find the value of x,y in the given figure with reasons.​

Answer:

3

Step-by-step explanation:

A + B is calculated by adding the same positions in both matrices.

and position (2, 3) in A+B is therefore the sum of position (2, 3) in A plus the position (2, 3) in B, which is then

-4 + 7 = 3

Answer:

[tex]-\frac{1}{2}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Slope/Gradient = [tex]\frac{y1-y2}{x1-x2}[/tex]

P = (-8 , 3) (x1, y1)

Q = (-6 , 2) (x2, y2)

Slope = [tex]\frac{3-2}{-8-(-6)}[/tex] =[tex]\frac{1}{-8+6}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{1}{-2}[/tex] = [tex]-\frac{1}{2}[/tex]

Answer:

-1/2

Step-by-step explanation:

The formula for the slope is (change in y)/(change in x) or Rise/Run.

The change in y for the two points is: 3 --> 2 which is -1

The change in x for the two points is: -8 --> -6 which is +2

If we input these numbers in the slope equation, we end up with -1/2.

Since we cannot simplify -1/2 further, that is our final answer.

Answer:

20

Step-by-step explanation:

u add 13+7 and that gives you 20, so if you subtract 20 and 7 that gives you 13

The expression is simplified to give 2 ( m² + m + 2Im ) = 0

Given the expression;

(1+m)²= (1-m)²+ 4lm,​

Expand the expression

( 1 +m) ( 1 + m) = ( 1 + m) ( 1 - m) + 4Im

1 + m + m + m² = 1 - m + m - m² + 4Im

collect like terms

1 + 2m + m² = 1 - m² + 4Im

1 - 1 + m² + m² + 2m + 4Im

2m² + 2m + 4lm = 0

simplify

2 ( m² + m + 2Im ) = 0

Thus, the expression is simplified to give 2 ( m² + m + 2Im ) = 0

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The surface area of the new toy is given as follows:

1,439 in².

The surface area of a figure is given by the sum of the surface area of all it's compositions. This figure is given by a cylinder and a rectangular prism.

The surface area of a cylinder with radius r and height h is given by the following formula:

[tex]S = 2\pi r(r + h)[/tex]

In this problem, the dimensions are:

r = 3 in, h = 16 in.

Hence:

[tex]S = 2\pi \times 3(3 + 19) = 132\pi[/tex]

The surface area of a rectangular prism of length l, width w and height h is given as follows:

[tex]S = 2(lw + lh + wh)[/tex]

In this problem, the dimensions are:

l = 24 in, h = 10 in, w = 8 in.

Hence the surface area is:

S = 2 x (24 x 10 + 24 x 8 + 10 x 8) = 1024 in²

It is the sum of the surface areas, hence:

[tex]132\pi + 1024 = 1439 \text{in}^2[/tex]

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Answer: Here you go :)

Step-by-step explanation:

Hope it helps!

The least number of colors needed to correctly color in the sections of the given picture so that no two touching sections have the same color is 5.

Let's say we begin with a single triangle. This triangle will be the first of a series of seven subsequent triangles, none of which will have any portions contact. If a square were the initial shape, then there are five shapes—three of which are squares and the other two are triangles—that don't have any touching portions. Given that a square takes up twice as much room, this value is probably lower, but location also matters. Therefore, for the given figure, the least number of colored areas you can color in that yet meet the required criteria is 5.

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Answer:

Dependent variable: time(months) or [tex]t[/tex]

Independent variable: 6

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]h=24+6t[/tex]

(h=height)

Answer:

37.5

Step-by-step explanation:

So whenever you want to find "x" percent of a number, you just do: [tex]\frac{x}{100} * n = \text{x\% of n}[/tex]. You're essentially converting the percentage to it's decimal value by dividing by 100.

Given this information, we're solving for x, instead of x% of n. In this case n = 56,000, and x% of 56,000 is 21,000

[tex]\frac{x}{100} * 56000 = 2100[/tex]

Divide both sides by 56,000

[tex]\frac{x}{100} = \frac{21,000}{56,000}[/tex]

Multiply both sides by 100

[tex]x = 100(\frac{21,000}{56,000})[/tex]

Simplify:

[tex]x = 37.5\%[/tex]

This can be generally thought of as:

[tex]x=100(\frac{part}{whole})[/tex]

where part = partial amount, or how much is after finding what x% is of the whole amount, but in this case we know what it is, we just don't know what the "x" percent is.

Answer:

C

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]\cos E=\frac{11}{18} \\ \\ E=\cos^{-1} \left(\frac{11}{18} \right) \\ \\ E \approx 52.33^{\circ}[/tex]

Answer:

  c > 5

Step-by-step explanation:

The properties of equality can be used to solve inequalities. Attention needs to be paid to ordering.

We can subtract 3 from both sides to solve this.

  c +3 > 8 . . . . . . given

  c +3 -3 > 8 -3 . . . . subtract 3 from both sides

  c > 5 . . . . . . . . . simplify

The solution is c > 5.

__

Additional comment

Adding or subtracting a value to a number on a number line is equivalent to shifting it right or left. It does not change ordering.

Multiplying or dividing by a positive number is equivalent to expanding or compressing the distance from zero. It does not change ordering.

Multiplying or dividing by a negative number reflects the value across the origin, in addition to expanding or compressing the distance from zero. This reflection reverses the left-right ordering. For example, -2 < -1, but 2 > 1. (Both numbers multiplied by -1.)

As long as you're aware of the effect on ordering, you can use any of the properties of equality to solve inequalities.

Answer:

-20

Step-by-step explanation:

Use the distributive property to get [tex]2xy-14[/tex] (you multiply both xy and -7 by 2.) Now plug in the x and y values to get: [tex]2(-1)(3)-14[/tex]. This gets you [tex]-6-14[/tex] which is [tex]-20[/tex].

The probability that the person selected is 40 years old or younger is 0.61.

Probability determines the odds that a random event would happen. The probability the event occurs is 1 and the probability that the event does not occur is 0.

The more likely the event is to happen, the closer the probability value would be to 1. The less likely it is for the event not to happen, the closer the probability value would be to zero.

The probability that the person selected is 40 years old or younger = number of people 40 years or younger / total number of people at the movie theatre = (6 + 17 + 18 + 10 + 4 + 6) / (6 + 17 + 18 + 10 + 4 + 6 + 16 + 3 + 20)

61 / 100 = 0.61

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We get $593,940

Answer:

Solution Given:

1 second = $ 521

19 minutes=19*60=1140 seconds

1140 seconds =$521*1140 =$593,940

Answer:

$593,940

Step-by-step explanation:

$521 for every second

First, you need to multiply 60 with 19, since there are 60 seconds in a minute.

We get: 60 × 19 = 1140

Now multiply $521 with 1140

We get: 521 × 19 = 593,940

Final result: $593,940

Hope this helps :)

An example of an exponential graph function has been attached and its' properties are as below.

The general formula for exponential functions is: f(x) = aˣ, a > 0, a ≠ 1.

The reasons for the restrictions are because;

If a ≤ 0, then when you raise it to a rational power, you may not get a real number.

The graph of an exponential function y = 2ˣ is shown in the attached file. Here are some properties of the exponential function when the base is greater than 1.

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The sum of normally distributed random variables is also a normally distributed random variable.

Given [tex]n[/tex] random variables with [tex]X_i\sim\mathrm{Normal}(\mu_i,\sigma_i^2)[/tex], their sum is

[tex]\displaystyle\sum_{i=1}^n X_i \sim \mathrm{Normal}\left(\sum_{i=1}^n \mu_i, \sum_{i=1}^n \sigma_i^2\right)[/tex]

i.e. normally distributed with mean and variance equal to the sums of the means and variances of the [tex]X_i[/tex].

In this case, each of [tex]X_1,X_2,X_3[/tex] are normally distributed with [tex]\mu=4[/tex] and [tex]\sigma^2[/tex] = ... I'm not sure what you meant for the variance, so I'll keep it symbolic. Then

[tex]V = X_1+X_2+X_3 \sim \mathrm{Normal}(12, 3\sigma^2)[/tex]

Answer:

3:26 to be on time!

Step-by-step explanation:

If you leave your house at 3:26 am and then walk 34 minutes it will be 4 am

once you get to work.

Answer:

yes dear u need not to pay before viewing answer

You should at least answer 1 question to view the answers.

Answer:

(4,8)

hi hi hi hi hi hi hi hi

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Comment

I can't be sure what you mean by 2001/2. I will interpret it the way it is written.

1 hour produces 2001/2

8 hours produces x

What you have is a proportion.

Solution

1/8 = 2001/2 // x                       Cross multiply

1*x = 2001/2 *  8                       Combine

x = 8004

Answer

The printer will produce 8004 printed pages.

Step-by-step explanation:

1 meter = 1000 mm

the area of 1.6 m² means the side length of the square is

sqrt(1.6) = 1.264911064... m = 1,264.911064... mm

to create a square out of the rectangular pattern he needs to put e.g. 42 patterns along the 45 mm side and stack 45 patterns on top of the 42 mm side.

the minimum number of needed patterns we get via the last common multiple (LCM) of 42 and 45.

for this we use the prime factorization :

45 ÷ 2 no

45 ÷ 3 = 15

15 ÷ 3 = 5

5 ÷ 3 no

5 ÷ 5 = 1

45 = 3² × 5¹

42 ÷ 2 = 21

21 ÷ 2 no

21 ÷ 3 = 7

7 ÷ 3 no

7 ÷ 5 no

7 ÷ 7 = 1

42 = 2¹ × 3¹ × 7¹

the LCM is the product of the longest streaks of each used prime factor.

LCM(42, 45) = 2¹ × 3² × 5¹ × 7¹ = 2×9×5×7 = 630

(i) he needs 210 patterns to form the smallest square.

this will be

14×45 mm on one side = 630 mm

15×42 mm on the other side = 630 mm

14×15 = 210 patterns.

(ii)

the limit per side length is as established

1,264.911064... mm

starting with the minimum of 630 mm how often can we add 42 mm in one direction and 45 mm in the other, and keep a 15 : 14 ratio between these numbers ?

and we need integer numbers, as we cannot use parts of the patterns (only full patterns).

45 × x <= 1264

x <= 1264/45 = 28.08888888... = integer 28

42 × y <= 1264

y <= 1264/42 = 30.0952381... = integer 30

30/28 = 15/14

so, the ratio is maintained for these numbers.

that means as maximum we can put

30×28 = 840 patterns as square inside the max. allowed area.

the dimensions of this max. square are therefore

30×42 = 1260 mm

28×45 = 1260 mm

the area of this square is then

1260mm × 1260 mm = 1,587,600 mm² = 1.5876 m²

Answer:

YES! it's one-to-one function.

Step-by-step explanation:

One to one function or one to one mapping states that each element of one set, say Set (A) is mapped with a unique element of another set, say, Set (B), where A and B are two different sets. It is also written as 1-1. In terms of function, it is stated as if f(x) = f(y) implies x = y, then f is one to one.

Thus, when we look at this given function

X Y

[tex] - 2 \: \: \: \: \: \: 1 \\ - 5 \: \: \: \: \:- 1 \\ 3 \: \: \: \: \: \: - 5 \\ 1 \: \: \: \: \: \: - 2 \\ 0 \: \: \: \: \: \: 5 \\ - 1 \: \: \: \: \: \: 6 \\ - 6 \: \: \: \: \: \: \: 7 \\ \: \: 7 \: \: \: \: \: \: - 6[/tex]

So, when you look at each value of x is attaches with different value of y and there is no repetition of elements means that one element of x is directly attached to one element of y.

Hope it helps!

The linear equation that represents the relationship between earnings and tips will be y = 0.75x + 50.

The linear equation is given as,

y = mx + c

Where m is the slope of the line and c is the y-intercept of the line.

Working as a waitress is Amanda. She receives $50 every day in addition to 75% of the tips her clients leave.

Let 'x' be the tip amount and 'y' be the total earning.

y = 0.75x + 50

Check:

At (20,65), then we have

65 = 0.75(20)+50

65 = 15+50

65=65

At (50,87.5), then we have

87.5 = 0.75(50)+50

87.5 = 37.5+50

87.5=87.5

At (100,125), then we have

125 = 0.75(100)+50

125 = 75+50

125=125

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The second number line best shows how to solve –4 – (–8). This can be obtained by finding the value of –4 – (–8) and checking which number line has the required arrow mark.

The value of  –4 – (–8) is obtained.

–4 – (–8) =  –4 + 8

–4 – (–8) = 4

The arrow should move from zero to - 4 and the second arrow should move from - 4 to 4.

From the question given the number lines,

The first arrow is moving from zero to - 4.

First condition is satisfied.

The second arrow is moving from - 4 to  8.

Second condition is not satisfied.

The first arrow is moving from zero to - 4.

First condition is satisfied.

The second arrow is moving from - 4 to  4.

Second condition is satisfied.

Hence the second number line best shows how to solve –4 – (–8).

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The expected value for the drilling company, using a discrete distribution, is of -$9,125, that is, a loss of $9,125.

The expected value of a discrete distribution is given by the sum of each outcome multiplied by it's respective probability.

Considering the cost that it takes to sink a test well, and the probabilities of each outcome, the discrete distribution is given by:

Hence the expected value is given as follows:

E(X) = 300000 x 0.025 + 130000 x 0 .05 - 25000 x 0.925 = -$9,125.

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Applying the initial conditions, the specific solution is:

[tex]y = e^{-2x}(-3\sin{3x} + 4\cos{3x})[/tex]

The general solution is given by:

[tex]y = e^{-2x}(C_1\sin{3x} + C_2\cos{3x})[/tex]

We apply the initial conditions to find the specific solution.

First, we have that y(0) = 4, then:

[tex]4 = e^{-2(0)}(C_1\sin{3(0)} + C_2\cos{3(0)})[/tex]

Since cos(0) = 1, we have that:

[tex]C_2 = 4[/tex]

Then:

[tex]y = e^{-2x}(C_1\sin{3x} + 4\cos{3x})[/tex]

The derivative is:

[tex]y^\prime(x) = -2e^{-2x}(C_1\sin{3x} + 4\cos{3x}) + e^{-2x}(3C_1\cos{3x} - 4\sin{3x})[/tex]

Since y'(0) = -17, then:

[tex]-17 = -8 + 3C_1[/tex]

[tex]3C_1 = -9[/tex]

[tex]C_1 = -3[/tex]

Then the specific solution is:

[tex]y = e^{-2x}(-3\sin{3x} + 4\cos{3x})[/tex]

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The central angle in the circle is ∠DAC,major arc is BED, minor arc is ADC and BC=(5π*BD)/18.

Given that BD is diameter of the circle and angle BAC is 100°.

We are required to find the central angle, major arc, minor arc, m BEC, BC.

Angle is basically finding out the intensity of inclination of something on the surface.

In the circle central angles are many like BAC and CAD. We can write CAD as DAC also.

Major arc of a circle is that arc whose length is larger than all other arcs in the circle.

In our circle the major arc is arc BED.

Minor arc of a circle is that arc whose length is smaller.

In our circle the minor arc is arc ADC.

We know that arc's length is 2πr(Θ/360)

In this way BC=2π*(BD/2)*100/360

=(5π*BD)/18

We cannot find angle BEC.

Hence the central angle in the circle is ∠DAC,major arc is BED, minor arc is ADC and BC=(5π*BA)/18.

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The ODE is separable.

[tex]\dfrac{dy}{dx} = xy \iff \dfrac{dy}y = x\,dx[/tex]

Integrate both sides to get

[tex]\displaystyle \int\frac{dy}y = \int x\,dx[/tex]

[tex]\boxed{\ln|y| = \dfrac12 x^2 + C}[/tex]

But notice that replacing the constant [tex]C[/tex] with [tex]-C[/tex] doesn't affect the solution, since its derivative would recover the same ODE as before.

[tex]\ln|y| = \dfrac12 x^2 - C \implies \dfrac1y \dfrac{dy}{dx} = x \implies \dfrac{dy}{dx} = xy[/tex]

so either of the first two answers are technically correct.

Answer:

15 quarters, 10 nickels

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]q+n=25[/tex]

[tex]0.25q+0.05n=4.25[/tex]

multiply the first equation by -0.25 and add the second equation to it

[tex]-0.25q-0.25n=-6.25\\0.25q+0.05n=4.25[/tex]
________________
                [tex]-0.2n=-2[/tex]

[tex]n=\frac{-2}{-0.2} =10[/tex]   has 10 nickels

[tex]q=25-n=25-10=15[/tex]  has 15 quarters

10(.05) +15(0.25) = 0.5 + 3.75 = 4.25

Hope this helps

Answer:

he is more likely incorrect.

Step-by-step explanation:

Z = (ps - p0)/sqrt(p0(1-p0)/n)

ps = proportion sample

p0 = proportion null hypothesis (NCAA)

n = sample size

ps = 17 / 36/100 = 17/1 / 36/100 = 1700/36 =

= 47.22222222...%

Z = (0.47222... - 0.575)/sqrt(0.575(1 - 0.575)/36) =

= -0.10277777... /sqrt(0.244375 / 36) =

= -0.10277777... / 0.0823905... =

= -1.247446952... ≈ -1.25

p(-1.25) = 0.10565

0.10565 > 0.05

the null hypothesis is therefore likely, or at least cannot be rejected.

so, his claims are not supported, as surprising as this might feel given that the sample result itself is 10 points off the NCCA result, which feels to be a solid difference.