Developing a nursing diagnosis using the North American Nursing Diagnosis Association (NANDA-I) involves a systematic process. First, the patient’s problems or concerns must be identified by using assessment data, observations, and reports from other healthcare team members.
Identify the patient’s problems or concerns, using assessment data, observations, and reports from other health care team members.Select a nursing diagnosis from the North American Nursing Diagnosis Association (NANDA-I) list of diagnoses that best describes the patient’s problem.Review the definition of the diagnosis to confirm that it accurately describes the patient’s condition.Identify the nursing intervention(s) related to the diagnosis that will be implemented to address the patient’s problem.Identify expected outcomes that will indicate the patient has achieved the desired level of functioning.Develop a plan of care that outlines the nursing interventions, time frames, and expected outcomes.Monitor the patient’s progress to determine if the interventions and expected outcomes are being achieved.Evaluate the patient’s progress and modify the plan of care as needed.Learn more about nursing: https://brainly.com/question/6685374
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___ medicine is a body of preserved treatment practices that has been handed down verbally from generation to generation.
Folk
Traditional Chinese Medicine (TCM) is a body of preserved treatment practices that has been handed down verbally from generation to generation.
Traditional Chinese Medicine (TCM) is an ancient form of medicine that has been used for thousands of years. It is based on the belief that the body is a delicate balance of yin and yang, with qi (energy) flowing through it. To restore balance and health, TCM uses herbs, acupuncture, massage, diet, and lifestyle modifications to treat diseases and illnesses. It is a holistic approach to healthcare, designed to treat the root cause of a condition and not only the symptoms.
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the 7-year-old child is joining a dance class. the child insists the parent stay in the dance room, frequently requests to use the bathroom, and refuses to join in the actual dance activity until the last 5 minutes of the class. when discussing the child's behavior with the parent, the nurse will base the instruction on which temperament style?
This is a slow-to-warm-up child.
When discussing this temperament with parents, try to use positive terms such as, "ways to find a healthy fit for your child," rather than stressing the ways the child is hard to manage.
Based on personality traits and formative experiences, a person's temperament determines how they act and portray themselves. The way you respond to situations is determined by your temperament, which is consistent. It's a technique for identifying persistent personality features.
According to one study, temperament is determined by brain-stem functions. The brain stem that is unique to each individual is fixed throughout life. People can change even while the brain stem does not, despite what some may believe. The personality of a youngster develops with time.
Rather, as they learn more about the world and develop new types of behaviour, people can add them to their temperament. Consider how kids react to stimuli and how their reactions evolve over time.
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Why does the buildup of tar in the bronchioles limit air flow ?
The buildup of tar in the bronchioles limits air flow because it narrows the airways and reduces their elasticity.
Tar is a sticky, black substance that is produced by the burning of tobacco in cigarettes. When tar accumulates in the bronchioles, the airways become narrower and less elastic, reducing the flow of air. This makes it difficult to breathe and increases the effort required bronchioles to inhale and exhale. Additionally, the accumulation of tar can cause inflammation and swelling in the airways, further limiting air flow. Over time, the repeated exposure to tar can cause damage to the airways, leading to chronic bronchitis, emphysema, and other chronic obstructive pulmonary diseases (COPD). To prevent the buildup of tar in the bronchioles and the associated health problems, it is important to avoid exposure to tobacco smoke and to seek treatment if you smoke.
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a nursing student who describes cell characteristics that include regulated growth, genetic stability, limited lifespan, and growth factor dependence is talking about which type of cell?
The type of cell described by a nursing student is a normal cell.
Normal cells have certain characteristics that are important for the proper functioning of the body's tissues, organs, and systems. These cells can reproduce, stop reproducing when necessary, remain in a certain location, carry out certain functions, and self-destruct when necessary.
The following are the characteristics of normal cells:
Cell reproduction is needed to replace dead, damaged, or destroyed cells. Normal cells reproduce in a correct and controlled manner. Except for sex cells, all body cells reproduce by mitosis. Sex cells reproduce through a process called meiosis.Cells communicate with other cells through chemical signals. These signals help normal cells know when to reproduce and when to stop. Cell signals are usually delivered to cells via certain proteins.Cells have adhesion molecules on their surface that allow them to stick to other cell membranes. Adhesion helps cells to be in the right location as well as helps transmit signals between cells.Cell specialization, normal cells can develop into specialized cells. For example, cells can develop into heart cells, brain cells, lung cells, or other cells.Cell death, normal cells have the ability to self-destruct when infected or damaged. This ability is referred to as apoptosis. The remaining cells are then removed by white blood cells.Learn more about the characteristics of normal cells at https://brainly.com/question/14213129
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a student nurse is taking home a print-out from the electronic health record in order to have data to complete a care plan. which protected health information (phi) must the student remove prior to taking the print-out home? (select all that apply.)
The protected health information (phi) must the student remove prior to taking the print-out home are: (i) date of care (ii) insurance group number (iii) room number (iv) birth date
Any information that can be used to identify the patient should be removed: demographics, name, address, telephone number, date of birth, identifying numbers such as medical number, room numbers, insurance numbers, and specific dates of care.
Marital status is not specific enough, race, ethnicity, and age to identify a person.
Therefore, The protected health information (phi) must the student remove prior to taking the print-out home are:
date of careinsurance group numberroom numberbirth dateTo know more about health information refer to:
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Complete Question:
The student nurse is taking home a print out from the electronic health record in order to have data to complete a care plan. Which protected health information (PHI) must the student remove prior to taking the print out home? (Select all that apply)
(A) date of care
(B) medical conditions
(C) insurance group number
(D) room number
(E) medication list
(F) birth date
(G) marital status
the staff nurse knows that many health care facilities use the fire emergency response defined by which acronym?
The staff nurse knows that many health care facilities use the fire emergency response defined by RACE which is the term for rescue, alarm, contain, and extinguish.
R.A.C.E. : An abbreviation used by hospital workers to recall their responsibilities in the event of a fire. It is an acronym that stands for RESCUE, ALARM, CONFINE, and EXTINGUISH/EVACUATE.
If it does not threaten your own life, R = RESCUE anybody in imminent danger from the fire. By triggering the fire alarm system, A = ALERT. C = Shut down all windows and entrances to CONFINE the flames. E = EXTINGUISHER or EVACUATE if the fire is too huge.
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Complete question :
The staff nurse knows that many health care facilities use the fire emergency response defined by which acronym?
a. RACE
b. PASS
c. PACE
d. QSEN
Your patient is not responsive and is not breathing. You can palpate a carotid pulse. Which action do you take next?
A. apply an AED
B. obtain a 12-lead ECG
C. start an IV
D. start rescue breathing
Your patient is not responsive and is not breathing. You can palpate a carotid pulse. The action to take next is to apply an AED as soon as possible would be correct alternative. Option A is correct alternative.
If a person is unresponsive and not breathing, it is a cardiac arrest. When this happens, the heart stops beating, and the person loses consciousness and stops breathing.
To revive them, it is essential to restore the heartbeat. In such a scenario, the first step is to call for emergency services and then apply an AED (Automated External Defibrillator).
An AED is a device that analyzes the heart's rhythm and gives a shock if needed, which can help restart the heart.
Starting an IV (Intravenous) is not necessary in this situation, and a 12-lead ECG (Electrocardiogram) is not necessary as an initial step. Similarly, rescue breathing, where you manually pump air into the person's lungs, is not the first step in this situation as it will not restore the heartbeat.
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a pregnant client in her first trimester visits the health care facility for regular checkups. the nurse instructs the client to increase her dietary intake of folic acid based on the understanding that folic acid is important for which action?
The nurse instructs the client to increase her dietary intake of folic acid in her first trimester based on the understanding that folic acid is important for: decreasing incidence of birth defects.
Folic acid is actually the name of Vitamin B. It is essential for synthesizing healthy new cells of the body. This is the reason why high folic acid intake is necessary during pregnancy. It reduces the neural tube defects and helps to synthesize DNA and supports placental and fetal growth.
First trimester refers to the first three months of pregnancy in human females. It is the most crucial stage of the development of the fetus as most of the body starts developing at this stage. The mother's body also undergoes severe changes at this time.
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the nurse is offering an demonstration session on what is done in group. which client(s) would the nurse determine as conveying a message? select all that apply.
Attending the nurse's demonstration session on what is done in group could be beneficial for all clients, regardless of their individual needs.
New clients could get an overview of the process and understand the expectations of the group. Clients who have difficulty understanding group dynamics could learn how to interact with others and comprehend the behaviors of others in the group.
Clients who have difficulty communicating in group settings can practice their communication skills and learn strategies to better communicate with other group members. Those needing help developing interpersonal skills could learn social skills and develop the ability to empathize with others.
Clients who are unsure of the expectations of group therapy could gain clarity on what is expected of them in the group. Lastly, those struggling to stay engaged in group sessions can learn techniques to stay connected to the group and become more invested in the group process.
Complete Question:
Which of the following clients would benefit from attending the nurse's demonstration session on what is done in group? Select all that apply.
1. A client who is new to group therapy
2. A client who has difficulty understanding group dynamics
3. A client who has difficulty communicating in group settings
4. A client who needs help developing interpersonal skills
5. A client who is unsure of the expectations of group therapy
6. A client who is struggling to stay engaged in group sessions
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a 29-year-old g1 p0 woman at 40 weeks gestation presents to labor and delivery because of contractions and ruptured membranes. her prenatal course was uncomplicated. her vital signs are: blood pressure 140/96, pulse 72 beats/minute, afebrile, fundal height 36 cm, and estimated fetal weight of 3300 g. cervix is 6 cm dilated, 100% effaced, 0 station. the fetal heart rate tracing for the last hour has minimal variability and no accelerations. of the following, what is the initial step in the management of this patient?
Answer:
make sure the patient is stable before the patients baby. if the patient dies the baby automatically dies. so keep the patient stable in order to help save the baby.
the nurse is watching a group of infants playing in an infant room at day care. when analyzing the developmental characteristics exhibited, which infant would the nurse identify as being approximately 3 months of age?
Tthe nurse is watching a group of infants playing in an infant room at day care. when analyzing the developmental characteristics exhibited, the following infant would the nurse identify as being approximately 3 months of age : infant laying prone with a colorful toy in front.
A 3-month-old baby can smile at your voice, pay attention to sounds, and pay close attention to moving objects and faces. roll over. Towards the end of the month, your baby may try to roll off your tummy onto your back. Babies typically master this skill at about 5 months, but you can start practicing now.
At three months, babies begin to experience developmental characteristics like emotions and communication. They respond to different facial expressions, recognize your voice, and turn their heads when they hear you. They may start laughing out loud and looking around in wonder - especially on their fingers and toes.
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what are the most common errors when constructing partial denture mcq improper survey, bad positioning of the occlusal rests, incorrect design
RPDs may cause more plaque to accumulate around the abutment teeth, which may cause gum disease and caries denture (tooth decay).
Pressure as well as movement of something like the partial might cause injury to the abutments or gums. Bone loss can happen when teeth are missing, and over time, it may harm nearby teeth. Due to movement along the rotational axis, distally expanded RPDs frequently have clinical issues with retention and stability. According to the findings, Kennedy class I was the most prevalent type of partial edentulism, whereas class IV was the least common. An infection is the most frequent issue that develops following the installation of a denture implant. Actually, this is the most frequent problem that arises for patients after any surgical surgery.
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a 19-year-old man is seen in a walk-in clinic with a chief complaint of burning with urination. the clinician directs the teenager to an urgent care facility for diagnosis and treatment. the teen is triaged, and a physician later sees him. the young man notes that he has had urethral itching, painful urination, and a discharge for approximately 4 days. the physician suspects an sti and orders some tests. further history reveals that the teenager has had multiple sexual partners the past few months. based on known transmission patterns, the physician suspects that the young man has gonorrhea. gonorrhea is often seen by an accompanying infection of:
Gonorrhea is often seen by an accompanying infection of: Option B: Chlamydia.
Burning while urinating is the main complaint of a 19-year-old male who visits a walk-in clinic. In order to diagnose and treat the teen, the practitioner refers him to an urgent care centre. A doctor later sees the teen after the teen is triaged. A discharge and painful urine, as well as urethral itching, had been plaguing the young man for almost four days. The doctor orders certain tests because he thinks it might be a STI. The teenager's recent history is further revealed to have included a number of sexual partners. The doctor believes the young man may have gonorrhoea based on recognized transmission patterns. An illness that frequently coexists with gonorrhoea is Option B is chlamydia.
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Complete Question is:
•A 19-year-old man is seen in a walk-in clinic with a chief complaint of burning with urination. The clinician directs the teenager to an urgent care facility for diagnosis and treatment. The teen is triaged, and a physician later sees him. The young man notes that he has had urethral itching, painful urination, and a discharge for approximately 4 days. The physician suspects a STI and orders some tests. Further history reveals that the teenager has had multiple sexual partners the past few months. Based on known transmission patterns, the physician suspects that the young man has gonorrhea. Gonorrhea is often seen by an accompanying infection of:
1. Syphilis
2. Chlamydia
3. Herpes
4. Molluscum contagiosum
when the chest x-ray for a client who has arrived at the emergency department with chest trauma shows multiple fractured ribs, which action will the nurse take next
Check for paradoxical movement of the chest wall.
Images of your heart, lungs, circulation arteries, passageways, and the bones in your spine and chest are created by chest X-rays. When the lungs remain clear and strong, they should seem dark, similar to how air appears on an X-ray—not quite black.
Because there is tissue in the lungs, but still pretty dark. It's important to take note if the lungs appear to have areas of density within them. Numerous conditions affecting the lower lung, such as lung infections, are associated with chronic coughing.
An abnormal lung x-ray can reveal some of them, including lung infections. Asthma is one of the common causes of lungs, nevertheless. Depending on the form of cancer or how far has gone, there are many treatment options.
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After the nurse dresses a patient's wound, which nursing intervention would help prevent the contamination of that previously cleaned wound?
After the nurse dresses a patient's wound, the nursing intervention which would help to prevent the contamination of that previously cleaned wound is cleaning the wound from the center to the surrounding skin.
You can wet gauze pads by immersing them in wound cleaning solution and wringing away the extra, or you can use a spray bottle to administer the solution to the gauze while washing the wound from the centre to the surrounding skin. Utilize a clean gauze pad for each wipe as you move from the least polluted area to the most contaminated area.
Debridement of wounds is the process of eliminating dead tissue. The dead tissue could be white, tan, yellow, grey, black, or grey. The wound may potentially have foreign objects on it. It might have to be taken out. If dead tissue needs to be removed from your wound, your doctor who treats wounds will inform you of this.
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a nurse is caring for a client on the unit who is attempting to manipulate the staff. which description of the client made by a nurse demonstrates strength-based communication?
A nurse demonstrating strength-based communication would describe the client as, "An individual who is resourceful and resilient in their efforts to advocate for their needs."
What is strength-based communication?Strength-based communication is a type of communication that focuses on highlighting the strengths, skills, and assets of individuals and groups. It is based on the idea that everyone has unique talents and abilities that can be used to overcome challenges and achieve success. Strength-based communication encourages individuals to recognize and build on their own strengths, as well as those of others, to create a positive and supportive environment.
This approach differs from traditional forms of communication that focus on fixing weaknesses or problems. Strength-based communication seeks to empower individuals by encouraging them to take an active role in their own development and to use their strengths to overcome challenges and achieve their goals. It also fosters positive relationships and creates a sense of community, as individuals work together to build on each other’s strengths. Strength-based communication is effective in a variety of settings, including education, health care, and the workplace.
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Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) performs what roles in the body? Select all that apply:* A. Inactivates bradykinin by breaking it down B. Dilates vessels C. Causes the kidneys to keep sodium and water D. Converts Angiotensin I to Angiotensin II
The role of Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) in body is to converting the enzyme( ACE) that plays an important part in the body’s cardiovascular system.
ACE is responsible for the conversion of Angiotensin I to Angiotensin II, a hormone that increases blood pressure. ACE also inactivates bradykinin, a peptide that causes vasodilation. This inactivation helps keep blood pressure regulated. In addition, ACE causes the feathers to reabsorb sodium and water, which helps regulate blood volume and pressure.
ACE is an essential enzyme in the body, as it helps to maintain homeostasis of the cardiovascular system.
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what is the term for slender, hair-like extensions used by bacilli and spirilla for locomotion?
The term for slender, hair-like extensions used by bacilli and spirilla for locomotion is "flagella."
Flagella are whip-like appendages that are found on the surface of some bacterial cells and are used for motility and navigation. They are made up of a protein called flagellin, which is assembled into a long, flexible structure that rotates like a propeller to propel the bacterium through its environment.
In bacilli, flagella are usually located at one or both ends of the cell, while spirilla have flagella that are arranged in a spiral pattern around the cell. The number and arrangement of flagella can vary among different bacterial species, and the presence or absence of flagella can be used as a criterion for classifying different types of bacteria.
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the nurse is administering otic medication to a 22-month-old with a diagnosis of otitis media. which nursing action ensures that the medication is distributed appropriately?
The nurse is administering otic medication to a 22-month-old with a diagnosis of otitis media, so for proper functioning of the medications, the nurse should gently pull the earlobe down and outward.
What is the significance of the otic medication?Otic medications are commonly used in both children and adults to relieve pain caused by bacterial infections as well as to reduce swelling and inflammation in the ear and also stop the infection.
Hence, the nurse is administering otic medication to a 22-month-old with a diagnosis of otitis media, so for proper functioning of the medications, the nurse should gently pull the earlobe down and outward.
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the manner in which health care is delivered is quite complex. health care options can range from a general practitioner in a local rural clinic to a neurology specialist in a large research hospital. according to , all of these health care providers interact with one another according to certain simple rules.
The manner in which health care is delivered is quite complex. Health care options can range from a general practitioner in a local rural clinic to a neurology specialist in a large research hospital. According to d. complexity theory, all of these health care providers interact with one another according to certain simple rules.
What is the complexity theory?The complexity theory is a model used in science life related fields such as medicine to understand the process of uncertainty and/or nonlinearity.
Therefore, with this data, we can see that the complexity theory can be used to decipher phenomena associated with uncertainty and/or nonlinearity in biology and also in non related fields.
Complete question:
Fill in the blank space. The manner in which health care is delivered is quite complex. Health care options can range from a general practitioner in a local rural clinic to a neurology specialist in a large research hospital. According to ________, all of these health care providers interact with one another according to certain simple rules.
a. contingency theory
b. a closed market system
c. a webbed system
d. complexity theory
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Identify a true statement about the initial experiments carried out in the 1960s on self-administration of morphine on monkeys.
True statement: The monkeys were allowed to experience the initial stages of withdrawal in the initial experiments
The "self-administration" behavioral paradigm represents the human illness of addiction using an animal behavioral model. Animal test participants are operant-conditioned to carry out a single action during the task—typically, pressing a lever—in exchange for a medication.
Drug self-administration techniques give researchers a way to investigate addiction in the lab under carefully controlled circumstances. In these techniques, a human volunteer or animal subject makes a response—such as pulling a lever—that causes a dose of a drug—such as cocaine or heroin—to be administered.
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The following question may be like this:
Identify a true statement about the initial experiments carried out in the 1960s on self-administration of morphine on monkeys.
Multiple choice question.
The monkeys were allowed to experience the initial stages of withdrawal in the initial experiments.These experiments were based on the predominant view that drug use is driven by behavioral dependence.The monkeys were directly attached to the morphine-releasing apparatus without a controlling equipment.These experiments concluded that drug use is driven by a combination of acute and chronic toxicity of the drug.When asked about their motivation for drug use, high school seniors have frequently cited __________. A. dissatisfaction with their parents B. parental abuse C. economic hardship D. peer influence
Answer:
D. peer influence
Explanation:
an ultrasound on a woman who is 32 weeks pregnant reveals the placenta implanted over the entire cervical os. what does the nurse understand best describes this condition?
This condition is known as placenta previa. Placenta previa occurs when the placenta implants itself over the entire cervical opening (the opening of the uterus). This condition can cause severe bleeding during labor and delivery and can be a potential risk to both the mother and baby.
Placenta previa is a condition that occurs when the placenta implants itself over the entire cervical opening. This can be a potentially dangerous condition for both the mother and baby, as it can lead to severe bleeding during labor and delivery. Women who have this condition will usually require a cesarean section delivery, as the placenta blocks the baby's passage through the birth canal. It is important to diagnose this condition early in a pregnancy, as women may experience vaginal bleeding, which is the most common symptom of placenta previa.
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which physiological changes would the nurse expect to find in a client with a 20-year history of type 2 diabetes? blurry, spotty, or hazy vision
Physiological changes found in clients with a history of type 2 diabetes for 20 years are blurred vision.
What is diabetes?Diabetes is a disease characterized by high levels of sugar in the blood. Glucose is a source of energy for human body cells. However, in diabetics, glucose cannot be used by the body.
Type 2 diabetes occurs when the body's cells become less sensitive to insulin so that the insulin they produce cannot be used properly. This condition is also known as insulin resistance. Physiological changes that usually appear in people who have diabetes are blurred vision, weight loss without cause, and wounds that are difficult to heal.
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a client asks the nurse what the difference is between osteoarthritis (oa) and rheumatoid arthritis (ra). which response is correct?
The difference between osteoarthritis (oa) and rheumatoid arthritis is that "OA is a non inflammatory joint disease. RA is characterized by inflamed, swollen joints." Thus option 1 is correct.
What is osteoarthritis?The most prevalent kind of arthritis, osteoarthritis, affects millions of individuals worldwide. When the protective cartilage that cushions the ends of the bones gradually deteriorates, it happens.
Although osteoarthritis may harm any joint, it most frequently affects the hands, knees, hips, and spine joints.
Although the damage to joints cannot be repaired, osteoarthritis symptoms are often manageable. Being physically active, keeping a healthy weight, and obtaining certain therapies may decrease the disease's course and aid with pain relief and joint function.
Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune illness that develops when your immune system unintentionally targets the tissues in your own body.
Rheumatoid arthritis damages the lining of your joints, resulting in a painful swelling that may eventually lead to bone erosion and joint deformity, unlike osteoarthritis, which causes damage from wear and strain.
Rheumatoid arthritis-related inflammation is what causes harm to other bodily components as well. Even with the tremendous improvements in treatment choices brought about by new drug classes, severe rheumatoid arthritis can still result in physical impairments.
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A client asks the nurse what the difference is between osteoarthritis (OA) and rheumatoid arthritis (RA). Which response is correct?
"OA is a noninflammatory joint disease. RA is characterized by inflamed, swollen joints.""OA affects joints on both sides of the body. RA is usually unilateral.""OA is more common in women. RA is more common in men.""OA and RA are very similar. OA affects the smaller joints and RA affects the larger, weight-bearing joints."which dietary assessment tool furnishes an overall picture of the diet but requires the ability to judge portion sizes?
Food Frequency Questionnaire assessment tool furnishes an overall picture of the diet but requires the ability to judge portion sizes.
A food frequency questionnaire (FFQ) includes a limited selection of foods and drinks along with response options that reflect the typical frequency of consumption during the time period in question. Typically, 80 to 120 different foods and drinks are questioned in order to evaluate a person's diet as a whole.
For each type of food and beverage, you can inquire about the typical serving size. Alternately, you can integrate information on portion size and frequency by asking respondents to convert their typical consumption amount to the number of predetermined units (for example, How often do you eat a 12 cup of rice?). In an effort to improve reporting accuracy, some questionnaires contain pictures of portions.
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During an abdominal assessment, the nurse elicits tenderness on light palpation in the right lower quadrant. The nurse interprets that this finding could indicate a disorder of which of these structures?
Answer:A physician or nurse practitioner may assess for rebound tenderness, which involves palpating in the right lower quadrant and quickly removing one's hand. Positive rebound tenderness (pain when the assessor removes their hand) is often indicative of appendicitis.
Explanation:
after reading a research article about fall risk, the nurse would expect to see what finding in those who have developed a fear of falling?
After reading a research article about fall risk, the nurse would expect to see an increased risk of falling in those who have developed a fear of falling.
Fear of falling is a common concern among older adults and can result in decreased physical activity and mobility, which can in turn increase the risk of falling. This is because reduced activity and mobility can lead to muscle weakness, decreased balance, and reduced endurance, all of which can increase the risk of falls. In addition, the fear of falling can lead to a decreased sense of confidence, making it more difficult for individuals to participate in activities that they once enjoyed and that are important for maintaining their physical and mental well-being.
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list eight potential health benefits of a person engaging in a regular, comprehensive exercise program. then describe at least two possible mechanisms by which exercise may enhance health status.
Eight potential health benefits of regular, comprehensive exercise are:
Reduced risk of chronic diseases such as cardiovascular disease, type 2 diabetes, and certain types of cancer.Improved mental health and reduced symptoms of depression and anxiety.Better weight management and body composition.Improved muscle and bone strength and density.Improved cardiovascular function and respiratory endurance.Increased insulin sensitivity and glucose control.Improved cognitive function and decreased risk of cognitive decline and dementia.Better sleep quality and reduced symptoms of insomnia.Mechanisms by which exercise may enhance health status:
Increased Insulin Sensitivity: Exercise has been shown to increase insulin sensitivity, leading to improved glucose control and reduced risk of type 2 diabetes.Improved Cardiovascular Function: Regular exercise has been shown to improve cardiovascular function, including increased heart strength and improved circulation. This can help reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease and stroke.Learn more about health here: https://brainly.com/question/13179079
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for which prescription would the nurse seek clarification when reviewing the plan of care for the geriatric client with less than adequate nutritional intake? have client sit in a chair for meals to prevent aspiration of food/liquid into the lungs.
The prescription for which the nurse should seek clarification for the geriatric client with less than adequate nutritional intake is: (3) Give one can of diet supplement at 8 am and 4 pm.
Nutrition refers to the balanced intake of nutrients or food components for a healthy body. A meal is said to be full of nutrition when it can fulfil most of the body's requirements of nutrients. The nutrients include: vitamins, minerals, proteins, carbohydrates, fats, etc.
Diet supplements are the synthesized form of nutrients. They can be in the form of pills, tablets, powder, liquid, etc. They are consumed to meet the nutrient demands of the body that cannot be fulfilled from the diet. In geriatric clients they must be prescribed after meal as they can reduce the hunger.
The given question is incomplete, the complete question is:
For which prescription would the nurse seek clarification when reviewing the plan of care for the geriatric client with less than adequate nutritional intake?
1) Have client sit in a chair for meals
2) Provide six small feedings in 24 hours
3) Give one can of diet supplement at 8 am and 4 pm
4) Encourage the client's family members to bring food from home
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