Yes, it is true that external validity refers to the ability to generalize results from a research study sample to a larger population.
What does a study's external validity entail?
The degree to which you may extrapolate a study's results to different people, places, situations, and measurements is known as its external validity. The goal of scientific study is to generate knowledge that can be applied to the real world.
What does research generalizing validity mean?
Refer to how well a study's findings may be applied to and compared between populations of people, contexts, times, outcomes, and treatment modifications. You might find it useful to think of generalizing validity as another name for external validity.
What dangers does study design's external validity face?
It's critical to identify and address threats to external validity in a research design for a solid study. In just two months, a researcher aims to explore the notion that regular mindfulness practice can be beneficial for persons with clinical diagnoses of mental disorders.
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Prompt
Brainstorm a way to make a dangerous sport less dangerous. Describe your solution completely and explain the effects it
will have. Feel free to change rules and assumptions or conditions of the game.
Answer:
A sport that I think is dangerous and can be made less dangerous is football.
Explanation:
Football is also referred to as soccer and it's a game that involves kicking of the ball. During soccer, there are situations whereby there are kicks to the groin area and this is extremely dangerous. The groin is the area that's between the stomach and thigh. Groin pain can be caused by muscle strain or when an individual is kicked in the area. Most sports with no protection equipment such as tennis or basketball should require some types of shoe to ensure safety, like soccer, or equipment to protect vital areas of the body such as joints. They could also make rules about necessary breaks for players such as whether a person has used up their breaks needs one but isn’t allowed to
A therapist is treating a person with borderline personality disorder. What treatment would you recommend as a therapist , based on current research?
Based on the current research, the treatment that can be given is dialectical behavioral therapy.
What is dialectical behavioral therapy?Dialectical behavior therapy (DBT) is a type of counseling. It is based on cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), but it has been specifically tailored for people who experience intense emotions.
DBT's goal is to assist you in understanding and accepting your difficult feelings.
Comprehensive DBT consists of several components, including a skills training group, individual treatment, DBT phone coaching, and a consultation team.
The DBT skills training group aims to improve clients' abilities by teaching them behavioral skills.
Dialectical behavioral therapy is a treatment option based on current research.
Thus, the answer is dialectical behavioral therapy.
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Help please!!!!!!!!!!!!!
Answer:
primary care
Explanation:
the pharmasist is the first only only person consulted and ultimately made the final decision of Jiao's care. hope this helps!
Giglio is a university student who has come down with a pretty bad head cold besides shaking like crazy Julio's head feels stuffy year her throat is killing her Julio goes to a local pharmacy to get some over-the-counter but I sent she is not sure which one of the boxes would best treat her symptoms so she asked the pharmacist to help the situation what health care bowl is in pharmacist filling
A. Pharmacy care
B. Secondary care.
C. Tertiary care
D. Wuaternary care
The type of health care role the pharmacist is filling is called pharmacy care which is a primary care. That is option A.
What are over-the- counter drugs?The over the counter drugs or OTC drugs are those drugs that are gotten from a nearby pharmacy store without the prescription of the doctor.
Examples of the over the counter drugs include the following:
Pain killers such as acetaminophen andMultivitamins such as Vitamin B complex supplements.Antipyretics such as ibuprofen.There are different levels of health care delivery systems which includes the following:
Primary health care servicesSecondary health care servicesTertiary health care services andQuaternary health care services.The primary health care is the first point of contact of an ill individual with a health care professional such as a pharmacist.
Therefore, the pharmacist is fulfilling the role of a primary health care provider such as the pharmacy care rendered to the client.
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the coding guidelines for Pacemaker or Implantable Defibrillator services preceding the codes (33202-33275) in the Cardiovascular System subsection of the CPT manual.
One thing you learned from the coding guidelines for c in the Cardiovascular System subsection of the CPT manual is that when you Look at codes 33202 and 33203 in conjunction with 33212, 33213, and 33221 to understand why the leads are implanted epicardially rather than transvenously.
What are some of the codes about?Occasionally, if the patient experiences significant weight gain or loss, the generator's pocket may become insufficient and flip down. A relocation of that pocket is required when that occurs. Look at the numbers 33222 and 33223 for this.
Note that in code, 33249, A new permanent defibrillator system with single or dual chamber transvenous leads or electrodes is either replaced or implanted by the medical professional. When the patient needs it, defibrillators give a modest electric shock to sense and control the heart rate. When parts stop working properly or develop an infection, they need to be removed.
Some of the code meanings are:
33202 - used for Insertion of epicardial electrode(s) as well as open incision such as thoracotomy, median sternotomy, etc.33203 - used for endoscopic approach such as thoracoscopy.33206- used for the placement of new or replacement of permanent pacemaker with the use of transvenous electrodes, etc.Learn more about Cardiovascular System from
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See full question below
This week you are learning about codes for services and procedures
performed on the Cardiovascular system and the Hemic/Lymphatic system. As you work on assigning codes for services performed on the Cardiovascular system, reflect on the purpose and meaning of the guidelines found throughout this subsection.
Step 2: answer all parts of the initial prompt below:
-Explain one (1) thing you learned from the coding guidelines for Pacemaker or Implantable Defibrillator services preceding the codes (33202-33249 and # codes 33270-33275) in the Cardiovascular System subsection of the CPT manual.
In one to three complete paragraphs, tell me what information you learned or found most valuable in the article Macronutrients 101 How Protein, Fat, and Carbohydrates Fuel Your Body
Macronutrients are vitamins that your frame desires in huge quantities to characteristic optimally.
The 3 important macronutrients are carbohydrates, protein, and fat. They’re taken into consideration vital vitamins, which means your frame both can't lead them to or can't make sufficient of them.
For example, proteins provide vital amino acids, at the same time as fat incorporate vital fatty acids. Your frame makes use of those additives for precise functions.
Macronutrients additionally incorporate electricity in the shape of energy. Carbs are the principle electricity source, however your frame can use different macronutrients for electricity if needed.
The calorie content material of every macronutrient is four energy in keeping with gram Protein four energy in keeping with gram Fat nine energy in keeping with gram.
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What is the role of the center for disease control and prevention in maintaining food safety
The center for disease control controls the disease and also improves health activities with environmental health.
What is the function of the center for disease control?Center for disease control (CDC) plays a very important role in controlling and introducing and also for spreading infectious diseases. The center for disease control provides meetings and also with assistance to other nations and also to international agencies for the improvement of the treatment of diseases. The center for disease control environmental health, and also promotes health activities.
The center for disease control makes our food and environment safe by working with partners for determining the major sources of borne illnesses and annual changes in the number of illnesses and investigating multistate foodborne disease outbreaks. The center for disease control implements the rules for making food safer.
So we can conclude that the main purpose of the center for disease control is to prevent disease and improves health.
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Diagnosed with acute leukemia, Charlotte’s oncologist wants to add blood transfusions as part of her treatment plan. Because of her religious convictions, Charlotte would like a blood alternative instead. Charlotte’s oncologist understands but explains that his hospital is not set up to perform treatments using nonblood alternatives. He refers Charlotte to a special hospital that is specifically set up to perform bloodless care. In this situation, what healthcare role is the hospital filling? (1Responses primary care primary care secondary care secondary care tertiary care tertiary care quaternary care quaternary care
The healthcare role which the hospital is filling is referred to as tertiary care and is denoted as option C.
What is Tertiary care?This is referred to as the type of care in the healthcare system which complex types of diagnostics and treatments are administered with the help of the best facilities available in other produce accurate results and the best care.
The tertiary care is mostly used due to referrals being given by other hospitals as a result of them being capable enough to handle such complaints by the client and examples include the ones without the need for transfusion and so on.
It is also the most appropriate for in patients and bloodless care is mostly done in this type of healthcare system like in the case of Charlotte which was why option C was chosen.
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Choose 3 emotions or feelings and discuss/explain them. Tell me how those emotions or feelings can affect you both positively and negatively. An example of this is stress. It can either bog you down and make you feel negative. It can also drive you to get things done and focus your time. After picking 3 emotions or feelings and describing them, I want you to think about these traits and determine if you surround yourselves with people that exhibit those positive traits.
Lastly, think about social media, the things that you watch and follow. Do those things make you feel happy, sad, frustrated, etc.? In the character playbook modules you completed, they were designed to make you start deciding if you are making healthy decisions and building positive relationships. If the answer is no, you need to start thinking about your decisions and making some changes.
Answer:
Well, the emotions that I usually feel around people or on social media are either frustration, happiness, and sadness. Happiness affects me positively because when I first came on this site I met a lot of kind people everyday and they always put a smile on my face, which brightened up my life ever since. However, Frustration and sadness were always the two emotions that affected me a lot(negatively). For an example, whenever I would post an answer it usually gets deleted because some people like to assume I'm copying things from other websites when I'm literally just using my own words. I can't really say much about being around people because it's usually social media that affects me a lot(Cause I'm an introvert and hate being around people so social media is like my best friend;-;). I should probably start making some actual friends cause I just realized how lonely I am-
The patient underwent a blood glucose test, and the provider documented "type 2 diabetes mellitus" in the patient record. The coder assigned a CPT code to "blood glucose test and an ICD-10-CM code to "type 2 diabetes mellitus." The health insurance company reviewed the submitted claim and determined that support of medical necessity was evident. Should the insurance company
reimburse the provider for this encounter? If yes, why?
The insurance carrier must pay the provider for this meeting, yes. Those with prediabetes or those at risk for diabetes are covered by Medicare.
What is the benefit of insurance?In the event of a disaster, such as a fire, theft, legal action, or automobile accident, insurance acts as a financial safety net to assist you and your loved ones in recovering. An insurance policy, which is a binding legal agreement between you and your insurance provider, is what you'll get when you buy insurance.
Briefing:The codes should be used to ensure accurate reimbursement when a claim is submitted to Medicare for a diabetic screening test.
Because a diagnosis of "type 2 diabetes mellitus" supports the medical necessity of administering a blood glucose test (to assess the patient's blood glucose levels), the claim was properly submitted, and the insurance company will reimburse the provider for this interaction.
To ascertain a patient's sugar/blood glucose level, a laboratory procedure called a blood glucose test is performed. A patient with type 2 diabetes should undergo this operation if it is appropriate and medically necessary.
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The complete question is-
Q: Health care providers are responsible for documenting and authenticating legible, complete, and timely patient records in accordance with federal regulations and accrediting agency standards. The provider is also responsible for correcting or altering errors in patient record documentation. A patient record documents health care services provided to a patient and includes patient demographic data, documentation to support diagnoses and justify treatment provided, and the results of treatment provided.
The patient underwent a blood glucose test, and the provider documented "type 2 diabetes mellitus" in the patient record. The coder assigned a CPT code to "blood glucose test" and an ICD-10-CM code to "type 2 diabetes mellitus." The health insurance company reviewed the submitted claim and determined that support of medical necessity was evident. Should the insurance company reimburse the provider for this encounter? If yes, why? If no, why not?
Click to review the online content. Then answer the question(s) below, using complete sentences. Scroll down to view additional questions.
Online Content: Site 1
How quickly can the nervous system relay messages?
The nervous system can relay messages at the speed of approximately 140 meters per second.
Nervous system is the complex network of brain, spinal cord and the several nerves. It is involved in transfer of signals and responses to the complete body. The nervous system is the master regulator of all the functions inside the body.
The messages of the nervous system are actually the signals released by one nerve and transmitted to another that ultimately reaches the target site. The target site that receives the message is called the receptor. The message between two neurons is shared with the help of chemicals called neurotransmitters.
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Your patient’s chest tube dressing has accidentally come off and you are preparing to place a new one. You have a slit drain sponge, 4 x 4 gauzes, tape, scissors, and antiseptic swabs. What else do you need?
The thing that is needed here is a slit drain sponge, 4 x 4 gauzes, tape, scissors, and antiseptic swabs and fresh gloves.
What is a chest tube?A chest tube is a flexible plastic tube used to drain fluid or air from the chest.
The accumulation of air or fluid (such as blood or pus) in the space between the lungs and the chest wall (the pleural space) can cause the lung to collapse.
Chest tubes are used to treat conditions that cause the collapse of a lung. Some of these conditions include: surgery or chest trauma.
If, while walking with your patient, the chest tube becomes dislodged where it connects to the drainage tubing, immediately close the tubing to air with your gloved hand by crimping or clamping it.
Alternatively, place the tube's end in a bottle of sterile water to form a water seal.
Thus, hand gloves are mandatory to prevent infection.
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Select the correct answer.
Which of the following can be caused by a failure to warm up or cool down?
A.
Decreased stiffness
B.
Increased soreness
C.
Decreased fatigue
D.
Less risk of injury
Which of the following best describes the differences between a controllable and an uncontrollable risk
factor?
A person can eliminate a controllable risk factor, but can only reduce the effect of an uncontrollable
risk factor.
A person can eliminate an uncontrollable risk factor, but can only reduce the effect of a controllable
risk factor.
The differences between a controllable and an uncontrollable risk factor is that controllable risk factor can be eliminated but uncontrollable risk factor can not be eliminated.
What are the controllable and an uncontrollable risk factor?Controllable risks can be described as the one that the person have influence on, it can be explained a one that one can address by himself such as poor cashflow as well as other factors such such the nutrition diet that one can actually influenced and take control over it.
The uncontrollable risk factor can be described as one that one do not have control on such as natural disaster like earthquake.
Therefore, option A is correct.
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Which of the following professional organization has its code of ethics incorporated into Florida law
The group offers its members networking opportunities, sales training, and other resources to support their growth as professionals.
What is the role of NAIFA in professional organization?On behalf of its members, NAIFA seeks to encourage a supportive regulatory environment, offer professional education programs, and uphold insurance and financial advisors' ethical professional conduct.
All NAIFA members are required to comply by its Code of Ethics: assist in preserving the trust of my clients and defending their right to privacy. act diligently and in my client's best interest to meet their needs.
Therefore, NAIFA professional organization has its code of ethics incorporated into Florida law.
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Stella is an environmental services worker. She has just finished cleaning up a bodily fluid spill in an exam room. She makes a pile of the cleaning
materials that she used: a mop, cleaning cloths, and a bucket. Then she removes her mask and gloves. What items must be disinfected?
A. the mop, cleaning cloths, and bucket
the mop and bucket
her gloves and mask
her gloves and the cleaning cloths
B.
C.
O D.
Stella is an environmental services worker. After cleaning a bodily fluid spill in an exam room, items that must be disinfected is :
A) the mop, cleaning cloths, and bucket
Disinfect cleaning objects that cannot be thrown away for example mops and scrub brushes. It can be done by covering them with the bleach solution and letting them dry.
Personal protective equipment such as gloves or mask should be disposed off into a biohazard.
The Environmental Protection Agency defines cleaners, sanitizers and disinfectants as :
Cleaners remove dirt through wiping or mopping.Sanitizers contain chemicals that reduce microorganisms such as bacteria, viruses from surfaces. Public health codes may require cleaning with the use of sanitizers in certain areas, like toilets and food preparation areas.Disinfectants contain chemicals that destroy microorganisms that cause infections. Disinfectants are of great importance for infection control in hospitals or other healthcare place.Disinfect cleaning objects that cannot be thrown away for example mops and scrub brushes. It can be done by covering them with the bleach solution and letting them dry.Personal protective equipment such as gloves or mask should be disposed off into a biohazard.
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in considering nbac’s analytic approach, an otherwise competent person who is acutely ill might be considered at especially high risk of harm for:
According to NBAC's analytic technique, an otherwise competent person who is seriously ill may be considered more prone to harm owing to situational cognitive vulnerability.
The analytic method to resolving vulnerability is recommended by the National Bioethics Advisory Committee (NBAC). In light of NBAC's analytic methodology, an otherwise competent individual who is critically unwell may be regarded more vulnerable to damage due to situational cognitive vulnerability. Subjects who do not lack capability but are placed in settings that prevent them from exercising their capacities efficiently may be vulnerable to situational cognitive vulnerability. When a subject is preoccupied or in an emergency circumstance, such as an acute illness or injury, this might happen. Capacity-related cognitive vulnerability can emerge when persons lack the ability to make informed decisions to some level. Communicative vulnerability occurs when people do not lack capability but are unable to employ their capacities effectively owing to a lack of communication with the researchers. When future potential subjects are disadvantaged in the allocation of social goods and services, they become economically vulnerable (income, housing, or health care).
The NBAC considers whether an individual possesses traits that would preclude them from providing freely informed consent.
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As the order was provided from the RN, should the employee go ahead and administer the medication?
As the order was provided from the RN, the employee should go ahead and administer the medications following the five rights of the medication administration.
The five rights of medicine administration are taught to all nurses. When administering drugs to patients safely in all healthcare settings, nurses start with the appropriate patient, the right drug, the right dose, the right route, and the right time. These are included in the "five rights" provided to the nurses while administering medications.
The five reasons are typically taken into account at the precise moment of medication administration; however, many factors have an impact on patient care prior to this, including reviewing medication orders, following up with the pharmacy regarding unfilled prescriptions, evaluating the patient, and getting ready to administer medications.
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3
To make sure employees really understand what chemical dangers are present, OSHA designed something that forces employers to tell their
workers exactly what they may be exposed to at the job site. This is referred to as what?
O A. Job Site Regulations (JSR)
the Exposure Risk Regulation (ERR)
C.
the Environmental Protection Regulations (EPR)
O D. the Hazard Communication Standard (HCS)
B.
In Hazard Communication Standard ( HCS) , OSHA forced employers to inform their workers that what they may be exposed to at job site.
The HCS mandates that employers set up hazard communication plans to advise their staff about the dangers of chemicals through training materials, labels on packaging, and material safety data sheets. The implementation of these hazard communication initiatives will guarantee that all workers have the "right-to-know" about the risks and names of the chemicals they use, and it will lower the frequency of chemically-related occupational diseases and accidents.
A number of minor adjustments and technical modifications have been made to the final rule in order to further clarify the requirements, assure full compliance, and protect employees. In particular, the rule updates and clarifies elements of the written hazard communication program and labeling requirements; establishes and clarifies several exemptions from labeling and other requirements.
The law mandates that companies give their workers safe working environments that are free of known risks.
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How do people suffering from bulimia nervosa behave?
A They see themselves as fat even if they are dangerously thin and starve themselves
B They binge and purge to avoid gaining weight.
C They binge regularly but do not purge or exercise
D They starve themselves and then binge in a regular cycle.
Answer:
Explanation:
Bulimia nervosa is a serious emotional eating disorder that involves eating excessive amounts of food in a short period (binging) followed by guilt and shame leading to self-induced vomiting, extreme exercise, or laxative abuse (purging). Many refer to it as a binge and purge eating disorder.
Therefore;
B. They binge and purge to avoid gaining weight.
Answer:
Explanation:
B. They binge and purge to avoid gaining weight.
Ivy’s obstetrician asks her if she has a cat at home. When she says that she does, her doctor tells her that it is important that she find someone else to clean the cat’s litter box while she is pregnant. Her doctor explains that pregnant women can catch toxoplasmosis from handling dirty cat litter, and this could cause eye problems with their unborn baby. In this case, what is toxoplasmosis an example of?
A.
plasticity
B.
teratogen
C.
cytotoxin
D.
carcinogen
In this case the toxoplasmosis is an example of Tetragen.
Ocular toxoplasmosis is one of the most frequent infectious etiologies of posterior uveitis. It typically affords with retinochoroiditis. Putting an correct prognosis depends to a enormous diploma on detecting characteristic medical traits. Similarly to the evaluation of medical features, the prognosis of toxoplasmosis relies at a large diploma on serologic checking out. The detection of the parasite DNA inside the aqueous or vitreous humor can offer evidence for a definitive prognosis. The contemporary mainstay for the treatment, if essential, is the use of oral antibiotic with systemic corticosteroids. current proof shows different healing strategies, consisting of intravitreal antibiotics can be used.
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Help please!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!
Considering the healthcare provided by Xavier to stabilize the patient, the level of healthcare provided is primary healthcare.
What are the levels of a healthcare system?The levels of a healthcare system describe the complexity as well as the severity of the care provided by the healthcare givers.
There are four levels of care in a healthcare system, and they are:
primary healthcaresecondary healthcaretertiary healthcare, andquaternary carePrimary healthcare is the first level of care that patients receive when they are sick. They provide care for immediate diseases.
Secondary healthcare refers to specialist care that is provided to patients.
Tertiary healthcare provides even more advanced ad specialized care than secondary healthcare providers.
Quaternary healthcare provides the highest and most specialized form of healthcare to patients especially patients that have very rare diseases.
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HELP ME PLEASE HEALTH
Select the correct answer.
Stretching is not an essential part of a proper cool down.
A.
True
B.
False
List 5 things people do that make it hard to understand them when they speak.
Answer:
1. Covering your mouth or pretending to cough or yawn to cover up stuttering
2. Not speaking, even when you want or need to
3. Not using certain words that seem to cause stuttering
4. Pretending to forget what you wanted to say
5. Rearranging words in sentences
Explanation:
Answer:
Explanation:
1. not making eyecontact
2. mumble
3. yelling
4. chewing.
5. talking to fast.
6. covering mouth with hands
7. underwater
8. coughing
9. sneezing
10. walking/running around
11. speaking from far away
12. farting because it might distract the listener
13. stepping on the listener.
14. Talking like a robot.
15. Talking in a weird voice
16. Whispering
media outposts have a primary goal of helping people make healthy choices. True or false
media outposts have a primary goal of helping people make healthy choices is True.
There were two main findings in this study. The review suggests that food and beverage companies are using social media to target young demographics and market their products. Television advertisements for unhealthy foods can promote obesity in children. Food preferences may arise from his one viewing of a commercial. The more your child watches this commercial, the more likely he or she will want food.
Social media can be an expensive investment in public health practice for educating audiences about health issues improving communication during emergencies and public health outbreaks and responding to public coverage of specific public health issues. It has become a highly effective method. Food marketing is advertising that promotes the sale of specific foods or foodstuffs. Many commercially available foods and drinks can add too much sodium sugar or saturated fat to our diet.
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what would happen if pepsin was not released in the stomach after eating
Answer:
Our body would be unable to digest proteins
Explanation:
What are the similarities and differences between defense mechanisms?
One of the most prevalent forms of defense is denial. When you reject facts or reality, it happens. In order to avoid dealing with the emotional effects, people in denial may attempt to filter external events or circumstances from their minds.
What various defense mechanisms are there?Despite the fact that both Freud's investigated defense mechanisms, Anna focused most of her time and research on five key mechanisms: repression, regression, projection, reaction creation, and sublimation. All forms of defense are reactions to anxiety and ways that the conscious and unconscious minds of people deal with the strain of social situations. Properties of the host are included in defense mechanisms to lessen this damage. When the mechanisms are unaffected by the pathogen, they are passive. When they react to changes in the host brought on by the virus, they become active.Denial is arguably the most widespread psychological defensive mechanism there is. When someone rejects reality or facts despite being given concrete evidence, it is said that they are in denial.Introjection is another name for identification. Projection is the act of attributing one's own unhelpful inner tendencies to another else. For instance, someone who engages in an episode of adultery during a marriage may later accuse their partner of adultery or may grow more wary of their partner.To Learn more About Defense mechanisms, Refer:
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PLEASE HELP Match the following terms with the correct definition.
Explanation:
There are no definitions
which of these health risks may be caused by sleep deficiency
A. lung disease
B. cancer
C. allergies
D. immune suppression
Answer:
D. immune suppression
Explanation:
Sleep deprivation may decrease production of these cytokines. In addition, infection fighting antibodies and cells are reduced during periods when you don't get enough sleep. So, your body needs sleep to fight infectious diseases.
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