The key to preventing the removal of a dental crown along the long axis of a tooth prep is a combination of good materials, proper fit, and careful attention to detail.
There are several features that can prevent the removal of a dental crown along the long axis of a tooth prep, particularly when it comes to sticky food. First, the cement used to attach the crown to the tooth should be strong and durable, providing a reliable bond that can withstand chewing and biting forces. Additionally, the fit of the crown itself is critical - if it is properly contoured and seated, there will be less space for food to become lodged between the crown and the tooth, reducing the likelihood of dislodgement. The shape of the preparation can also be designed to help prevent food from getting stuck - for example, the use of retention grooves or undercuts can help hold the crown in place. Finally, regular dental checkups and cleanings can help ensure that any potential problems with the crown are identified and addressed before they become more serious. Overall, With the right combination of these factors, patients can enjoy a comfortable and functional restoration that will last for years to come.
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Greatest RF for variant angina
Variant angina, also known as Prinzmetal's angina, is a type of angina that is caused by vasospasms in the coronary arteries. The greatest RF (risk factor) for variant angina is smoking, which can increase the frequency and severity of vasospasms.
Other RFs include emotional stress, exposure to cold temperatures, and the use of certain medications such as cocaine or sumatriptan. To manage variant angina, treatment focuses on relieving vasospasms and reducing RFs. Medications such as nitrates, calcium channel blockers, and long-acting nitrates can help to relax the smooth muscles in the coronary arteries and improve blood flow.
Lifestyle modifications such as quitting smoking, managing stress, and avoiding triggers can also be effective in reducing RFs. It is important for individuals with variant angina to work closely with their healthcare provider to develop an individualized treatment plan that addresses their specific needs and RFs. With proper management, the outlook for individuals with variant angina is generally favorable.
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What is description of an expanding neck hematoma?
An expanding neck hematoma is a medical emergency that occurs when there is bleeding into the neck tissues that causes swelling and compression of important structures in the neck. This condition can be life-threatening if not treated promptly.
The initial symptoms of an expanding neck hematoma include pain, swelling, and tenderness in the neck. As the hematoma grows, it can compress the airway, causing difficulty breathing and stridor (a high-pitched wheezing sound). The patient may also experience difficulty swallowing, hoarseness, and a feeling of tightness in the throat.
In severe cases, an expanding neck hematoma can lead to loss of consciousness and death if not treated urgently. Therefore, it is important to seek medical attention immediately if you suspect you have an expanding neck hematoma.
Treatment of an expanding neck hematoma typically involves securing the airway and stopping the bleeding. This may involve intubation or a tracheotomy, and surgery to remove the hematoma and repair any damaged blood vessels.
Overall, an expanding neck hematoma is a serious medical condition that requires prompt recognition and treatment to prevent serious complications.
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what are the normal findings for the red desaturation test?what percentage of difference b/t the 2 eyesshould the central target appear more or less red in each eye?
The During the test, the patient is asked to look at a central target with each eye separately while wearing red-green glasses.
The However, if a patient has red-green color blindness, the central target may appear less red or even yellowish in one or both eyes. The degree of desaturation can vary depending on the severity of the color vision deficiency. When interpreting the results of the red desaturation test, ophthalmologists typically look for a percentage difference between the two eyes. A normal percentage difference is considered to be less than 10%. If the central target appears redder in one eye than the other, in summary, the normal findings for the red desaturation test include the central target appearing equally red in both eyes, with a percentage difference of less than 10% between the two eyes. If there is a greater degree of desaturation in one eye compared to the other, it may be indicative of red-green color blindness or another color vision deficiency.
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Difference in luteoma and theca luteum cyst?
Luteoma and theca luteum cyst are both types of ovarian cysts, but they have some key differences. Luteoma is a rare type of tumor that is usually benign and is made up of luteinized cells.
These cells produce hormones, such as progesterone, that can cause menstrual irregularities and other symptoms. Theca luteum cyst, on the other hand, is a more common type of cyst that is formed when a follicle doesn't rupture properly and fills with fluid. It is also hormonally active and can cause symptoms similar to luteoma. However, theca luteum cysts are generally considered less serious than luteoma and often resolve on their own. Both conditions can be diagnosed with ultrasound imaging and may require further treatment depending on their size and symptoms.
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Nurses must know policies and procedures at their institution -mandated by American Nurses Association
T/F
The given statement, "Nurses must know policies and procedures at their institution -mandated by American Nurses Association, is false because American Nurses Association does not mandate policies and procedures.
While it is important for nurses to be familiar with policies and procedures at their institution, the American Nurses Association (ANA) does not mandate specific policies and procedures for all institutions. The ANA provides guidance and resources to nurses, but it is up to individual institutions to develop and implement policies and procedures that comply with state and federal regulations and meet the unique needs of their patients and staff.
The ANA does have a Code of Ethics for Nurses, which provides a framework for ethical nursing practice, but it does not mandate specific policies and procedures.
So, the given statement in the question is false.
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_______________ is max recommended dose of anesthetic for children
The maximum recommended dose of an anesthetic for children depends on the specific anesthetic agent being used, as different agents have varying doses and potencies. It is essential to consider the child's age, weight, and overall health when determining the appropriate dosage to ensure both safety and efficacy.
For example, with local anesthetics like lidocaine, the maximum recommended dose for children is usually 4.5 mg/kg (milligrams per kilogram of body weight). This means that if a child weighs 20 kg, the maximum lidocaine dose would be 90 mg. It is crucial to stay within the recommended dosage range to avoid complications such as toxicity or inadequate anesthesia.
Another common anesthetic used in pediatric patients is propofol. The dosing for propofol varies depending on the specific use, such as induction or maintenance of anesthesia. For induction, the recommended dose is typically 2.5-3.5 mg/kg, while for maintenance, it is usually 125-300 mcg/kg/min (micrograms per kilogram per minute). Again, the child's weight and age play a significant role in determining the exact dosage.
In summary, the maximum recommended dose of an anesthetic for children depends on the specific anesthetic agent, the child's age, weight, and overall health. Anesthesiologists and other healthcare professionals must carefully calculate the appropriate dose for each child to ensure safe and effective anesthesia during medical procedures. Always consult with a qualified medical professional when determining the appropriate anesthetic dose for a pediatric patient.
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which provisional restorative material can be used direct
There are several types of provisional restorative materials that can be used directly in dental procedures. These materials are used to provide a temporary solution while the permanent restoration is being fabricated.
One such material is composite resin, which is a tooth-colored material that can be used for filling small cavities or shaping teeth. It is easy to use and can be shaped and polished to match the surrounding teeth. Another option is glass ionomer cement, which is a tooth-colored material that is easy to use and bonds well with teeth. It can be used for filling small cavities or as a liner for larger cavities. This material releases fluoride, which can help prevent further decay. Dental amalgam can also be used as a provisional restorative material. This is a metal material that has been used for decades in dentistry. It is easy to use and provides a durable and long-lasting solution. However, it is not tooth-colored, so it may not be the best choice for front teeth.
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[Skip] #2 cause of preventable morbidity & mortality in the US are______
In the United States, tobacco use is the second biggest contributor to morbidity and mortality that may be prevented. According to the Centres for Disease Control and Prevention, tobacco smoking is the largest cause of avoidable mortality in the US, contributing to close to 500,000 deaths annually.
Approximately 40 million individuals smoke cigarettes in the US, and roughly half of them will ultimately pass away from a smoking-related ailment. Numerous health issues, including as cancer, heart disease, stroke, and chronic lung disease, are associated with tobacco smoking.
Additionally, exposure to secondhand smoke results in hundreds of fatalities each year. Along with the health risks, tobacco use has significant negative economic effects.
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The amount charged for each service provided in a medical practice is known as a a) Deductible b) Co-pay c) Premium d) Fee-for-service
The amount charged for each service provided in a medical practice is known as d) Fee-for-service. In a fee-for-service system, healthcare providers are paid based on the specific services they deliver to patients.
This system encourages providers to offer more services, as their payment is directly tied to the quantity of services provided. Patients may have different levels of financial responsibility depending on their insurance plan, which can include a deductible, co-pay, and premium.
A deductible is the amount a patient must pay for healthcare services before their insurance plan starts to cover the costs. A co-pay is a fixed amount a patient pays for a particular service or medication, with the insurance company covering the remaining costs.
A premium is the regular payment a patient makes to maintain their insurance coverage. These terms all relate to the financial aspects of healthcare, but it is the fee-for-service model that specifically refers to the charges for each medical service provided.
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The rate of onset of anesthesia relies on which 3 characteristics?
Lipid solubility, blood flow and Molecular weight and chemical structure on these 3 characteristics the rate of onset of anesthesia releases.
The rate of onset of anesthesia relies on three key characteristics:
Lipid solubility: The degree to which an anesthetic agent can dissolve in lipids (fats) greatly affects its onset. Highly lipid-soluble agents can easily cross cell membranes, including the blood-brain barrier, and reach their target sites in the central nervous system (CNS) more rapidly.Consequently, the greater the lipid solubility of an anesthetic, the faster its onset of action.
Blood flow: The rate of blood flow to a particular body area or organ influences the delivery of anesthetic agents. Tissues or organs with high blood flow, such as the brain, heart, and lungs, receive anesthetic agents more quickly than those with lower blood flow.This, in turn, affects the onset of anesthesia. In general, increased blood flow accelerates the onset of anesthesia, while decreased blood flow delays it.
Molecular weight and chemical structure: The size and shape of anesthetic molecules impact their ability to diffuse through tissues and cell membranes. Smaller molecules typically diffuse more rapidly than larger ones, leading to a faster onset of anesthesia.Additionally, the chemical structure of an anesthetic agent may influence its binding to specific receptors in the CNS, which also plays a role in determining the rate of onset.
In summary, the rate of onset of anesthesia depends on the lipid solubility of the anesthetic agent, the blood flow to the target site, and the molecular weight and chemical structure of the agent. Understanding these factors can help guide the selection and administration of anesthetics to achieve the desired level of anesthesia within the appropriate timeframe.
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Central venous catheterization: After blood is drain from all ports and there are stable vital signs --> Next step in management?
Central venous catheterization is a method used in placing the IV from the central venous line. This technique is known as the Seldinger technique. In this procedure, the central venous line is injected or placed at the location internal jugular vein. This vein is also known as the subclavian vein.
The tube inserted is flexible and thin. The Vein in which it is inserted is a large vein at the right side of the heart. The vein is known as the superior vena cava. The purpose of central venous catheterization is blood transfusion and intravenous.
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how to know the difference between the AOTA and MA position.
The AOTA (American Occupational Therapy Association) and MA (Medical Assistant) positions are very different. AOTA is a professional organization for occupational therapists who have a Master's degree or higher in occupational therapy, while MA is a medical support position that requires certification or a diploma from an accredited program.
The American Occupational Therapy Association (AOTA) is a national professional association for occupational therapy practitioners in the United States. It provides support, resources, and advocacy for occupational therapists (OTs) and occupational therapy assistants (OTAs) across the country. AOTA also provides education, research, and practice standards to advance the profession of occupational therapy.
On the other hand, a Medical Assistant (MA) is a healthcare professional who assists physicians and other healthcare providers in various clinical and administrative tasks. MAs work in a variety of healthcare settings, such as hospitals, clinics, and physician's offices. Their responsibilities may include taking patient histories, recording vital signs, preparing patients for exams, administering medications, and assisting with procedures.
In summary, the AOTA is a professional association for occupational therapy practitioners, while the MA position refers to a healthcare professional who assists physicians and other healthcare providers in clinical and administrative tasks.
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Pregnant patient presents w/ unilateral flank pain radiating to the groin. UA shows microscopic/moderate hematuria. Negative for nitrates or leukocyte esterase. Next step?
The next step would be to order a renal ultrasound to evaluate for possible renal calculi.
Unilateral flank pain that radiates to the groin, along with microscopic or moderate hematuria, are classic symptoms of a kidney stone. The absence of nitrates or leukocyte esterase suggests that there is no concurrent urinary tract infection. Renal ultrasound is the first imaging modality of choice for evaluating suspected renal calculi due to its non-invasiveness, lack of radiation exposure, and ability to detect most types of stones. Other imaging modalities, such as CT scans or MRI, may be considered if the diagnosis remains unclear or if there are specific indications for their use. However, given the patient's pregnancy, radiation exposure should be minimized, making renal ultrasound a safer and more appropriate first step.
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Word associations: Currant jelly stools in children
Word associations "Currant jelly stools in children" are often associated with intussusception.
Intussusception is a condition where one segment of the intestine telescopes into another. This can cause obstruction and lead to the characteristic stools, which are described as red or maroon-colored, gelatinous and resembling currant jelly. In children, this can lead to symptoms such as abdominal pain, vomiting, and bloody stools with a consistency similar to currant jelly.
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According to Freud's theories, the ________ is a conceptualization of the basic biogenic needs for which the individual seeks immediate satisfaction without concern for the specific means of satisfaction.
According to Freud's theories, the id is a conceptualization of the basic biogenic needs for which the individual seeks immediate satisfaction without concern for the specific means of satisfaction. The id is the most primitive and unconscious part of the psyche and operates based on the pleasure principle.
This means that the id is solely focused on fulfilling an individual's basic needs and desires, such as hunger, thirst, and sexual gratification, without considering the consequences or morals of their actions. The id is in constant conflict with the ego and superego, which are more conscious and rational parts of the psyche. Freud believed that individuals must learn to control and channel their id impulses through a process called sublimation, which involves redirecting instinctual energy towards more socially acceptable and productive behaviors.
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Where perio Tx is more difficult?
Periodontal treatment can be more difficult in cases where there is advanced periodontal disease, where pockets around teeth are deep and there is significant bone loss. These cases may require more extensive treatment and may be more challenging to manage.
Additionally, patients with systemic diseases such as diabetes or immune disorders may be more susceptible to periodontal disease and may require more complex treatment plans.
Other factors that can make periodontal treatment more difficult include poor oral hygiene habits, smoking, and other lifestyle factors. Patients who are not committed to good oral health practices may struggle with maintaining their periodontal health and may require more frequent and involved treatment.
In cases where periodontal disease is more severe, periodontists may need to use more advanced techniques such as bone grafting, tissue regeneration, or periodontal surgery. These treatments can be more complex and may require more extensive recovery time, but they can be highly effective in treating advanced periodontal disease and preserving the health of the teeth and gums.
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Which suffix indicates inflammation (commonly due to infection)?
The suffix that indicates inflammation commonly due to infection is "-itis." This suffix is added to the end of the name of an organ or tissue to indicate an inflammatory condition. For example, "tonsillitis" refers to inflammation of the tonsils, "appendicitis" refers to inflammation of the appendix, and "sinusitis" refers to inflammation of the sinuses.
Infections are a common cause of inflammation in the body, and the suffix "-itis" is often used to describe these conditions. When bacteria or viruses enter the body, the immune system responds by releasing chemicals that cause inflammation. This inflammation is a natural response that helps to fight off the infection, but it can also cause symptoms such as pain, swelling, and redness.
In addition to infections, other causes of inflammation can include injuries, autoimmune disorders, and chronic diseases such as arthritis. Regardless of the cause, inflammation is an important part of the body's immune response and is essential for healing and recovery.
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Etiology of nasal septal perforation are___
The etiology of nasal septal perforation can be varied and multifactorial. It can be caused by trauma, such as a direct blow to the nose or chronic irritation from nasal devices like nasal cannulas, CPAP masks, and nasal sprays. Infections such as syphilis, tuberculosis, and fungal infections can also contribute to the development of nasal septal perforations.
Other medical conditions such as Wegener's granulomatosis, sarcoidosis, and lupus can also cause perforations in the nasal septum. Long-term use of cocaine and other intranasal drugs can also result in nasal septal perforation. In rare cases, radiation therapy can lead to nasal septal perforation as well.
In summary, nasal septal perforation can be caused by a combination of factors, including trauma, infections, medical conditions, drug use, and radiation therapy. The diagnosis and treatment of nasal septal perforation require a thorough evaluation by an ENT specialist to identify the underlying etiology and provide appropriate management.
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what is balanced occlusion for dentures definition
Balanced occlusion for dentures refers to a bite that evenly distributes forces across the dental arches during chewing, speaking, and other oral activities.
This type of occlusion is achieved when the upper and lower teeth come together in a way that allows for maximum stability and minimal stress on the dentures and surrounding tissues. A balanced occlusion is important for ensuring proper function and longevity of dentures, as well as maintaining the health of the remaining natural teeth and gums.
Balanced occlusion for dentures refers to the harmonious alignment and contact of upper and lower denture teeth during various jaw movements. This helps to evenly distribute chewing forces, reduce denture movement, and enhance overall stability and comfort for the denture wearer. Balanced occlusion is important in achieving optimal functionality and longevity of complete and partial dentures.
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WHAT factors must be present when an OT or OTA delegates a selected client-related task to the aide?
When an OT or OTA delegates a selected client-related task to the aide, the following factors must be present:
1. Competency: The aide must have the necessary skills, knowledge, and abilities to perform the task effectively and safely.
2. Supervision: The OT or OTA should provide appropriate supervision and guidance to the aide throughout the task.
3. Clear instructions: The OT or OTA must provide clear and specific instructions to the aide, including the objectives, expectations, and any precautions that must be taken.
4. Client's needs: The client's needs, preferences, and goals must be taken into consideration when delegating tasks to the aide.
5. Scope of practice: The task being delegated must fall within the scope of practice for both the OT or OTA and the aide, and must not require the aide to perform any actions beyond their level of training or competency.
6. Communication: There must be open and effective communication between the OT or OTA and the aide to ensure proper task execution and client care.
7. Documentation: The OT or OTA must document the delegation process, including the rationale for delegating the task, the instructions given, and the aide's performance.
In summary, when an OT or OTA delegates a selected client-related task to the aide, factors such as competency, supervision, clear instructions, the client's needs, the scope of practice, communication, and documentation must be present.
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True or false: Rule for elderly is "start low and stay low"
The statement "Rule for elderly is 'start low and stay low'" is false because the correct rule for elderly is 'start slow and go slow'.
Since advancing age is associated with a greater incidence of treatment side effects, the adage “start low and go slow” is a reasonable rule of thumb when initiating a trial of an analgesic in older patients. This does not mean that one should “start low and stay low,” which can contribute to undertreatment. Sustained-release analgesic preparations are recommended for continuous pain, along with the use of short-acting agents to treat pain flares and breakthrough pain.
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Features associated w/ congenital rubella syndrome?
Key features associated with CRS include sensorineural hearing loss, eye abnormalities (such as cataracts, glaucoma, or retinal defects), and heart defects (like patent ductus arteriosus or pulmonary artery stenosis).
Congenital rubella syndrome (CRS) is a condition that occurs when a pregnant woman is infected with the rubella virus and passes it on to her developing fetus.
The features associated with CRS can vary depending on the timing of the infection during pregnancy, but commonly include hearing loss, vision problems, heart defects, developmental delays, intellectual disability, and a characteristic rash.
Other potential features may include bone abnormalities, liver and spleen enlargement, and low birth weight. Prevention through vaccination is the best way to avoid CRS.
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why are pillows, towel rolls and special boots sometimes used to position patients?
Answer:
Pillows, towel rolls, and special boots are often used to position patients for a variety of reasons, depending on the specific medical condition or procedure involved. Here are a few common examples:
1. Comfort: When a patient is lying in bed or on an examination table for an extended period of time, positioning aids such as pillows and towel rolls can be used to provide additional comfort and support. For example, placing a pillow under the head or between the knees can help reduce pressure on sensitive areas and prevent discomfort or pain.
2. Safety: Positioning aids may also be used to prevent falls or other injuries. For example, special boots or wedges can be used to keep a patient's feet in a certain position, which can help prevent them from sliding off a bed or chair.
3. Medical Procedures: When a patient is undergoing a medical procedure, positioning aids may be used to help the healthcare provider access the area that needs treatment. For example, a patient undergoing a colonoscopy may be placed in a specific position to facilitate the insertion of the endoscope.
4. Respiratory Support: Some positioning aids may be used to assist with breathing. For example, placing a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) in a semi-upright position may help them breathe more easily.
BOLTON ANALYSIS
if tooth is too big how to fix
small?
Bolton Analysis is a method used by orthodontists to determine the proportion of a patient's teeth, both upper and lower, to ensure that they fit together correctly.
In some cases, a tooth may be too big, which can lead to problems with the bite, speech, and overall appearance. If this is the case, there are a few methods that can be used to fix the problem. One method is to remove a small amount of tooth material from the affected tooth.
This is called dental contouring or reshaping, and it can be done quickly and easily in most cases. The dentist will use a special tool to carefully remove small amounts of the tooth enamel until it is the correct size and shape. This method is minimally invasive and can be completed in a single office visit.
Another option is to use dental bonding to reshape the tooth. This involves the use of a tooth-colored composite resin that is bonded to the tooth and shaped to the desired size and shape. This method is also minimally invasive and can be completed in a single office visit.
Finally, in some cases, orthodontic treatment may be necessary to correct the size of the teeth. This may involve braces or other orthodontic appliances that can gradually move the teeth into the correct position and size.
In conclusion, if a tooth is too big, there are several methods that can be used to fix the problem, including dental contouring, dental bonding, and orthodontic treatment. It is important to consult with an orthodontist or dentist to determine the best course of treatment for each individual case.
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Chronic Pancreatitis Can cause splenic vein thrombosis. true/false
The statement given "Chronic Pancreatitis can cause splenic vein thrombosis." is true becasue chronic pancreatitis is a condition characterized by inflammation and damage to the pancreas over a long period of time.
It can lead to various complications, including the development of splenic vein thrombosis. Splenic vein thrombosis refers to the formation of a blood clot within the splenic vein, which is the vein responsible for draining blood from the spleen. The inflammation and fibrosis associated with chronic pancreatitis can cause compression or obstruction of the splenic vein, leading to the formation of blood clots.
Splenic vein thrombosis can have serious consequences, including enlargement of the spleen, abdominal pain, and potentially life-threatening complications such as portal vein thrombosis or gastrointestinal bleeding. Therefore, the statement that chronic pancreatitis can cause splenic vein thrombosis is true.
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TRUE/FALSE. Neonatal conjunctivitis: 2-5 days after birth
True. Neonatal conjunctivitis, also known as ophthalmia neonatorum, is an inflammation of the conjunctiva (the clear membrane that covers the white part of the eye) that occurs in the first month of life.
It can be caused by various bacteria, viruses, or other pathogens acquired during childbirth. In particular, neonatal conjunctivitis caused by Chlamydia trachomatis or Neisseria gonorrhoeae typically presents 2-5 days after birth. It is important to diagnose and treat neonatal conjunctivitis promptly to prevent complications such as corneal scarring and vision loss.
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Cataracts, deafness and heart defects (esp PDA, VSD), extramedullary hematopoiesis is caused by ________ teratogen
Cataracts, deafness, and heart defects such as Patent Ductus Arteriosus (PDA) and Ventricular Septal Defect (VSD), along with extramedullary hematopoiesis, are caused by the teratogen Rubella virus.
Rubella, also known as German measles, is a viral infection that can have severe consequences when contracted during pregnancy, particularly in the first trimester. The virus can cross the placenta and affect the developing fetus, leading to a condition called Congenital Rubella Syndrome (CRS). CRS can result in a range of birth defects, including the mentioned ocular, auditory, and cardiac abnormalities.
Additionally, extramedullary hematopoiesis, which is the production of blood cells outside the bone marrow, can also occur as a consequence of Rubella infection during pregnancy. To minimize the risk of CRS, it is essential for women of childbearing age to receive the Rubella vaccine prior to becoming pregnant, as vaccination during pregnancy is contraindicated.
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3 mo infant lays in "frog-leg" position
<5th %
2/2 feeding difficulties
hypotonic
fasiculations of tongue and absent DTRs. What the diagnose
Based on the symptoms described, the infant may have a neurological disorder that affects feeding and muscle tone.
Hypotonia, or low muscle tone, and absent deep tendon reflexes (DTRs) suggest a problem with the nervous system. Additionally, the fasiculations of the tongue could be a sign of muscle weakness. It is difficult to make a specific diagnosis without further evaluation and testing. However, a healthcare provider may consider conditions such as cerebral palsy, spinal muscular atrophy, or a genetic disorder that affects the nervous system. Early intervention and management are crucial to improve feeding and overall development.
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[Skip] Why does Listeria impact the very young & old?
A form of bacterium called listeria can seriously lead to mortality, especially in the very young and the very elderly. This is because these age groups have immune systems that are less robust than those of healthy adults, making them more susceptible to illness.
From moderate to severe, listeria can produce a variety of symptoms, including fever, pains in the muscles, nausea, and diarrhoea. Meningitis, sepsis, and even death have been reported in more severe instances.
These symptoms can be more severe and the danger of mortality is increased among the very young and very old. The possible hazards of listeria must thus be understood by persons in these age ranges, and precautions must be taken to avoid them.
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A female client has experienced an episode of myasthenic crisis. The nurse would assess whether the client has precipitating factors such as:
A. Getting too little exercise
B. Taking excess medication
C. Omitting doses of medication
D. Increasing intake of fatty foods
The nurse would assess whether the female client has precipitating factors such as B) excess medication or C) omitting doses of medication that could have led to the myasthenic crisis.
Myasthenic crisis is a medical emergency that occurs due to a significant worsening of muscle weakness in individuals with myasthenia gravis. Precipitating factors that may contribute to the development of a myasthenic crisis include infection, stress, surgery, or medication changes.
The nurse's assessment of the precipitating factors is crucial in managing the crisis effectively. In the case of a female client who has experienced a myasthenic crisis, the nurse would assess the client's medication regimen and whether she has been taking excess medication or omitting doses, as these factors can contribute to the onset of a crisis.
The nurse would also assess for other precipitating factors and collaborate with the healthcare team to provide appropriate interventions to manage the crisis and prevent further complications. So B and C are correct options.
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