Biology: A Global to Microscopic Perspective
Explanation:
In my opinion, we can study biology during pandemics from a microscopic to a global perspective, much as what is occurring all around us. The macroscopic and microscopic realms of life are interconnected and require equal consideration. With the use of our microscopic and global approach, these are some of the things we are now doing to solve the pandemic problem:
The structure of the virus that causes COVID-19 is being studied by researchers using a powerful electronic microscope inside laboratories all around the world.
Governments all across the world would be informed whenever they discovered something new. They will then be forced to choose what to do as a result.
The public is informed of all the facts provided by the scientists.
The cycle goes on until a solution to get rid of the infection is ultimately found.
Hence all about global approach .
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TRUE/FALSE. in an exsexual species a beneficial allele and a deleterious allele are in linkage disequilibrium the selection pressure for the beneficial allele is lower than the pressure of purifying selection
Answer:
To that question the answer is True
Explanation:
Im pretty sure its True since i've had this simillar theme a litlle time ago.
Thank me Later
Tadano
What are 6 ways to prevent the spread of germs?.
What is the purpose of a food defense plan?.
A food defense plan's main goal is to protect the safety of the nation's food supply by directing federal regulators' attention away from responding to contamination and toward avoiding contamination just to better the public's health .
Food defense plan refers to the safeguarding of food items against deliberate adulteration or contamination with the aim of endangering the public's health and/or disrupting the economy.
The vulnerability assessment indicated threats that must be reduced by the food defense plan team. They will also oversee and implement the program's procedures and tools. Developing and implementing an efficient food defense plan are among the other responsibilities.
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the pyloric gland area of the stomach antrum secretes a. histamine b. gastrin c. intrinsic facto
The antrum of the pylorus contains the pyloric glands. They release gastrin, which their G cells generate.
What does the antrum secrete?Pyloric glands are located in the stomach's antrum, and their key characteristic is the presence of G cells that secrete gastrin. The pyloric and oxyntic glands include somatostatin-producing D cells, which regulate gastrin release and stomach acid output.
What exactly are the pylorus glands?Simple or branched tubular glands, the human pyloric glands spiral through the lamina propria's connective tissue. Pyloric gland (mucous) cells, parietal cells, and endocrine cells are the three types of cells that make them up.
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What is genetic engineering of humans?.
Genetic engineering, also called genetic modification or genetic manipulation, is the modification and manipulation of an organism’s genes using technology.
It is a set of technologies used to change the genetic makeup of cells, including the transfer of genes within and across species boundaries to produce improved or novel organisms. New DNA is obtained by either isolating and copying the genetic material of interest using recombinant DNA methods or by artificially synthesizing the DNA. A construct is usually created and used to insert this DNA into the host organism. The first recombinant DNA molecule was made by Paul Berg in 1972 by combining DNA from the monkey virus SV40 with the lambda virus. As well as inserting genes, the process can be used to remove, or “knock out”, genes. The new DNA can be inserted randomly, or targeted to a specific part of the genome.
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What are the 3 most important principles for storing food safely?.
The 3 most essential principles for storing meals adequately keep excessive-chance meals at five °C or below or above 60 °C to keep away from the temperature threat sector and food poisoning. shop raw ingredients underneath cooked meals. store meals in appropriate, covered boxes.
Principles offer us an understanding of the world around us, among us, and inside us, the know-how of the way matters appear and why they happen the manner they do. therefore, standards are possibly the most essential type of content material for us to include in the majority of our coaching. A precept is a type of rule, belief, or idea that courses you. you can additionally say a terrific, ethical person has a lot of concepts. In standard, a principle is some form of the fundamental fact that facilitates you with your life. "Be fair" is a principle that publications (or should guide) the general public and organizations.
A basic idea or rule that explains or controls how something happens or works: The u . s. a . is run on socialist ideas. The gadget works according to the precept of electromagnetic conduction.
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What is the difference between the biological meaning of adaptation and the common meaning.
The common definition of adaptation is the act or process of changing to better suit a situation, whereas the biological definition is the mechanism by which organisms adapt to new environments or changes in their current environment.
What are the types of Adaptation?1) Adaptations to the Structure
These are the physical characteristics of an organism that aid in its survival in the environment, including the various types of terrestrial habitats. Physical changes are related to physical environment changes.
2) Behavioural Modifications
This is a change that affects an organism's behaviour. This could be due to changes in the surrounding environment or the actions of other species.
3) Physiological Changes
Physiological adaptations, like structural adaptations, involve physical changes in the species. However, physiological adaptations are not always visible in the appearance of the organism. This type of adaptation can be caused by environmental changes or by the behaviour of other species.
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A stomach cell is producing pepsin, an enzyme that hydrolyzes proteins. Which of the following events suggests that gene expression of pepsin has been turned off in the cell? The chromosome with the pepsin gene is tightly coiled.
The chromosome with the pepsin gene is tightly coiled.
What is hydrolyzes proteins?The process by which genetic information travels from genes to proteins is referred to as "gene expression." Transcribed genes, an operator, and a promoter make up a gene operon.
Proteins known as transcription factors are activated by signals from the environment or from other cells. These proteins affect the level of transcription by attaching to regulatory areas of a gene.
Genetic transcription and translation are the two steps in the process of gene expression, which involves converting the data contained in a gene first into messenger RNA and subsequently to a protein.
Genome: the complete set of genetic information contained in an individual. gene expression: the activation or "turning on" of a gene that causes transcription and the production of mRNA.
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how can cells, such as kidney cells and connective tissue cells, become specialized to carry out certain functions?
The reason that cells perform different functions is because a certain cell type might activate or silence a particular gene which not be the case of the other cell. Hence, some cells are expressed in some cells while remain silent in the others. In this way, cells become specialized to perform their functions such as kidney cells and connective tissue cells, become specialized to carry out certain functions.
DNA makes up genes. Many genes do not, however, encode proteins. Genes in humans can range in size from a few hundred DNA bases to more than 2 million bases. There are two sorts of cells: prokaryotic cells, which lack a nucleus but still have a nucleoid area, and eukaryotic cells, which have a nucleus. Prokaryotes are single-celled creatures, whereas eukaryotes can be either single-celled or multicellular.
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which statement about ribosomes is true? a. they are made of dna and proteins b. the ribosomal proteins are made inside the nucleus c. the small and the large subunits assemble in the cytoplasm d. if we treat a ribosome with urea and beta-mercaptoethanol, it will still function
True, the small and the large subunits assemble in the cytoplasm.
What are ribosomes?All cells contain ribosomes, which are macromolecular organisms that carry out biological protein synthesis (mRNA translation). To make polypeptide chains, ribosomes combine amino acids in the order directed by the codons of messenger RNA (mRNA) molecules. The ribosomal subunits are the parts of ribosomes. The ribosomes and accompanying molecules are also referred to as the translational apparatus. Numerous ribosomal proteins and one or more ribosomal RNA (rRNA) molecules make up each subunit (RPs or r-proteins).. A messenger RNA chain is generated from the DNA sequence that determines the order of the amino acids in a protein. Messenger RNAs are linked by ribosomes, which use their sequences to determine the proper organization of amino acids to produce a specific protein. Transfer RNA (tRNA) molecules choose which amino acids to convey to the ribosome and then bind to the messenger RNA chain via an anti-codon stem loop. There is a specific transfer RNA that must precisely match the anti-codon of each coding triplet (codon) in the messenger RNA and carries the appropriate amino acid for incorporation into a developing polypeptide chain. After the protein has been created, it can fold to create a useful three-dimensional structure.
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Which layer of the intestinal wall contains most of the smooth muscle and controls the majority of intestinal movements?.
The majority of the smooth muscle in the intestinal wall is found in its smooth muscle layer, which also regulates most intestinal motions.
What are the two layers of gastrointestinal tract that regulate motility comprised of?The innermost tunic of the wall is called the mucosa, also referred to as the mucous membrane layer. The lumen of the GI tract is lined with it. The mucosa is composed of the epithelium, a layer of loose connective tissue beneath called the lamina propria, and a thin layer of smooth muscle called the muscularis mucosa. The mucosa creates folds that in some places increase the surface area. Certain mucosal cells release hormones, enzymes for digestion, and mucus. The ducts of other glands pass through the mucosa and into the lumen. In the mouth and anus, the epithelium is stratified squamous tissue, where thickness is necessary for abrasion protection. a simple columnar epithelial layer that is thin.
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Suppose that for a certain gene, nearly 100 percent of the normal level of expression is required to produce the normal phenotype. Based on this requirement, one could predict that a _________ mutation would be _________.
Suppose that for a certain gene, nearly 100 percent of the normal level of expression is required to produce the normal phenotype. Based on this requirement, one could predict that a loss of function mutation would be recessive.
What is a gene?
The fundamental physical and functional unit of heredity is a gene. DNA constitutes genes. A chromosome is a lengthy DNA strand with numerous genes on it.
The relationship between two variants of a gene is described as dominant. Every gene has two different variations, or alleles, that an individual inherits from each parent. One allele will be expressed when there are different alleles of a gene; this allele is the dominant gene. Recessive, the other allele, has little or no effect.
Alleles with wild types often code for a substance required for a particular biological process. The function that it encodes for is also lost if a mutation arises in that allele. These mutations are known as loss-of-function mutations in general. The function can be lost to varying degrees. A null mutation is one in which the function has completely disappeared. It's also conceivable that some function might endure, but not to the same degree as the wild type allele. They are referred to as leaky mutations.
Mutations that cause loss of function are often recessive. When the wild-type allele and the loss-of-function allele are heterozygotes, the level of expression of the wild-type allele is frequently enough to produce the wild-type phenotype. This would categorize the loss-of-function mutation as recessive in terms of genetics. On the other hand, the wild type allele might not make up for the loss-of-function allele. In those situations, the heterozygote's phenotype will be identical to that of the loss-of-function mutant, and the mutant allele will take the role of the dominant allele.
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If the frequency of pku, an autosomal recessive disease, is 1% in males, what is the frequency of females with pku?.
If the frequency of pku, an autosomal recessive disease, is 1% in males, the frequency of females with pku is also 1%.
What is an autosomal recessive disease?An autosomal recessive disease occurs when you inherit two changed genes (mutations), one from each parent. These disorders are usually passed on by two carriers. The health of the individuals is rarely affected, but they have one changed gene (recessive gene) and one unaffected gene (dominant gene) for the condition.
Assuming that the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, If the frequency of pku, an autosomal recessive disease, is 1% in males, the frequency of females with pku is also 1%.
Examples of autosomal recessive diseases include cystic fibrosis, sickle cell anemia, and Tay-Sachs disease.
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Staphylococcus aureus produces ________, an enzyme that results in the accumulation of fibrin around the bacterial cells, and the test for it helps to diagnose it.
The Staphylococcus aureus enzyme that causes fibrin to build up around the bacterial cells and aids in the diagnosis of the infection is coagulase.
What is the significance of the enzyme coagulase?S. aureus produces a number of enzymes, including coagulase (bound and free coagulases), which makes it easier for fibrinogen to turn into fibrin, which is crucial for the formation of clots in skin infections. It is a protein enzyme that allows fibrinogen to be changed into fibrin by a variety of bacteria.
Coagulase test- Additionally, it is used to differentiate between several Staphylococcus isolate kinds in the lab. If the coagulase test is positive, it indicates that S. aureus or any of the other coagulase-positive Staphylococci are present. Instead, a negative coagulase test may indicate the presence of organisms that lack the enzyme.
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Egrets are birds that walk into the shallow waters of marshes and wetlands to catch fish and insects with their long beaks. which short-term environmental change is most likely to directly affect a population of egrets along the coast of florida? drought earthquake forest fire
Answer: drought
Explanation:
because it needs to get the fish from the water so it wouldn't be able to if the fish were no longer there.
hope this helps :)
Answer:
A. Drought
Explanation:
An adult feels the need to urinate when the _____________ contains 300 to 350 ml or urine.
Answer:
body
Explanation:
because it's obvious
Individuals with pku tend to have high levels of _______ in their blood because they have an inactive variant of an _______.
People with PKU cannot break down the amino acid phenylalanine, which then accumulates in the blood and brain. This can lead to brain damage.
Phenylketonuria (commonly known as PKU) is an inherited disorder that increases the levels of a substance called phenylalanine in the blood. Phenylalanine is a building block of protein (an amino acid) that is obtained through the diet. It is found in all proteins and some artificial sweeteners.
Patients with phenylketonuria (PKU) have a diet-controlled deficiency in the conversion of phenylalanine (Phe) to tyrosine (Tyr), leading to decreased production of norepinephrine, adrenaline, and dopamine.
A genetic change (genetic mutation) causes PKU, which can be mild, moderate, or severe. In a person with PKU , a change in the phenylalanine hydroxylase (PAH) gene causes a lack or reduced amount of the enzyme needed to process phenylalanine, an amino acid.
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outline the steps involved in the feeding pathway for the entry of galactose into glycolysis (2 pts). g
The Leloir pathway named for Luis Federico Leloir, who discovered the overall mechanism of galactose utilization is the set of stages by which this happens.
What is the galactose pathway?The Leloir pathway is used to digest galactose, allowing it to go through either gluconeogenesis or glycolysis. The conversion of -d-galactose to -d-galactose by mutarotase is the first step in this route.
What is the glycolysis feeder pathway?As we'll be defining it here, a feeder pathway for glycolysis is essentially something that feeds glucose or another starting material into the pathway. As we shall see, the beginning material may be a monosaccharide, a disaccharide, or a polysaccharide (such as glycogen or starch).
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The name of the botanist who devised a hierarchical system for classifying species was.
Carolus Linnaeus devised a hierarchical system for classifying species
Carl Linnaeus, also called Carl von Linné or Carolus Linnaeus, is frequently known as the father of Taxonomy. His system for naming, ranking, and classifying organisms is still in wide use nowadays (with many adjustments). His ideas on type have inspired generations of biologists for the duration of and after his very own lifetime, even the ones opposed to the philosophical and theological roots of his work.
He advanced a way to name and organize species that we nevertheless use nowadays. His maximum important contributions to taxonomy were:
A hierarchical classification system
The system of binomial nomenclature (a 2-part naming method)
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Do genes contain instructions for assembling DNA?.
Genes do contain the instructions for assembling DNA, but they are not the only factor involved. The other factor is the proteins that make up the cell’s machinery.
The cell’s machinery is responsible for reading the genes and then using the information to assemble the DNA. The proteins that make up the cell’s machinery are called enzymes. Enzymes are like little machines that can read the genes and then put the DNA together.So, to answer the question, genes do contain the instructions for assembling DNA, but they are not the only factor involved. The other factor is the enzymes that make up the cell’s machinery.
Some scientists believe that genes do contain instructions for assembling DNA, while others believe that genes only provide the blueprint for assembling DNA and that the actual assembly is carried out by proteins. The answer to this question may be discovered through further research into the function of genes and their role in the cellular process of DNA replication.
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most exotoxins fall into three general categories that reflect their structure and general mechanism of action. what are these three categories?
The three categories include :
Super-antigensMembrane-damaging toxins,A-B toxinsWhat do you mean by Exotoxins ?
An exotoxin is a toxin secreted by bacteria.It can cause damage to the host by destroying cells or disrupting normal cellular metabolism. They are highly potent.They cause major damage to the host. The body's major defense against exotoxins is the production of antitoxin antibodies.They are used as carriers for the delivery of heterologous molecules.They elicit an immune response and as agents in the development of cell-specific chemotherapy.To know more about Exotoxins from the given link
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a type of intercellular junction is formed by a desmosome which involves an attachment of a cell to an adjacent noncellular surface true false
Answer:
True
Explanation:
Desmosomes are intercellular junctions that provide strong adhesion between cells
a parent cell starts with 40 chromosomes. how many chromosomes will each daughter cell possess after meiosis ii?
At the end of meiosis II, each cell (i.e. gamete) would have half the original number of chromosomes, i.e. 15 chromosomes.
After meiosis II, when each parent cell divides into two gametes, each gamete cell contains 23 chromosomes. In this phase, each gamete remains haploid in nature. At the end of meiosis II, each cell will have half of the actual chromosome, that is, 23 chromosomes. At the end of this process, a single cell produces two new daughter cells, each with the same amount of genome as that present in the parent (initial) cell. Therefore, a cell with 40 chromosomes during the onset of mitosis will produce daughter cells with 40 chromosomes. Option C is mitosis for a diploid organism. 14. D: G1 phase is prior to replication. During prophase I, all chromosomes are made up of 2 sister chromatids and we have not yet divided the genetic material, so the correct answer is 40 chromosomes x 2 chromatids/chromosome = 80 chromatids.
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in negative control, a(n) protein binds to dna to gene transcription. group of answer choices repressor, prevent activator, prevent repressor, increase activator, increase
Proteins called transcription factors help turn particular genes "on" or "off" by attaching to surrounding DNA.
A gene's transcription is boosted by transcription factors that serve as activators. Reducers lessen transcribing.
An enhancer or silencer is a collection of transcription factor binding sites that can turn a gene on or off in a particular region of the body.
Cells can "decide" whether to express a gene by using transcription factors to execute logic operations and incorporate several sources of information.
Introduction: Do you possess any transcriptional regulators You'll struggle to maintain your cells functioning if the answer is no, therefore I really hope it is!
Proteins called transcription factors control the transcription of genes, which is the copying of genes into RNA before they are used to make proteins.
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What causes DNA to twist in to a twisted ladder or a double helix?.
The DNA backbone, which alternates deoxyribose and phosphate strands, causes the DNA to twist into a double helix or twisted ladder shape.
The DNA's backbone is made up of alternating phosphate and deoxyribose strands. Due to the joining of two strands, it bends. Due of DNA's spatial need, this happens. Histones, a protein, enable it to coil and supercoil. The GC bond possesses three hydrogen bonds, compared to the AT bond's two. More DNA couldn't be present in the nucleus if it uncoil and unfolded. DNA stability is provided by the twisted motif. As a result, it has a twisted shape.
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Select the correct answer.
Which of the following vessels derive from the aortic arch?
O A. Right common carotid artery
О B. Right subclavian artery
O C. Brachiocephalic trunk
O D. All of the above
Vessels derive from the aortic arch is Brachiocephalic trunk.
What is Brachiocephalic trunk?One of the three major vessels of the aortic arch that carries blood to the head, neck, and upper extremities is the brachiocephalic artery, also known as the brachiocephalic trunk or, more popularly, the innominate artery.The brachiocephalic trunk, sometimes referred to as the brachiocephalic or innominate artery, is the second branch to emerge from the aorta. The right sternoclavicular joint is where it splits into its final branches after traveling upward from the aortic arch through the superior mediastinum.The right subclavian and right common carotid arteries emerge from the brachiocephalic artery after a brief superior journey.
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question balance is influenced by the responses cochlea cochlea basilar membrane basilar membrane eardrum eardrum auditory nerve auditory nerve semicircular canals
Your inner ear contains three tiny, liquid-filled tubes called semicircular canals that aid with balance. The fluid in the semicircular canals sloshes around as your head rotates, moving the fine hairs that line each canal.
Your inner ear's loop-shaped canals house fluid and tiny, hair-like sensors that aid with balancing. The utricle and saccule, each comprising a patch of sensory hair cells, are located at the foot of the canals. These cells contain tiny particles called otoconia that assist in tracking how your head moves in response to gravity and other linear motions like riding in a car or going up and down an elevator. The semicircular canals are three incredibly tiny, fluid-filled tubes that are found in the inner ear and are primarily responsible for controlling balance and detecting head position. They are regarded as a component of the body's vestibular system. They are situated in the bony labyrinth of inner ear , a network of cavities in the temporal bone of the skull, along with the cochlea and vestibule, organs connected to hearing.
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the immune system provides protection against many types of threats. identify the types of cells, organisms, and infectious agents that are recognized by the immune system. check all that apply. cancer cells, bacterie, viruses, a person's own skin cells, prions, transplanted cells from a donor
the immune system provides protection against cancer cells, bacteria, viruses, a person's own skin cells, prions, transplanted cells from a donor.
How does immune system provide protection?The immune system defends the body against disease and infection, including cancer, and shields it from potentially harmful elements like germs and viruses. Immune system cells constantly circulate throughout the body, scanning for potential invaders such as bacteria. Antigens, which are proteins on the surface of the invading cells, are used by the immune system to identify invaders. Every substance or cell has a unique set of antigens, and every person's cells include "self-antigens" that are particular to that person. Self-antigens are found on normal human cells such thyroid, liver, and colon cells. Self-antigen-containing cells normally pose little danger. However, since invader germs do not come from the body, they do not carry self-antigens but rather what are referred to as "nonself-antigens. The immune system is built to recognize cells that contain non-self antigens as dangerous and react accordingly. To communicate with other immune cells and manage the body's response to threats, the majority of immune cells release cytokines (messengers).
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which of the following products of the light reactions of photosynthesis is consumed during the calvin cycle? view available hint(s)for part a which of the following products of the light reactions of photosynthesis is consumed during the calvin cycle? nadph oxygen adp pi water sugar
The calvin cycle uses ATP and NADPH, the byproducts of photosynthesis' light reactions.
What elements of the photosynthesis process are used in the Calvin cycle?NADPH and ATP are the byproducts of the light reactions of photosynthesis that are used in the Calvin cycle. Sunlight raises the energy level of photosystem II electrons during the light reactions. As the electrons move along the electron transport chain, a gradient of hydrogen ions is produced.
Each produces a triose phosphate (C₃H₇O₆P) molecule after consuming one ATP and one NADPH molecule. The cycle generates triose phosphates, of which one-sixth is used in pathways for the synthesis of carbohydrates. The remaining triose phosphates are retained and go through the regeneration phase.
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Complete the replicative cycle of a virus with a single-stranded genome that can function as mRNA.
(fig)
During a virus's single-stranded genome's replication cycle, infected cells release additional virus particles, which can then invade uninfected cells.
How can viruses with single-stranded RNA replicate?One of two distinct methods—RNA-dependent RNA synthesis or, in the case of retroviruses, RNA-dependent DNA synthesis (reverse transcription) followed by DNA replication and transcription—is used by RNA viruses to replicate their genomes.
RNA viruses produce mRNA in what ways?RNA polymerase encoded by the virus and packed inside the virion produces the mRNAs. Enzymes contained within the virion cap and methylate the RNA. After that, it is extruded from the capsid's vertices. The viral proteins produced by the translation of the mRNAs come together to form an immature capsid.
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