Explain thoroughly salinity, density, oceanic currents, and temperature as it relates to density. Oregon’s Rain shadow effect.

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Answer 1

Salinity (from Latin: salinitas) is a measure of the amount of salts existing in natural bodies of water. The density of a body is defined as the quotient between the mass and volume of that body. Ocean current or marine current is a continuous and directed flow of water within the ocean, being generated by forcings such as wind and Coriolis effect. Rain shadow, also known as Chinook or Föhn effect, consists of an area usually surrounded by mountains that has much lower precipitation rates than the surrounding area.

What is Rain shadow effect?

Mountains and other topographic features can have a tremendous influence on precipitation. Rain shadows can be some of the driest places on Earth; The Atacama Desert, in the shadow of the Andes Mountains, can go decades without receiving any rain. Several factors, including prevailing winds, topographic features, and local weather patterns contribute to the formation of rain shadows or dry regions on the sheltered side of some mountain ranges.

Prevailing winds are predictable winds that occur frequently in specific locations. When a mountain range runs perpendicular to the prevailing winds, the winds carry moisture towards those mountains on the downwind side. If the winds have an extensive search - the distance the wind is able to travel over open water - the air will accumulate considerable moisture. When prevailing winds push this moisture-laden air against topographic features like mountains, forcing it upward, rain results.

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Related Questions

Drag the 20 mwco membrane to the membrane holder between the beakers

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To simulate simple diffusion using a dialysis machine, first fill the left beaker with a solution containing specific solutes such as sodium chloride, urea, albumin, glucose, etc., and fill the other right beaker with the solute.

What is the further procedure?

Put no deionized water and gradient. A semi-permeable dialysis membrane should be placed between the cups to allow diffusion. Dialysis membranes with different pore sizes in the right corner are indicated by MWCO20, MWCO50, MWCO100, and MWCO200. The smaller ones have smaller pore sizes and the larger ones have the largest pores. The larger the pore size, the easier the diffusion of solutes.

Start with pore size MWCO20. First pull the MWCO20 dialysis membrane from the right corner and place it between the cups. Then fill the cup with the appropriate solution. You must read the text before starting the activity. The first activity is in Na+/Cl- solution. Adjust the concentration of this solution to 9 mM on the left and press the dispense button. Now you can see the solution dispensed into the left cup. The right beaker should contain 0 mM deionized water. Simply press the deionized water button, then press the dispense button. Then you have to set the time

To do this, set the timer to 60 minutes and press start. Wait for the timer to reach zero to see if diffusion has occurred. Information is displayed in the message window. A message will appear stating that there is no diffusion. This indicates that there was no diffusion through the MWCO20 membrane, indicating that the pore size is too small for ions to diffuse. Repeat this experiment with urea, albumin and glucose and record the results. Note that the cup must be rinsed and refilled with new solution each time.

Now replace MWCO20 with MWCO50 and start the experiment with Na+/Cl- solutions. In MWCO50, diffusion occurs from the left cup to the right cup and the message window displays the average diffusion rate and time. Measurements such as MWCO pore size, initial left soluble concentration mM, initial right soluble concentration mM, and average diffusion rate can be recorded in the table below. Repeat the experiment for albumin, urea and glucose and record the measurements.

Therefore, Now repeat the experiment at MWCO100 and MWCO200 for each solution to see if diffusion occurred and record the measurements.

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The complete question is:

How do you do a simulating Dialysis? Drag the 20 mwco membrane to the membrane holder between the beakers?

Which of the following carbohydrates is a polysaccharide? A. glucose. B. fructose. C. sucrose. D. starch.

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The accurate solution is option (B) i.e, Starch , glycogen , cellulose. Note: Polysaccharides own the subsequent characteristics as they do now no longer have a candy taste, Many of them are insoluble in water.

Polysaccharides are polymeric carbohydrate structures, shaped of repeating devices both mono- saccharides( e.g., glucose , fructose , galactose) or di-saccharides ( e.g., sucrose, lactose) joined collectively with the aid of using glycosidic bonds. They variety in shape from linear to rather branched. Polysaccharides are complicated biomacromolecules which can be made up chains of monosaccharides. The bonds that shape those chains are glycosidic bonds. Commonly discovered monomer devices in polysaccharides are glucose, fructose, mannose and galactose which can be easy sugars.

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Match the region of the uterine tube with its description.

1. free, funnel-shaped lateral margin
2. expanded region medial to infundibulum
3. extends medially from ampulla to uterus
4. continuous with the uterine wall

-infundibulum
-ampulla
-isthmus
-uterine part

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All the region of the uterine tube with its description is below.

What is uterine tube?

The uterine tubes or we can say  oviducts or fallopian of  tubes, are the females structures of that transport to  the ova from the ovary in the uterus each month. By  the presence of sperm and the  fertilization, the uterine  tubes transport the fertilized the eggs to the uterus for the implantatio.

1. Free funnel shaped with lateral margin is infundibulum

2 Expanded region medial to infundibulum is ampulla

3.Extend medially from ampulla to uterus is isthimus

4. Continuous with uterine wall is uterine part.

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in the last question, you calculated the frequency of the deleterious allele in the population. how many individuals in the village would be carriers for this disease?

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Individuals in the village would be carriers for this disease is 32%. The frequency of the deleterious allele in the population. 32% individuals in the village would be carriers for this disease.

Step 1: Calculate the frequency of carriers. Carriers are individuals who have one copy of the deleterious allele.

Frequency of carriers = 1- (frequency of deleterious allele)^2

Step 2: Calculate the population size.

Population size = Frequency of carriers x total population

Step 3: Calculate the number of carriers.

Number of carriers = Population size x Frequency of carriers

For example, if the frequency of the deleterious allele was 0.02 and the total population was 100, the number of carriers would be 1.96 (rounded to 2). This means that 2 individuals in the village would be carriers for the disease.

The frequency of a wave is the number of complete wave cycles that occur in a given amount of time, usually measured in Hertz (Hz). Frequency is inversely proportional to the wavelength of a wave, meaning that as the frequency increases, the wavelength decreases. Frequency is also related to the speed of a wave, with higher frequencies corresponding to faster wave speeds.

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Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive disease that affects the lungs and digestive system. A young couple named Sara and Daniel are interested in having a child. Neither Sara or Daniel nor either of their parents have cystic fibrosis, but Sara and Daniel both have siblings who have the disease. a)What are the genotypes of both Sara and Daniel’s parents? b)What is the probability that Sara and Daniel are carriers for the disease? (Do the parental Punnett square and remember they DON’T have the disease,) c)Using the probability from part b, what is the chance that, if they are both carriers, their child will have the disease?

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Cystic fibrosis is only expressed by individuals who have two copies of the mutated recessive allele. A) the genotypes of both Sara and Daniel’s parents is heterozygous Cc. B)  the probability that Sara and Daniel are carriers is 50%. C) Assuming Sara and Daniel are carriers, they have 25% chances of having an affected children.

What is Cystic fibrosis?

Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal affection caused by the recessive allele of a diallelic gene.

Most people have two copies of the normal allele and produce the functional CFTR protein form.

Patients with cystic fibrosis have two copies of the mutated recessive allele and so produce the mutated and dysfunctional form for this protein.

Heterozygote people possess only one normal CFTR allele and a mutated form for the same allele and produce a normal protein and a mutated protein.

The normal allele produces enough functional CFTR protein, so these individuals do not have any adverse effect and the mutated allele is recessive at a physiological level.

In the exposed example,

Sara and Daniel express the normal phenotypeSara and Daniel's parents express the normal phenotypeSara and Daniel's siblings have the disease ⇒ they are homozygous recessive fro the trait.

To answer the question, we will call C to the normal allele and c to the mutated allele.

a) What are the genotypes of both Sara and Daniel’s parents?

Knowing Sara and Daniel have siblings with the disease, we can assume their normal parents are heterozygous for the trait and each of the transmitted a recessive allele to that sibling. This is the only way these individuals could express the affection.

The genotype of Sara and Daniel’s parents is Cc.

b) What is the probability that Sara and Daniel are carriers for the disease?

Assuming their parents are heterozygous for the trait, the probabilities of being carriers (Cc) are 50% for each of them.

This is because when crossing two heterozygous individuals, the proportions among the progeny are 25% homozygous dominant, 50% heterozygous (carriers) and 25% homozygous recessive.

Parentals) Cc   x   Cc

Gametes) C   c      C    c

Punnett square)    C       c

                      C    CC     Cc

                       c    Cc      cc

F1)  25% of the progeny is expected to be CC, expressing the normal phenotype.

      50% of the progeny is expected to be Cc, expressing the normal phenotype.

      25% of the progeny is expected to be cc, expressing cystic fibrosis.

c) Using the probability from part b, what is the chance that, if they are both carriers, their child will have the disease?

Assuming both parents are heterozygous, each of them has 50% chances of transmitting the recessive allele to their progeny.

In this case, the chances of havin an affected children is 25%.

There are 25% chances of having and homozygous recessive children.

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The following is a map of four genes on a chromosome.
A---5--W--3--E------12------G
Between which two genes would you expect the highest frequency of recombination?

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Given that the map distance between W and G is equivalent to 15 centimorgans, we may infer from the list of chromosomes and the aforementioned question that we should anticipate 15% recombination between W and G gene. It's option (B).

A centimorgan (cM), which is a unit that describes a recombination frequency of 1%, is used to measure map distance. And based on this criterion, we can infer that the lowest frequency of recombination, or 3%, is expected to occur between W and E. Let's assume that P is the epistatic gene that controls the formation of the tail.

According to the question, the genotype of the female is ppTT and the genotype of the male is PPtt because the male lacks a tail and is recessive homozygous for the tail length gene. The female is long-tailed and the dominant epistatic allele P specifies that no tail is formed. The offspring that is produced after mating has the genotype PpTt and the phenotype "no tails." Currently, two springs with the identical PpTt genotype are being crossed. Therefore, punnette square can be used to calculate the consequent ratio.

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Correct Question:

The following is a map of four genes on a chromosome. A---5--W--3--E------12------G. Between which two genes would you expect the highest frequency of recombination?

a. A and G

b. W and G

c. W and E

d. A and W

e. E and G

Closure/Coping is acceptance of a loss.

Answers

Closure is acceptance of a loss.

The right response is completion. A grieving individual finds closure when they acknowledge the truth of their loss. the recognition of loss. 8. Coping is the ability to skillfully navigate through challenging life transitions.Accept the suffering and examine your grief. Don't merely reply, "Everything is OK," when friends inquire how you are doing. Recognize your struggles. Find a support network. Consult with a bereavement counsellor. Think about how you feel about the things you've lost. The stages of grief—denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance—can be cycled through (often quickly) when we are experiencing persistent, traumatic bereavement. These phases represent our efforts to protect ourselves and process change as we adjust to a new reality.Understanding that your loved one has passed away is one thing, but accepting the loss on an emotional level is another. Accepting how much they meant to you and how their death will affect your life might also mean acknowledging how much they meant to you.

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a biological experiment measures the abundance of two different proteins in three different conditions. the goal of the problem is to predict the presence/absence of certain enzyme based on the abundances of the two proteins in each of the experimental conditions. the data for enzyme whose presence we are trying to predict are

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The information for the enzyme whose existence we're attempting to forecast is b= +1-1-1, where +1 denotes the enzyme's presence and -1 denotes its absence.

What information would be required to determine an enzymatic reaction's rate?

The amount of substrate converted to product over time is used to calculate the rate of an enzyme reaction. Molar concentrations, or moles of substance per volume, are frequently used to describe the amounts of substrates and products when discussing rates.

How is enzyme activity measured?

In the majority of enzymatic tests, the rate of substrate consumption or product generation during a specified time period is used to compute the enzyme activity. The rate of NADH oxidation is watched in the case of PDC and ADH.

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in the united states, approximately one child in 10,000 is born with pku (phenylketonuria), a syndrome that affects individuals homozygous for the recessive allele (aa). calculate the frequency of this allele (a) in the population.

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The prevalence of this allele in the community is around 2% of the U.S. population.

Using Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium,

q2 = 1 ÷ 10,000 = 0.0001

q = √0.0001 = 0.01

p = 1 − q = 1 − 0.01 = 0.99

The carriers are heterozygous. Therefore, 2pq = 2 (0.99 × 0.01) = 0.0198 = 1.98%

According to the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, genetic diversity in a population will remain constant throughout time in the absence of disruptive factors.

By adding appropriate the alleles & dividing them by the number of alleles analyzed, we may get the values of p & q in a reasonable sample of people from a community.

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Alveoli are kept clean by the action of

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Alveoli are kept clean by the action of macrophages.

Macrophages are a type of white blood cell of the immune system that engulfs and digests pathogens, such as cancer cells, microbes, cellular debris, and foreign substances, which do not have proteins that are specific to healthy body cells on their surface.[1][2] The process is called phagocytosis, which acts to defend the host against infection and injury.

These large phagocytes are found in essentially all tissues,[4] where they patrol for potential pathogens by amoeboid movement. They take various forms (with various names) throughout the body (e.g., histiocytes, Kupffer cells, alveolar macrophages, microglia, and others), but all are part of the mononuclear phagocyte system. Besides phagocytosis, they play a critical role in nonspecific defense (innate immunity) and also help initiate specific defense mechanisms (adaptive immunity) by recruiting other immune cells such as lymphocytes. For example, they are important as antigen presenters to T cells. In humans, dysfunctional macrophages cause severe diseases such as chronic granulomatous disease that result in frequent infections.

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In the growth curve of a bacteria population, the bacteria are rapidly increasing in number in the A. lag phase.
B. exponential (log) phase.
C. stationary phase.
D. decline phase.
E. boomer phase.

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the bacteria are rapidly increasing in number in the exponential (log) phase. Then B should be an appropriate.

In which phase of the growth curve of a bacteria are the bacterial numbers rapidly increasing?After the log phase, cell numbers increase exponentially. The number of microbes in an exponentially increasing population increases slowly at first, then extremely rapidly.In autecological studies, the growth of bacteria in batch culture can be modeled with four different phases, are: lag phase, log phase or exponential phase, stationary phase, and death phase.Main conditions to do, to make bacteria need to grow rapidly is to create a suit environment to them. Bacteria can live in hotter and colder temperatures than humans, but they do best in a warm, moist, protein-rich environment that is pH neutral or slightly acidic.

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At a distance of 6 meters, a person with average vision is able to clearly read letters 1.0 cm high.

Approximately how large do the letters appear on the retina? (Assume that the retina is 1.7 cm from the lens.)

Answers

The image of letters that appear on retina will be of height 0.00283 m and will be inverted.

What does the term "magnification" mean and how it is calculated?

Magnification is the process of visually enlarging an object, not physically increasing its size but only increasing its apparent size.The ratio of the image's height to the object's height is represented by the formula for magnification. Additionally, the letter "m" stands for the object's magnification. Additionally, its formula is Magnification (m) is equal to h/h'. Here, the object's height is represented by h and its height by h'.

How to calculate and form equations?

It is given in the question that,

Object separation, u = 6 meters

Lens distance from retina is v = 1.7 cm = 0.017 m.

Height of the object: hu = 1.0 m

here, magnification = [tex]-\frac{v}{u}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{hv}{hu}[/tex]

now, -[tex]\frac{o.o17}{6}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{hv}{1}[/tex]

[tex]hv = \frac{-0.017}{6}[/tex]

[tex]hv = -0.002833m[/tex]

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A sample of mice (all from the same parents) shows 58 Black hair, black eyes | 16 Black
hair, red eyes | 19 White hair, black eyes 7 | White hair, red eyes
Your tentative hypothesis: The parents are both heterozygous for both traits.

Answers

The parents are heterozygous for two loci

How to illustrate the information?

This is an example of dihybrid cross as the ratio come to be around 9:3:3:1 for phenotype.

58 black hair black eyes

16 black hair red eyes

19 white hair black eyes

7 white hair red eyes

Alleles are mutated or alternative forms of genes found at loci. A cross can be used to test whether the parents are heterozygous for two loci.

The parent of a dihybrid cross has a cross involving two characters.

Parent generation : Male genotype WWRR * Female genotype wwrr

phenotype: Black hair black eyes White hair red eyes

W allele is for Dominant Black hair over recessive w allele for white hair

R allele is for Dominant Black eyes over recessive r allele for red eyes

F1 generation: WwRr * WwRr

F2 generation: The total gametes form would be 4 as the formula for the gametes is 2n where n is total number of heterozygotes which is 2 (Ww and Rr).

Here, we will get;

Black hair, black eyes (W_R_) =9

Black hair, red eyes (W_rr) =3

White hair, black eyes(wwB_) =3

White hair, red eyes(wwrr) =1

This shows that the parents are heterozygous for two loci as proven by the above dihybrid cross.

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which of the following is not true? question 1 multiple choice options oxygen 16 evaporates more readily from the ocean than oxygen 18 oxygen 16 and oxygen 18 are found in roughly equal amounts in ocean water the nucleus of oxygen 18 contains two more neutrons than the nucleus of oxygen 16 both oxygen 16 and oxygen 18 are found in the shells of marine organisms

Answers

Oxygen 16 and oxygen 18 are found in roughly equal amounts in ocean water is not true.

Both oxygen-16 and oxygen-18 are isotopes of the element. The O-16 isotope, which is lighter and indicates a warmer environment, and the O-18, which is heavier and is a reliable indicator of a colder climate The effects of both components, namely precipitation and evaporation, are responsible for these climatic variations.Because the lighter O-16 isotope evaporates more quickly, there is a lot of O-18 in the ocean in tropical areas where the temperature is relatively high. Additionally, because O-18 is significantly heavier than O-16 and begins to condense as it begins to rain, the water droplets that are created during rainfall are enriched with O-18.Due to ongoing processes like precipitation and evaporation, it is usually discovered that Oxygen-16 and O-18 are present in different amounts or proportions in ocean water.

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Farmers who use genetic engineering to grow pesticide-resistant crops: a,need to frequently till the soil to reduce Weed growth b. waste ilrigation water fiom runoff reduce the Use of petroleum and energy d.contribute to soil depletion decrease tlle Hutrient content of foods

Answers

The correct answer (C) a, need to frequently till the soil to reduce Weed growth.

Genetic engineering (also called genetic modification) is a process that uses laboratory-based technologies to alter the DNA makeup of an organism. This may involve changing a single base pair (A-T or C-G), deleting a region of DNA or adding a new segment of DNA.

What three kind of genetic engineering are there?

DNA extraction: DNA is taken out of an organism that has the desired characteristic and is known to exist. Gene cloning involves finding and copying the desired gene. Gene modification: By changing and replacing gene sections, the gene is transformed to express in a desired manner.

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Full question :Farmers who are using genetic engineering to grow pesticide-resistant crops are: Select one: a. helping to decrease environmental pollution. b. wasting irrigation water from run-off. c. contributing to soil depletion. d. increasing the cost of foods.

transport of glucose from the intestine into the intestinal cell is accomplished by a(n) . this is an example of .

Answers

Transport of glucose from the intestine into the intestinal cell is accomplished by symporter. this is an example of secondary active transport

Glucose is absorbed through the gut by way of a transepithelial shipping system initiated on the apical membrane via the cotransporter SGLT-1; intracellular glucose is then assumed to diffuse across the basolateral membrane via GLUT2.

Intestinal epithelial cells use lively transport to fulfill their particular function because the cells that transfer glucose from the digested meals to the bloodstream.

Glucose transporters are a extensive group of membrane proteins that facilitate the transport of glucose throughout the plasma membrane, a procedure referred to as facilitated diffusion

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the pathophysiologic process responsible for the hemolytic-uremic syndrome is that: a. an autoimmune disorder in which immunoglobulin a (iga) coats erythrocytes that are destroyed by the spleen and remnants are excreted through the kidneys. b. failure of the nephron to filter urea increases the blood urea nitrogen, which binds to erythrocytes that are subsequently destroyed by the spleen. c. endotoxins from e. coli block the erythropoietin produced by the kidneys, which reduces the number of erythrocytes produced by the bone marrow. d. verotoxin from e. coli is absorbed from the intestines and damages erythrocytes and endothelial cells.

Answers

The pathophysiological process responsible for the hemolytic-uremic syndrome is d. verotoxin from e. coli is absorbed from the intestines and damages erythrocytes and endothelial cells.

What is a hemolytic-uremic syndrome?

The hemolytic uremic syndrome is an immune system disorder that causes kidney failure, thrombocytopenia (low levels of platelets), and anemia (low levels of red blood cells). Disorders of the immune system most often occur after an infection in the digestive tract.

The hemolytic uremic syndrome is the most common cause of acute kidney failure in children.

The toxins contained in the germs that cause digestive infections trigger an overreaction of the immune system. This results in excessive destruction of red blood cells and platelets. In addition, excessive immune reactions also cause injury to the kidneys.

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The cell membrane maintains homeostasis by selectively allowing certain molecules to _______________ and others to _____________.

Answers

The cell regulates or maintains homeostasis through selective permeability. This means that the cell membrane only allows certain things into

What chromosome belong to a normal human male?

Answers

Biologically male people typically have one X and one Y chromosome (XY), whereas biologically feminine people often have two X chromosomes.

Males have one X and one Y chromosome, while females have two X chromosomes. A karyotype is a representation of each pair of each of the 46 chromosomes. 46, XX for a typical female karyotype and 46, XY for a typical male karyotype. Your gender is typically determined by your sex chromosomes. Men are XY, and women are XX. However, some women are actually men genetically.

The biological sex of an individual is determined by the X and Y chromosomes, also referred to as the sex chromosomes: females inherit an X chromosome from the father for an XX genotype, while males inherit a Y chromosome for an XY genotype.

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the alleles of the i gene determine the abo blood groups. the ab blood group is an example of interaction between a multiple allelic series with the following alleles: ia, ib and i alleles. a woman with type b blood has a child with type a blood. she is unsure of who the father is among two young men she has known. one of them is type a and the other is type o. what can be concluded concerning the paternity of this child?

Answers

A woman with type B blood has a child with type A blood then the Father has blood type A.

Human blood is determined by codominant alleles. IA, IB, and i are the three distinct alleles. The IA and IB alleles are codominant, while the i allele is recessive.

Type A and Type B individuals can be either homozygous (IAIA or IBIB, respectively) or heterozygous (IAi or IBi, respectively) for the blood group. Type AB and Type O are the other possible human phenotypes.

A child can be born to a parent with the A blood type and another with the B blood type. It is possible to have a child with either the A, B, or AB blood type if one parent has A and the other has AB. It is possible to have a child with either the A or O blood type if one parent has A blood and the other has O blood.

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the cellular machine comprised by rna polymerase, dna template and a nascent mrna is referred to as?

Answers

RNA polymerases are the enzymes involved in transcription. RRNA makes up the majority of a RNA in cells; mRNA makes up about 3-5% of a cell's total RNA.

To create a fresh, complementary RNA molecule, RNA polymerase employs a single Stranded dna (the template to make) as a template. Termination is the procedure that puts a stop to transcribing. The RNA sequences that indicate that the translation is finished rely on termination. Where does the transcription of a gene to mRNA by RNA polymerase start? It begins following a certain nucleotide pattern known as a promoter. What role does RNA polymerase play? The expanding strand of RNA receives nucleotides as the double helix is unwound. RRNA genes are transcribed by RNA polymerase I, mRNA, miRNA, snRNA, or snoRNA genes are transcribed by RNA polymerase II, while tRNA & 5S rRNA genes are transcribed by RNA polymerase III. Answer and justification Comparisons between DNA and RNA A Template dna strand is needed for polymerases.

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which of the following may represent the sequence of one strand of a dna palindrome recognized by a restriction enzyme?
5' ATGGAT 3'
5' ATGATG 3'
5' ATGGTA 3'
5' ATGCAT 3'

Answers

To produce reproducible fragments and unique gel electrophoresis, these enzymes break DNA at set places relative to their recognition sequence.

What series constitutes a palindrome?

When the sequences reading 5' (five-prime) to 3' (three prime) forward on one strand match the sequences reading 3' to 5' on the complementary strand with which it forms a double helix, they are said to be palindromic.

A DNA sequence: what is it?

Finding the nucleotide sequences of DNA molecules is a skill called DNA sequencing. Name at least two available techniques for DNA sequencing. One technique of sequencing is by hand. chemical sequencing using maxam-gilbert and sanger chain termination.

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plants were the first organisms to use the process of photosynthesis to convert energy from the sun into useable energy by the cell.

Answers

Plants are multicellular, green, eukaryotic organisms that use the process of photosynthesis to transform solar energy into chemical energy.

What is photosynthesis ?

Green plants and certain other animals use a process called photosynthesis to convert light energy into chemical energy. The process of turning water, carbon dioxide, and minerals into oxygen- and energy-rich organic compounds is known as photosynthesis, and it takes place in green plants.

The role of photosynthetic processes in sustaining life on Earth cannot be overstated. Food and other organic materials on Earth would quickly become scarce if photosynthesis stopped. In time, the majority of creatures would vanish, and the atmosphere of Earth would eventually be almost entirely devoid of gaseous oxygen. Only chemosynthetic bacteria, which can use the chemical energy of specific inorganic substances and are not dependent on the conversion of light energy, would be able to survive in such a setting.

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which choice best describes the kind of information genes contain according to mendel's predictions? responses mutated mutated irregular irregular hereditary hereditary consistent

Answers

Genes best describe the kind of information genes contain according to Mendel's predictions.

What instrument is utilised in Mendelian genetics to forecast outcomes?

The percentages of phenotypes in a cross's progeny from known genotypes can be predicted using a Punnett square. Based on the other genotypes involved in the cross, a missing genotype can be identified using a Punnett square.

What is Mendel's heredity theory?

He concluded that genes are inherited from each parent as separate, paired units. Mendel observed how parental genes separated and if they showed up as dominant or recessive qualities in the children. He was aware of the mathematical patterns passed down from one generation to the following.

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Answer: pretty sure it's mutated

Explanation:

Which element is important in directly triggering contraction? a. sodium (Na') b. calcium (Ca $^{++}$ ) c. potassium (K^) d. chloride (Cl)

Answers

Option B, calcium (Ca++) element plays a crucial role in triggering causing contraction.

Act two miles in complex, which is what triggers the contraction of, is formed as a result of calcium binding to troponin.Striated muscle contracts as a result of calcium. Actomyosin is present in striated muscle. (1) Tropomyosin covers the actin-based myosin-binding sites in striated muscle in the relaxed state. (2) When calcium attaches to troponin C, the troponin complex undergoes a conformational shift. The protein complex troponin binds to calcium, active-binding sites to start the muscular contraction cycle.

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Dendrites Axon Axon hillock Axolemma Myelin sheath Aven clabral) AxoplasmAxon collateral Cell body Telodendria Axon terminals Search the web and Windows ^ 4 司ENG 7/5/2017

Answers

In certain neurons, the axon connects directly to the dendrites. The axon conducts an action potential in this configuration towards the direction of the cell body. An axon's (axolemma's) plasma membrane contains proteins that enable it to generate and conduct action potentials.

Is the term axon the same as axon hillock?

A little hillock known as the axon hillock is where the axon emerges from the cell body. The first segment is located close to the axon hillock in the proximal portion of the axon. There are several thick bundles of microtubules and neurofilaments in the cytoplasm of the axon (axoplasm).

The axon and axon hillock are what?

The connection between the cell body and an axon is the axon hillock. After gathering these signals, the axon sends them to specialized endpoints known as axon terminals, which synapse on other neurons, muscles, or organs. Signals can be transmitted to neighboring cells thanks to chemicals secreted at axon terminals.

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polypeptides in the er are usually larger than polypeptides synthesized from the same mrna that have not entered the er. (True or False)

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True because the size of polypeptides inside the ER is typically less than that of polypeptides made from the same mRNA. On the rough ER, proteins for plasma membrane transmembranes are synthesized.

How do polypeptides behave in the ER?

As a result, these polypeptides fold into their three-dimensional conformations within the ER with the aid of the molecular chaperones that aid in polypeptide chain folding. For instance, BiP, a chaperone from the Hsp70 family, is one of the main proteins in the ER lumen.

How is a polypeptide sequence selected to enter the endoplasmic reticulum (ER)?

The interaction of the signal peptide sequence, which is a sequence of at least eight hydrophobic amino acids at the amino-terminal end of the polypeptide, results in targeting the endoplasmic reticulum. A "signal recognition particle" joins with the emerging signal sequence (SRP).

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The bulk of each tooth consists of a mineralized matrix similar to that of bone called A) enamel. B) cementum C) dentin. D) pulp D) periodontium.

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Dentin, a mineralized matrix comparable to that of bone, makes up the majority of each tooth.

The dentin, which is found below the enamel and plays a significant role in tooth construction, When tooth decay exposes the dentin, the last layer before the dental pulp cavity, which contains the nerves and blood vessels, many issues may arise.

Dentin comes in a few distinct varieties, and dentists classify them according to how near the dental pulp they are. Dentin comes in various forms.

Dentin that is nearest to the enamel is primary dentin, often known as mantle dentin by dentists.

Secondary dentin, often known as adventitious dentin by dentists, lines the interior of the dental submucosa.

Dentists refer to tertiary dentin as reparative dentin since it only develops in response to oral health problems like cavities, teeth chattering, or other stimuli like mouth injuries.

The majority of tooth mineralized tissues are made up of a thick layer of dentin. In the root, dentin is covered by cementum, a structure involved in the connection of the teeth to the bone socket, and the dentin is capped by a crown comprised of highly mineralized and protective enamel.

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What test did you pick to distinguish your two organisms Enterobacter aerogenes and Serratia Fonticola?

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The fast gramme positive test used to distinguish between serratia and Enterobacteriaceae is different from both.

The large family Enterobacteriaceae contains opportunistic gram-negative microorganisms called Serratia species. Serratia are significant in the environment, but they are a common component of the flora found in human faeces. In terms of pathogenicity, Serratia marcescens is the most prevalent species.So it has been desired to quickly differentiate Serratia from Enterobacter. Serratia takes only five minutes to produce the blue-inexperienced indigo shadeation, but Enterobacter takes half an hour.

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According to the Residency Review Committee, the training program for an Internist should include:

1) Geriatrics, pediatrics, dermatology, ophthalmology
2) Psychiatry, neurology, orthopedics, dermatology
3) otolaryngology, orthopedics, and dermatology,office gynecology,ophthalmology
4) Office gynecology, orthopedics. Otolaryngology

Answers

According to the Residency Review Committee, the training program for an Internist should include Geriatrics, pediatrics, dermatology, ophthalmology.

Dermatologists treat conditions affecting both adult and pediatric patients' skin, hair, nails, and surrounding mucous membranes. All diseases are recognized, including viral infections, skin cancer, tumors, and inflammatory skin problems. They also do skin biopsies and other dermatology-related surgical procedures. Pediatricians identify and manage their patients' conditions from infancy through adolescence. Pediatricians not only offer preventative care but also identify and treat common children ailments including asthma, allergies, and croup. Geriatrics, also referred to as geriatric medicine, is a field of medicine that specializes in treating the unique medical needs of the elderly. The term "geriatrics" has its roots in the Greek words geron, which means "old man," and iatros, which means "healer."

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