine-Dalgarno sequence is found in many bacterial mRNAs, and its location and strength can affect the efficiency of translation initiation. Mutations in the Shine-Dalgarno sequence or in the complementary sequence in the 16S rRNA can disrupt translation initiation and lead to changes in gene expression or even cell death in some cases. translation in bacteria, as it ensures that the ribosome begins translating at the correct start codon and in the correct reading frame. The Shine-Dalgarno sequence is found in many bacterial mRNAs, and its location and strength can affect the efficiency of translation initiation. Mutations in the Shine-Dalgarno sequence or in the complementary sequence in the 16S rRNA can disrupt translation initiation and lead to changes in gene expression or even cell death in some cases.

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the fibroblast growth factor receptor 2 (fgfr2) embeds in the plasma membrane of cells. when its extracellular portion binds to fibroblast growth factor, the intracellular tyrosine kinase domain is activated. interestingly, the fgfr2 proteins expressed by epithelial cells and mesenchymal cells are activated by different types of fibroblast growth factors. how could alternative splicing account for the different specificities? [2 pts]

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Alternative splicing can produce different variants of the fgfr2 receptor, with varying extracellular domains that can selectively bind to specific types of fibroblast growth factors, thus accounting for the different specificities observed.

Alternative splicing is a mechanism by which different protein isoforms can be generated from a single gene. In the case of the fgfr2 receptor, alternative splicing can produce variants with different extracellular domains, which are responsible for ligand binding. This variability in the extracellular domain can lead to the selective binding of different types of fibroblast growth factors, which could account for the different specificities observed in epithelial cells and mesenchymal cells expressing fgfr2.

For example, fgfr2b, which is expressed in epithelial cells, has a higher affinity for FGF7 and FGF10, whereas fgfr2c, expressed in mesenchymal cells, has a higher affinity for FGF1 and FGF2. Therefore, alternative splicing is a key mechanism that allows cells to produce different receptor isoforms that can selectively bind to different ligands, providing flexibility and diversity in signaling pathways.

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in humans, xp is a disorder of the nucleotide excision repair mechanism. these individuals are unable to repair dna damage caused by ultraviolet light. which of the following are the most prominent types of dna lesions in individuals suffering from xp?

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Following are the most common types of DNA lesions found in people with xeroderma pigmentosum. Thymine dimers. Option D is Correct.

A disease of the nucleotide excision repair system affects humans and is known as xeroderma pigmentosum (XP). These people lack the ability to repair UV light-induced DNA damage. Numerous xeroderma pigmentosum-related genes are involved in a DNA-repair procedure called nucleotide excision repair (NER).

Nine distinct genes have changes (mutations) that contribute to the autosomal recessive genetic disorder known as XP. The nucleotide excision repair route (NER), which recognises and corrects UV-induced DNA damage, is made up of eight genes. The ninth gene functions to avoid unrepaired harm.

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Correct Question:

In humans, xeroderma pigmentosum (XP) is a disorder of the nucleotide excision repair mechanism. These individuals are unable to repair DNA damage caused by ultraviolet light. Which of the following are the most prominent types of DNA lesions in individuals suffering from xeroderma pigmentosum?

A) mismatch errors

B) telomere shortening

C) methylation of purines

D) thymine dimers

What do you need to do next to test if the fungal compound has antibiotic properties.

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To test if the fungal compound has antibiotic properties, you will need to conduct an antimicrobial susceptibility test. This involves exposing different strains of bacteria to varying concentrations of the fungal compound and observing whether it inhibits their growth.

Additionally, you may need to conduct a minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) test to determine the lowest concentration of the compound that can effectively inhibit the bacteria. It is important to use standardized methods and controls to ensure accurate and reliable results.

To test if the fungal compound has antibiotic properties, you need to perform an in vitro assay, such as the disc diffusion method, where you will apply the fungal compound to bacterial cultures and observe zones of inhibition. Then, you can analyze the results and determine if the compound has antibacterial activity.

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URGENT PLEASE HELP!!! THANK YOU!

Project 1: Immune Disorders
Immune diseases arise when your immune system thinks that one or more of your body’s normal cells is actually a harmful or foreign substance and attacks it, causing inflammation and tissue damage. The cause of most autoimmune diseases is unknown, but researchers believe there may be an inherited predisposition. Autoimmune disorders are usually difficult to diagnose, as they can lead to highly variable symptoms and those can change over time as well. Signs and symptoms can also be slow to develop and so can be misleading during a diagnosis. One sign of possibly having an immunodeficiency is a susceptibility to infections, or having infections that are occurring more frequently, lasting longer, or harder to treat.

Autoimmune disorders are grouped into two categories; systemic and localized. Localized disorders attack only a single organ or type of tissue, whereas systemic disorders affect many organs or types of tissues. However, once enough damage has been done in a localized area, the disorder can start effecting other tissues or organs and can become a more systemic disorder.

Research one of the immune disorders listed below. Create an infomercial on your disease. Remember to include what its symptoms are, who it can affect most, what other issues it can cause, and what medications or changes in diet/lifestyle may help with symptom relief. Make sure to cite your sources and include statistics in a table or a graph based on information you found about your disorder. Your infomercial can be in a Powerpoint, or the written script of what would be said in the infomercial. Be creative.

I want to do it on

Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) and Juvenile RA (JRA)

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Rheumatoid arthritis is a chronic inflammatory disease that affects many joints, including those in the hands and feet.

What are Rheumatoid arthritis and Juvenile Rheumatoid arthritis?

Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune disease where the immune system of the body attacks and damages its own tissue, including joints.

Juvenile Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune disease in which the immune system attacks the joints causing painful swelling.

Symptoms include:

pain in the joints, back, or musclesJoints stiffness, swelling, tenderness, or weaknessfatigue, anemia, or malaiselumps on skin or redness

Physiotherapy and medication as well as anti-rheumatic drugs are treatment options.

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cephalocaudal folding creates the: group of answer choices head and buttocks regions. primitive gut. future trunk region. digestive tract.

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Cephalocaudal folding creates the head and buttocks regions.

During embryonic development, cephalocaudal folding refers to the process where the embryo folds along the head-to-tail axis, leading to the formation of the head and buttocks regions.

In summary, cephalocaudal folding is a crucial process in embryonic development that results in the formation of the head and buttocks regions.

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According to geologists, what configuration were the earth's continents in when seed plants show up in the fossil record and take over from horsetails and lycopods (clubmoss-spikemoss-quillwort group)

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According to geologists, the earth's continents were connected in a supercontinent called Pangaea when seed plants appeared in the fossil record.

During the late Paleozoic era, about 300 million years ago, seed plants began to dominate over horsetails and lycopods in the fossil record. At this time, the earth's continents were in the process of coming together to form Pangaea, a massive supercontinent that included nearly all of the land on Earth.

The development of seed plants, which produced seeds that protected and nourished the embryo, was an important adaptation that allowed plants to spread into new environments and diversify. The presence of seed plants in the fossil record has been used by geologists to date and correlate rock formations from different regions, and to reconstruct the history of the Earth's continents and climate over time.

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Which two approaches to identification of bacteria are least dependent on the ability to grow the microorganism in culture? (Check two.) Check All That Apply
A genetic approach B. phenotypic approach C. Immunologic approach D. physiologic approach

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Two approaches to the identification of bacteria that are least dependent on the ability to grow the microorganism in culture are the genetic approach and the immunologic approach. The Correct option is A and C

The genetic approach involves using DNA sequencing techniques to identify bacteria based on their genetic information, such as 16S rRNA gene sequencing. This approach can identify uncultivable bacteria or those with slow growth rates. The immunologic approach involves using specific antibodies to detect bacterial antigens or antibodies produced in response to bacterial infection.

This approach can be used to identify bacteria that are difficult to culture or those with atypical growth requirements. The phenotypic and physiologic approaches both rely on culturing the bacteria and observing their characteristics, making them more dependent on the ability to grow the microorganism.

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1. identify the wide radiolucent area seen below the apices of teeth nos. 30 to 32: a. mental fossa b. mental foramen c. submandibular fossa d. mandibular canal

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The wide radiolucent area seen below the apices of teeth nos. 30 to 32 is submandibular fossa.

C is the correct answer.

Below the hinder portion of the mylohyoid line, the submandibular gland sits against the submandibular fossa, a tiny depression. Numerous anatomical components involved in implant surgery, salivary calculus, and static bone cavity are located close to the submandibular fossa.

The submandibular glands are situated below the jaw and are roughly walnut-sized. These glands produce saliva, which is then secreted from behind the tongue into the mouth. The superficial lobe and the deep lobe are the names of the two sections that make up the submandibular glands, like the parotid glands.

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Compared to the wild-type LipA, what is the change in net charge in variant XI at pH 7?
R33G
K112D
M134D
Y139C
I157M
A) +4
B) +3
C) -3
D) -4

Answers

The change in net charge for variant XI of LipA at pH 7 compared to the wild-type LipA is -3. The answer is option C) -3.

To determine the change in net charge for variant XI of LipA at pH 7 compared to the wild-type LipA, we need to calculate the net charge of each protein and then compare the difference. The net charge of a protein is the sum of the charges of all its amino acid residues.

Using the single-letter amino acid code and the pKa values of the ionizable groups, we can calculate the net charge of each variant:

R33G: Arginine (R) has a positive charge at pH 7, but glycine (G) is neutral. Therefore, this substitution reduces the net charge by 1.

K112D: Lysine (K) has a positive charge at pH 7, but aspartic acid (D) is negatively charged. Therefore, this substitution reduces the net charge by 2.

M134D: Methionine (M) is neutral, while aspartic acid (D) is negatively charged. Therefore, this substitution reduces the net charge by 1.

Y139C: Tyrosine (Y) has a slightly negative charge at pH 7, but cysteine (C) is neutral. Therefore, this substitution increases the net charge by 1.

I157M: Isoleucine (I) is neutral, while methionine (M) is also neutral. Therefore, this substitution does not change the net charge.

Adding up the changes in net charge, we get:

-1 (R33G) -2 (K112D) -1 (M134D) +1 (Y139C) +0 (I157M) = -3

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the primate emphasis on the visual sense is reflected all of the following except? group of answer choices lack of color vision in most species visual information from each eye transmitted to visual centers in both hemispheres a more forward facing position of the eyes relative to most other mammals having overlapping fields of vision the reduction in the size of structures related to the sense of smell

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The primate emphasis on the visual sense is not reflected in the lack of color vision in most species. The primate emphasis on the visual sense is reflected in various adaptations, the lack of color vision is not one of them.

The primate emphasis on the visual sense is reflected in several ways such as having a more forward-facing position of the eyes relative to most other mammals, having overlapping fields of vision, and visual information from each eye transmitted to visual centers in both hemispheres.

Additionally, there is a reduction in the size of structures related to the sense of smell. However, the lack of color vision in most species is not a reflection of the primate emphasis on the visual sense. In fact, some primate species have evolved trichromatic color vision, allowing them to distinguish colors more vividly than other mammals. Therefore, while the primate emphasis on the visual sense is reflected in various adaptations, the lack of color vision is not one of them.

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Which type of cell division is for the formation of gametes?.

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The type of cell division that is for the formation of gametes is meiosis.

During meiosis, a single cell divides into four cells, each with half the number of chromosomes as the original cell. This allows for the formation of haploid gametes, which can then combine during fertilization to form a diploid zygote. In main answer, meiosis is the type of cell division for the formation of gametes. Meiosis involves the division of a single cell into four cells, each with half the number of chromosomes as the original cell. This allows for the formation of haploid gametes, which can combine during fertilization to form a diploid zygote.

In summary, meiosis is essential for the formation of gametes and plays a crucial role in sexual reproduction.

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assume that one allele is completely dominant over the other for the following questions: two individuals heterozygous for a single trait have children. what is the expected phenotypic ratio of the possible offspring? two individuals heterozygous for two traits have children. what would be the expected phenotypic ratio of the possible offspring? crossing two individuals heterozygous for two traits results in the same phenotypic ratio as for a single trait. are the genes for these two traits on separate chromosomes or on the same chromosome? explain your answer. (remember that the gene for each trait is located at a locus, a physical region on the chromosome.)

Answers

When one allele is completely dominant over the other, the dominant allele will mask the recessive allele, and the dominant trait will be expressed in the phenotype.

For the first question, if two individuals heterozygous for a single trait have children, the expected phenotypic ratio of the possible offspring would be 3:1. This means that for every four offspring, three would show the dominant trait, and one would show the recessive trait. This is because each parent would contribute one dominant allele and one recessive allele to their offspring.

Thus, the possible genotypes of the offspring would be DD, Dd, Dd, and dd, where D represents the dominant allele and d represents the recessive allele. Among these genotypes, three would have at least one dominant allele, and one would have only recessive alleles.

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The passing of physical characteristics from parents to offspring:.

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The passing of physical characteristics from parents to offspring is called inheritance. Here option D is the correct answer.

It is the process by which traits or characteristics are transmitted from parents to their offspring through the genetic material present in the gametes (sperm and egg). The genetic material is comprised of DNA, which contains the instructions for the development and function of all living organisms.

Inheritance occurs through the process of meiosis, which is the division of a cell that produces gametes. During meiosis, the genetic material of the parent cell is shuffled and recombined in a process called recombination. This results in the production of gametes with unique combinations of genetic material that are passed on to the offspring.

Inheritance can result in the transmission of physical characteristics such as eye color, hair color, height, and facial features. It can also result in the transmission of inherited diseases or disorders.

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Complete question:

The passing of physical characteristics from parents to offspring:.

A) Mutation

B) Natural selection

C) Genetic drift

D) Inheritance

which of the following are ways that plants and animals have adapted to the cold seasons in a broadleaf (deciduous) forest? (choose all that apply.) nocturnalism hibernation dormancy migration

Answers

Plants and animals in a broadleaf (deciduous) forest have adapted to the cold seasons through hibernation, dormancy, and migration.


Hibernation is when animals enter a state of inactivity to conserve energy during harsh winter conditions.

Dormancy is a similar process for plants, where they halt growth and metabolic processes to survive cold temperatures.

Migration involves animals moving to warmer regions during the cold season to find food and suitable living conditions.


Summary: In a broadleaf (deciduous) forest, hibernation, dormancy, and migration are ways plants and animals have adapted to the cold seasons. Nocturnalism is not included as it is an adaptation to darkness, not cold temperatures.

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can you compare the daughter cells formed at the end of meiosis ii to the parent cell just before prophase i? place the terms in the appropriate blanks to complete the sentences. terms may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

Answers

The daughter cells formed at the end of meiosis II are haploid, meaning they contain half the number of chromosomes as the parent cell just before prophase I, which is diploid.

The parent cell undergoes DNA replication before meiosis I, resulting in homologous chromosome pairs. In meiosis I, the homologous chromosomes separate, resulting in two haploid cells, each with a unique combination of chromosomes. In meiosis II, the sister chromatids separate, resulting in four haploid daughter cells, each with a single copy of each chromosome.

Therefore, the daughter cells at the end of meiosis II have half the number of chromosomes as the parent cell, and a different genetic makeup due to recombination and independent assortment of chromosomes.

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You have a culture of gram negative, catalase negative cocci that are Gamma γ-hemolytic. What species are you likely growing?

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Based on the information provided, the most likely species of bacteria being grown is Staphylococcus epidermidis.

This is because S. epidermidis is a gram-negative, catalase-negative cocci that is Gamma γ-hemolytic.

However, it's important to note that additional tests may be needed to confirm the identity of the species.

Based on the information provided, you are likely growing a culture of Streptococcus species, as they are gram-negative, catalase negative cocci and exhibit Gamma (γ) hemolysis.

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Briefly describe how upcoming missions and direct observations should improve our understanding of extrasolar planets in coming years.

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Upcoming missions like the James Webb Space Telescope and direct observations using ground-based telescopes should improve our understanding of extrasolar planets by providing more detailed information on their atmospheres, compositions, and potential habitability.

The James Webb Space Telescope, set to launch in 2021, will be able to detect the atmospheric signatures of some of the closest exoplanets and provide insights into their potential habitability.

Ground-based telescopes will be able to use new technologies like adaptive optics and coronagraphs to directly image and study exoplanets in more detail.

This will allow us to better understand the diversity of exoplanet types and their formation mechanisms, as well as investigate the potential for life beyond our solar system. Overall, these missions and observations should lead to a significant increase in our knowledge and understanding of extrasolar planets in the coming years.

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Check the situation at the chambers at the center of the ruin.

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Remember to stay safe and respect the integrity of the archaeological site while investigating the chambers at the center of the ruin. To check the situation at the chambers at the center of the ruin, please follow these steps:

1. Begin by locating the entrance to the ruin and ensure it is safe to enter.
2. Carefully navigate through the ruin, making note of any unstable areas or potential hazards.
3. Use a map or guide, if available, to locate the chambers at the center of the ruin.
4. Once you've reached the chambers, examine the area for any significant features, artifacts, or signs of past activity.
5. Document your findings, including photographs or sketches, to provide a clear understanding of the situation at the chambers.
6. Be mindful of preserving the site, leaving it undisturbed for future research and exploration.

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What two cells cannot use ketone bodies for energy?

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The two cells that cannot use ketone bodies for energy are liver cells and red blood cells.

While most cells in the body can use ketone bodies as an alternative source of energy during times of carbohydrate restriction or fasting, liver cells and red blood cells lack the necessary enzymes to metabolize ketone bodies for energy. Liver cells are responsible for producing ketone bodies during periods of low glucose availability, but they do not have the enzymes required to use them for energy. Red blood cells, on the other hand, lack mitochondria altogether, which are required for the metabolism of ketone bodies. As a result, these cells rely solely on glucose as their primary source of energy. This highlights the importance of maintaining adequate glucose levels in the body to support the energy needs of all cells, especially those that cannot use alternative fuel sources such as ketone bodies.

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Describe smell in regards to sensory adaptation

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Sensory adaptation refers to the process by which our sensory receptors become less responsive to constant or repetitive stimuli over time. This is an important process that allows us to adapt to our environment and focus on new or changing stimuli.

In the case of smell, sensory adaptation can cause us to become less sensitive to a particular odor over time if we are exposed to it for an extended period. This is because our olfactory receptors, which are responsible for detecting different odors, can become less responsive to a particular smell if they are continuously stimulated by it. However, the degree of sensory adaptation varies depending on the specific odor, its intensity, and the individual's sensitivity to it. In some cases, particularly strong or unpleasant odors may continue to be noticeable even after prolonged exposure, while in other cases, a person may become completely desensitized to a particular odor. Overall, sensory adaptation plays an important role in our ability to process and interpret the complex and varied odors in our environment, allowing us to focus on the most important and relevant sensory information.

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1. Define adenosine triphosphate, state why it is an ideal energy molecule, and describe how it is recharged by ADP/ATP cycling.

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Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is a molecule that serves as a primary energy carrier in living organisms.

It is composed of a nitrogenous base called adenine, a five-carbon sugar called ribose, and three phosphate groups. The phosphate groups are connected by high-energy bonds, which can be hydrolyzed to release energy. ATP is an ideal energy molecule because it is readily available, efficient, and versatile. It can store and release energy quickly, making it suitable for a variety of cellular processes such as muscle contraction, cell division, and the synthesis of biomolecules. In addition, ATP is stable enough to store energy for short periods, but unstable enough to release energy easily when needed.

The energy stored in ATP is released when one or two of the phosphate groups are removed, resulting in the formation of adenosine diphosphate (ADP) or adenosine monophosphate (AMP), respectively. This process is known as hydrolysis and releases energy that can be used by the cell to fuel various metabolic processes.

The ADP/ATP cycling is the process by which cells recharge ATP from ADP. ADP is converted back to ATP through the process of phosphorylation, which involves the addition of a phosphate group to ADP using energy from other sources such as glucose oxidation or photosynthesis. This process is catalyzed by enzymes called kinases.

There are different ways that ADP can be phosphorylated to form ATP. In aerobic respiration, ADP is phosphorylated by ATP synthase using energy generated by the electron transport chain. In photosynthesis, ATP is synthesized through the light-dependent reactions in chloroplasts. In addition, ATP can also be produced through substrate-level phosphorylation, which occurs during glycolysis and the citric acid cycle.

Overall, the ADP/ATP cycling is a crucial process that allows cells to continuously produce and use ATP to carry out a wide range of cellular processes.

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Pea plants are tall if they have the genotype TTor Tt, and they are short if they have the genotype tt. A tall plant is mated with a short plant. Half the offspring are tall and half are short. What is the genotype of the tall plant? Explain.

Answers

Tt is the genotype of the tall plant.

Because tallness is the dominant trait, a cross between a tall plant (TT) and a short pea plant (TT) produced only tall plants. The genotypes of two tall pea plants with (TT) and (Tt) are distinct, although having the same phenotypic. Both plants appear tall according to their phenotype, which is a trait.

Tall or short phenotypes describe plant height. Since T is dominant over t, both the TT and Tt genotypes displayed the tall phenotype. Only individuals with the tt genotype displayed the short phenotype.

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If e. Coli is grown in a medium containing glucose and maltose in equal amounts, the gluose is broken down immediately followed by the maltose at a slower rate. This diauxic growth is an example of the use of.

Answers

The diauxic growth observed in E. coli when grown in a medium containing glucose and maltose is an example of the use of catabolite repression.

Catabolite repression is a regulatory mechanism in which the presence of a preferred carbon and energy source, such as glucose, inhibits the expression of genes and enzymes involved in the utilization of other, less favorable carbon sources, like maltose.

In this case, E. coli preferentially breaks down glucose first because it is a more efficient energy source.

Once the glucose is depleted, the bacteria will then start breaking down maltose at a slower rate, leading to the observed diauxic growth pattern.
Diauxic growth in E. coli when exposed to a medium containing glucose and maltose is a result of catabolite repression, where the presence of a preferred energy source (glucose) inhibits the utilization of a less favorable one (maltose) until the preferred source is depleted.

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The (thin outer layer) serous (watery) membrane attaches to the pericardium is called

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The serous membrane that attaches to the pericardium is called the parietal layer of the serous pericardium.

It is a thin, transparent layer of tissue that lines the outer surface of the pericardium, the sac that surrounds and protects the heart. The parietal layer is one of two layers of the serous pericardium, the other being the visceral layer, which directly covers the surface of the heart. The space between these two layers is filled with a small amount of fluid, called pericardial fluid, which lubricates the surfaces and reduces friction during heartbeats.

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