Following are the steps in the activity-based cost allocation:
a- Collection of cost pool
b- Calculation of activity driver rate
c- Identification of the main activities
d- Charging the cost of activities to products e- Determination of the activity cost drivers

State the correct sequence of the above steps

Case 2 (.5 Mark )
Activity -based costing :
a) Uses a plant -wide overhead rate to assign overhead
b) Is not expensive to implement
c)Typically applies overhead costs using direct labor -hours
d) Uses multiple activity rates

Answers

Answer 1

Activity-based costing does use multiple activity rates to assign overhead costs based on different activities.

Statement d) is correct.

The correct sequence of the steps in activity-based cost allocation is as follows:
1. Identification of the main activities
2. Collection of cost pool
3. Determination of the activity cost drivers
4. Calculation of activity driver rate
5. Charging the cost of activities to products

Regarding the statements about activity-based costing:
- Statement a) is incorrect.

Activity-based costing does not use a plant-wide overhead rate, but rather uses multiple activity rates to assign overhead costs.

- Statement b) is subjective and depends on the specific implementation of activity-based costing.

Generally, implementing activity-based costing may require time and resources, making it relatively more expensive than other costing methods.

- Statement c) is incorrect.

Activity-based costing does not typically apply overhead costs using direct labor hours. Instead, it assigns overhead costs based on the activities that drive those costs.

- Statement d) is correct.

Activity-based costing does use multiple activity rates to assign overhead costs based on different activities.


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helicopters provide a way to reach remote fire zones quickly. identify two safety precautions you should follow in a helicopter landing zone. prohibit smoking within 1,000 feet (300 m) of helicopter, fuel storage, and refueling equipment shine a signal light toward landing helicopters. wear eye and hearing protection. illuminate helicopters on the ground with searchlights and headlights. keep the landing zone dry. stay at least 100 feet (30 m) away unless authorized to approach by the pilot or crew.

Answers

Safety precautions in a helicopter landing zone include no smoking within 1,000 feet of the helicopter and maintaining a 100-foot distance unless authorized, ensuring fire prevention and personal safety.

Two safety precautions that should be followed in a helicopter landing zone are:

Prohibit smoking within 1,000 feet (300 meters) of the helicopter, fuel storage, and refueling equipment: Smoking poses a significant fire hazard, especially in areas with fuel and flammable materials.

Prohibiting smoking helps minimize the risk of accidental fires or explosions, ensuring the safety of personnel, equipment, and the helicopter itself.

Stay at least 100 feet (30 meters) away from the helicopter unless authorized to approach by the pilot or crew: Helicopters generate powerful downwash from their rotor blades, creating strong winds and debris that can pose a danger to individuals in close proximity.

Maintaining a safe distance minimizes the risk of being struck by flying debris or being affected by the turbulent air currents, ensuring the safety of both the ground personnel and the helicopter.

These precautions prioritize fire prevention, personal safety, and maintaining a safe operating environment in and around the helicopter landing zone. Adhering to these precautions helps mitigate potential risks and enhances the overall safety of helicopter operations in remote fire zones.

In summary: Two safety precautions to follow in a helicopter landing zone are prohibiting smoking within 1,000 feet (300 meters) of the helicopter and maintaining a safe distance of at least 100 feet (30 meters) from the helicopter unless authorized. These precautions reduce fire hazards and ensure personal safety in the landing zone.

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Accrued interest is:
Group of answer choices
[A] the difference between full and dirty prices
[B] the difference between quoted and clean prices
[C] the difference between quoted and dirty prices
[D] the sum of accumulated value and clean prices

Answers

The difference between quoted and dirty prices. Quoted prices refer to the clean prices of financial instruments, which do not include the accrued interest. On the other hand, dirty prices include the accrued interest.  the correct answer is [C]

Accrued interest is the interest that has accumulated on a financial instrument since its last interest payment date. It represents the amount of interest that is owed to the holder of the instrument but has not yet been paid.

To calculate the accrued interest, you would subtract the quoted price from the dirty price. This difference represents the accrued interest that has built up over time.

Accrued interest is an important concept in finance, particularly in bond markets, as it determines the amount of interest income that an investor will receive when buying or selling a bond between interest payment dates.

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kindly answer it with formula and solution, thankyou

1. Central bank imposes a 10% required reserve ratio, if the required reserve is 200,000 pesos, how much is the non-bank private sector deposit?

Answers

To calculate the non-bank private sector deposit, we can use the formula:

Non-Bank Private Sector Deposit = Required Reserve / Reserve Ratio

Given that the required reserve is 200,000 pesos and the required reserve ratio is 10%, we can substitute these values into the formula:

Non-Bank Private Sector Deposit = 200,000 / 0.10

Non-Bank Private Sector Deposit = 2,000,000 pesos

Therefore, the non-bank private sector deposit is 2,000,000 pesos.

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Rosa (59) files MFS and itemizes her deductions. All of the following are deductible except one. Which is not deductible for 2022? a) Personal property taxes based on the value of the property b) Additional medicare taxes withheld on Rosa's for w-2 c) Local real estate taxes d) state income tax withheld on Rosa's form w-2

Answers

Personal property taxes based on the value of the property are generally deductible on Schedule A of Form 1040, as long as they are based on the assessed value of the property.


c) Local real estate taxes are also deductible on Schedule A of Form 1040, as long as they are based on the assessed value of the property.


d) State income tax withheld on Rosa's Form W-2 is deductible on Schedule A of Form 1040 as well.

However,

"b) Additional Medicare taxes withheld on Rosa's Form W-2" is not deductible. Additional Medicare taxes are not considered an itemized deduction and are not eligible for deduction on Schedule A.

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Compose your own definition of the term money management. Do not use book or powerpoint definition. #2. What are three components of money management? List and explain each component. #3. What are the 5 benefits of an organized system of keeping financial records and documents? Explain each in multiple sentences. \#4 What are some ways in which you could make savings easier in your own life? #5 Explain whether an envelope system, as shown in the video could work for you. Give the rational for your answer.

Answers

Money management refers to the practice of effectively managing one's finances to achieve financial goals and maintain a stable financial position. It involves making informed decisions about earning, spending, saving, and investing money.

2.Three components of money management are budgeting, saving, and investing. Budgeting involves creating a plan that outlines income and expenses, helping individuals allocate their money efficiently. Saving refers to setting aside a portion of income for future needs and emergencies. It helps build a financial safety net and achieve long-term goals. Investing involves putting money into various assets, such as stocks, bonds, or real estate, to generate additional income or increase wealth over time.

3.An organized system of keeping financial records and documents provides several benefits. Firstly, it helps individuals track income and expenses, allowing them to identify areas where they can cut back or save money. Secondly, it facilitates tax preparation by ensuring all necessary documents are readily available. Thirdly, it provides evidence in case of disputes or legal issues related to finances. Additionally, organized financial records help monitor debt, create a financial roadmap, and improve financial decision-making.

4.To make savings easier, individuals can adopt several strategies. These include automating savings transfers, setting specific savings goals, reducing unnecessary expenses, tracking spending, and avoiding impulsive purchases. Creating a budget and adhering to it can also help save money consistently.

5.The envelope system, as shown in the video, can work for some individuals. It involves allocating cash into different envelopes labeled for specific expenses. This method helps individuals visually see how much money is allocated for each category, promoting better control over spending. However, it may not be suitable for everyone, especially those who prefer digital methods or have varying income streams. It is important to choose a system that aligns with one's preferences and financial situation.

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Steve's car wash business did quite well and had $220,000 in sales in 2010. If sales will grow at a rate of 4% per year, how large will they be in 5 years (in 2015)

Answers

The projected sales in 2015 for Steve's car wash business would be approximately $267,665.

To calculate the projected sales in 2015 based on a growth rate of 4% per year, use the formula for compound interest:

Future Value = Present Value × (1 + Growth Rate)^Number of Years

In this case:

Present Value (sales in 2010) = $220,000

Growth Rate = 4% = 0.04

Number of Years = 2015 - 2010 = 5

Plugging these values into the formula,

Future Value = $220,000 × (1 + 0.04)^5

Future Value = $220,000 × (1.04)^5

Future Value = $220,000 × 1.21665

Calculating the result,

Future Value ≈ $267,664.88

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The FCC has hired you as a consultant to design an auction to sell wireless spectrum rights.
The FCC has hired you as a consultant to design an auction to sell wireless spectrum rights. The FCC indicates that its goal of using auctions to sell these spectrum rights is to generate revenue. Since most bidders are large telecommunications companies, you rationally surmise that all participants in the auction are risk neutral. Which auction type

Answers

For an auction of wireless spectrum rights where all bidders value the rights identically but have different estimates of the true underlying value, the second-price auction would be recommended.

In a second-price auction, also known as a Vickrey auction, the highest bidder wins the item but pays the price equal to the second-highest bid. This auction format encourages bidders to bid their true valuations because there is no incentive to bid lower than their actual value.

In the given scenario, where all bidders have the same value for the spectrum rights but different estimates of the true underlying value, a second-price auction would be effective.

Bidders would have an incentive to bid their true valuations, as the highest bid would still only require payment equal to the second-highest bid. This reduces the risk of overbidding and ensures that the auction generates revenue close to the true value of the spectrum rights.

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Recently in several countries even though nominal GDP increased from the year before their real GDP actually declined. Explain, using numerical example, how this is possible. 2 Marks
There is a danger that some countries will experience stagflation. Use a graph(s), define and explain stagflation and its consequences. 2 Marks
A news article stated that the unemployment rate decreased by 0.25 percent whilst the participation rate increased by 0.4 percent respectively. Explain if this is a positive for the economy.

Answers


This situation can occur when there is a high inflation rate. Nominal GDP measures the value of goods and services produced in current prices, while real GDP adjusts for inflation by using constant prices.

So, if the inflation rate is higher than the nominal GDP growth rate, the real GDP will decline.

Here's an example:
Suppose in Year 1, the nominal GDP is $ 10,000 and the inflation rate is 5%. In Year 2, the nominal GDP increases to $ 11,000, but the inflation rate jumps to 8%. As a result, the real GDP in Year 2 would be $11,000 / (1 + 0.08) = $10,185. Therefore, even though the nominal GDP increased, the real GDP declined.


Stagflation refers to a situation where there is a combination of high inflation and high unemployment rates, which is typically unexpected. It is a challenging economic condition because it contradicts the conventional relationship between inflation and unemployment. Stagflation can have several consequences, such as:

Reduced purchasing power: High inflation erodes the value of money, leading to a decrease in purchasing power for consumers.

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In 2022 , Casa received 1,000 shares of restricted stock from her employer when the price was $8 per share. In 2025 , when the share price was $11, the restricted stock vested. In 2030, Casa sold the stock for $25 per share. If Casa made an election under Section 83( b) in 2022 , what amount of ordinary income and capital gain will she recognize with respect to the stock transactions? $25,000 ordinary income in 2022;$0 capital gain in 2030 . $11,000 ordinary income in 2025;$14,000 capital gain in 2030 . $0 ordinary income in 2022; $25,000 capital gain in 2030 . $8,000 ordinary income in 2022;$17,000 capital gain in 2030 .

Answers

The correct answer is: $8,000 ordinary income in 2022; $17,000 capital gain in 2030.

When Casa received the restricted stock in 2022, the fair market value of the stock was $8 per share. Since she made an election under Section 83(b), she includes the fair market value of the stock ($8,000) as ordinary income in 2022.

In 2025, when the restricted stock vested and the share price was $11, Casa does not recognize any additional income. The difference between the fair market value at the time of grant and the fair market value at the time of vesting ($11 - $8 = $3) is not included as additional income.

Finally, in 2030, when Casa sells the stock for $25 per share, she will have a capital gain. The capital gain is calculated as the difference between the selling price ($25) and the fair market value at the time of vesting ($11) multiplied by the number of shares (1,000): ($25 - $11) * 1,000 = $14,000.

Therefore, Casa will recognize $8,000 of ordinary income in 2022 and $17,000 of capital gain in 2030 from the stock transactions.

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what is the time 0 value of the following cash flows? assume the discount rate is 6%. date cash flow 1 $2,000 2 $1,500 3 $2,500 4 $4,000

Answers

$8,489.21 is the time 0 value of the following cash flows when discount rate is 6%. Option C is correct.

PV = CF₁ /(1 + r)1 +....

PV = 2000/(1+6%)¹ + 1500/(1+6%)² + 2500/(1+6%)³ + 4000/(1+6%)⁴

                             = $8,489.21

The term "cash flow" refers to the amount of cash or cash-equivalent the business receives or distributes as a result of payments made to creditors. The company's liquidity position is frequently examined through the use of cash flow analysis.

A financial statement known as a cash flow statement depicts the amount of cash that enters and exits your company over a specific time frame. It helps you figure out which parts of the business are profitable, which parts are wasteful, and when and if it might be a good idea to scale up.

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Complete question as follows:

What is the time 0 value of the following cash flows? Assume the discount rate is 6%. show Work. Date cash flow 1 $2000 2 $1500 3 $2500 4 $4,000

Answers:

a. $7,668.92

b. $8,062.57

c. $8,489.21

d. $8,998.56

e. $9,338.13

name three sources that organizations can use when seeking to fill supervisory positions.

Answers

Three sources that organizations can use when seeking to fill supervisory positions are internal promotions, external hiring, and professional networks.


1. Internal promotions: Organizations can consider promoting existing employees to supervisory positions. This allows them to leverage the knowledge, skills, and experience of individuals who are already familiar with the company's culture, operations, and processes. Internal promotions can motivate employees and provide opportunities for career growth within the organization.

2. External hiring: Organizations can also look externally to fill supervisory positions by hiring candidates from outside the company. This can bring fresh perspectives, diverse skill sets, and new ideas to the organization. External hiring allows organizations to tap into a larger pool of talent and potentially find individuals with specific expertise or experience in the field.

3. Professional networks: Organizations can utilize their professional networks to identify potential candidates for supervisory positions. This can include industry-specific associations, online communities, and networking events. Through these networks, organizations can connect with individuals who have a proven track record in leadership roles and may be suitable for the supervisory position.

It's important for organizations to consider these different sources and evaluate each option based on factors such as qualifications, experience, cultural fit, and long-term potential. By considering internal promotions, external hiring, and professional networks, organizations can increase their chances of finding qualified candidates for supervisory positions.

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After an assessment of needs, a marketing manager must translate ideas from consumers into concepts for products that a firm may develop. The concepts must then be converted into a tangible Multiple Choice mission statement. macromarketing agenda micromarketing ogendo marketing program. marketing concept.

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After an assessment of needs, a marketing manager must translate ideas from consumers into concepts for products that a firm may develop. The concepts must then be converted into a tangible marketing program.

The marketing program consists of all the firm's marketing decisions regarding the product, price, promotion, and distribution.

The marketing program is the final stage of a marketing manager's effort to turn ideas from customers into a concrete, comprehensive strategy for a business.

A marketing program is a comprehensive plan that lays out all of the firm's marketing decisions about the product, price, promotion, and distribution.

The objective of a marketing program is to assist a firm in achieving its overall mission by selling its products and services to target consumers. It includes determining and selecting target markets, formulating a marketing mix, and designing a marketing strategy.

The marketing concept is a modern marketing-oriented business philosophy that entails a consumer-centered approach to designing and implementing a marketing strategy.

This strategy involves researching customer needs, developing products that meet those needs, and then advertising and promoting the product to the target market.

The marketing concept is an approach to conducting business that prioritizes meeting customer demands over the business's short-term objectives.

The end goal is to establish long-term relationships with customers by delivering high-quality goods that meet their needs.

Micro-marketing is the practice of tailoring products and services to meet the needs of individuals in a small, well-defined target market.

It is a business philosophy that emphasizes the importance of personalized marketing strategies and customer segmentation to achieve business objectives.

On the other hand, Macromarketing focuses on the entire marketing system, which is made up of consumers, businesses, and other organizations that work together to make products and services available to the market.

It examines the factors that influence the marketing system as a whole.

A marketing manager must be familiar with both macro- and micro-marketing concepts and use them to design a marketing program.

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Which of the following is true? Duration is a measure of a security's interest rate risk. The longer the time to maturity the shorter the duration of a band. If interest rates increase, the value of a fixed rate security increases. The duration of bond with 10 years to maturity and a 14% coupon rate is equal to fourteen years: Bond A has a coupon rate of 5% and 15 years to maturity while bond B has a coupon rate of 10% and 15 years to maturity. The duntion of bond A is shor

Answers

The statement "Duration is a measure of a security's interest rate risk" is true. The other statements in the question are false. The duration of a bond is generally longer as the time to maturity increases, not shorter.

When interest rates increase, the value of a fixed-rate security decreases, not increases. Lastly, the duration of a bond is not equal to the number of years to maturity, so the statement about Bond A having a shorter duration than Bond B based on their coupon rates and years to maturity is incorrect.

Duration is a measure of a security's interest rate risk. It takes into account factors such as the time to maturity, coupon rate, and yield. Duration measures the sensitivity of the bond's price to changes in interest rates. Generally, the longer the duration, the higher the interest rate risk associated with the security.

Contrary to the statement, the duration of a bond typically increases as the time to maturity increases. Longer-maturity bonds have longer durations because their cash flows are spread over a longer period, making them more sensitive to changes in interest rates.

When interest rates increase, the value of fixed-rate securities, such as bonds, generally decreases. This is because the fixed interest payments become less attractive compared to the higher prevailing interest rates in the market.

The duration of a bond is not equal to the number of years to maturity. It is a measure of the weighted average time it takes to receive the bond's cash flows, including both coupon payments and the principal repayment. Therefore, the statement about Bond A having a shorter duration than Bond B based on their coupon rates and years to maturity is incorrect.

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Ocean marine policies pay the entire face amount of the policy to the insured in the event of a total loss. This means ocean marine policies are ________________.

Select one: a. special form. b. standard form. c. specified policies. d. valued policies.

Answers

Ocean marine policies that pay the entire face amount of the policy in the event of a total loss are known as valued policies. This means that the insured will receive the full stated value of the policy without any adjustment.

Valued policies are a type of insurance contract where the value of the insured property is agreed upon in advance. In the case of ocean marine policies, if a total loss occurs, such as the complete destruction or disappearance of the insured property, the insured will be paid the full face amount of the policy as stated in the contract. This payment is made without any deduction or adjustment based on the actual value of the property at the time of loss.

Valued policies are typically used for properties where it is difficult to determine their exact value or in situations where the agreed value provides certainty and ease of claims settlement.

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When a supply curve is constructed, data are required for price and quantity. Each point on the supply curve is supply of the product. a quantity supplied at a given price. the amount that people want to buy. the amount people want to sell to buyers of different incomes. All of these responses are correct.

Answers

When a supply curve is constructed, data is needed for both price and quantity. Each point on the supply curve represents the quantity supplied at a given price. Therefore, the correct answer is "a quantity supplied at a given price."

The supply curve shows the relationship between the price of a product and the quantity that suppliers are willing and able to sell at that price. It is important to note that the supply curve is upward sloping, indicating that as price increases, quantity supplied also increases. The other options mentioned, such as "the amount that people want to buy" and "the amount people want to sell to buyers of different incomes," are not accurate definitions for points on the supply curve.

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suggested time 15 - 20 minutes Dash's Racing Supplies (DRS) Ltd. Is getting ready to provide its September 30,202 ? year end financial statements to the bank. The following transactions were mado during the year. 1) On October 1, 2021. DRS borrowed $10,000 from the Royal Bank. The bank 10 an is io be repaid in 4 equal annual installments of $2,500 per year plus interest. The installment for 2021/22 was made on Sept 30,2022 . Annual interest on the bank loan is 4% and is due at the end of the loan - September 30,2025. 2) On October 1, 2021, DRS paid $1,600 for the computer equipment necessary to run DRS. The computer equipment is expected to be used for 4 years. DRS uses straight line depreciation. 3) On April 1, 2022 DRS purchased racing equipment for $6,000. The racing equipment is expected to be used for 4 years. DRS uses straight line depreciation. 4) On July 1, 2022, DRS paid $1,800 for a one year insurance policy for the period of July 1, 2022, to June 30, 2023. 5) On August 28, 2022 purchased $1750. of supplies necessary to make racing rep The company records the supplies as items that have a future benefit. On September 30,2022 , supplies remaining are $550. 6) DRS received $1,000 from a customer for work to be started and completed in October 2022. Prepare good form ALL regular and adjusting journal entries for DRS. Show all regul journal entries first and then show your adjusting journal entries. If a journal entry is needed, note this and the reason why. Show all necessary calculations.

Answers

Dash's Racing Supplies (DRS) Ltd. has several transactions throughout the year that require journal entries for their financial statements. These transactions include borrowing from the Royal Bank.

Regular Journal Entries:

1) October 1, 2021:

  DR: Cash $10,000

  CR: Bank Loan $10,000 (to record borrowing from the Royal Bank)

2) October 1, 2021:

  DR: Computer Equipment $1,600

  CR: Cash $1,600 (to record the purchase of computer equipment)

3) April 1, 2022:

  DR: Racing Equipment $6,000

  CR: Cash $6,000 (to record the purchase of racing equipment)

4) July 1, 2022:

  DR: Prepaid Insurance $1,800

  CR: Cash $1,800 (to record the payment for a one-year insurance policy)

5) August 28, 2022:

  DR: Supplies $1,750

  CR: Cash $1,750 (to record the purchase of supplies)

6) September 30, 2022:

  DR: Accounts Receivable $1,000

  CR: Unearned Revenue $1,000 (to record the receipt of payment from a customer)

Adjusting Journal Entries:

1) December 31, 2022 (Depreciation - Computer Equipment):

  DR: Depreciation Expense - Computer Equipment $400

  CR: Accumulated Depreciation - Computer Equipment $400 (to record annual depreciation expense)

2) December 31, 2022 (Depreciation - Racing Equipment):

  DR: Depreciation Expense - Racing Equipment $1,500

  CR: Accumulated Depreciation - Racing Equipment $1,500 (to record annual depreciation expense)

3) December 31, 2022 (Interest Expense):

  DR: Interest Expense $400

  CR: Interest Payable $400 (to record annual interest expense on the bank loan)

Note: Calculation for depreciation is based on the straight-line method (Cost / Useful Life).

These journal entries capture the various transactions and adjustments made by Dash's Racing Supplies (DRS) Ltd. throughout the year. It ensures that the financial statements accurately reflect the company's financial position and performance.

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The table shown displays CPI data for 2015 to 2019. What can be said about the cost of living in 2017? What can be said about the cost of living in 2017? Multiple Choice The typical consumer had to spend 5 percent more in 2017 the The price of intermediate goods increased by 5 percent. The typical consumer could spend 5 percent less to maintai None of these are true.

Answers

Based on the information provided, none of the options are true. The statement "None of these are true" is the correct answer regarding the cost of living in 2017 based on the given data.

The right response, given the information given, is: None of these are true. The data for the CPI (Consumer Price Index), which measures the average price changes of a basket of goods and services over time, is shown in the table below for the years 2015 through 2019. We require the CPI number particularly for 2017 in order to calculate the cost of living in that year. It is hard to accurately assess the cost of living in 2017 because the table does not include the CPI for that year.

We cannot determine whether the typical consumer had to spend more or less, or if there was a specific change in the price of intermediate products, without the CPI statistics for 2017. Therefore, given the available data, the only conclusive conclusion we can draw is that none of the possibilities are true.

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Which do you​ prefer: a bank account that pays 4.9% per year​ (EAR) for three years or

a. An account that pays 2.7% every six months for three​ years?

b. An account that pays 6.8% every 18 months for three​ years?

c. An account that pays 0.56% per month for three​ years?

​(Note: Compare your current bank EAR with each of the three alternative accounts. Be careful not to round any intermediate steps less than six decimal​ places.)

Answers

Based on the terms provided, the most suitable bank account to choose would be the one that pays 6.8% every 18 months for three years, because it has the highest Effective Annual Rate (EAR) of 4.3%. (B)

Here are the comparisons for the three accounts:Option a: EAR is 4.9% per yearOption b: EAR is 4.4% per yearOption c: EAR is 4.3% per year

To obtain the EAR for each option, use the formula:EAR = (1 + (APR/n))ⁿ - 1, where APR is the Annual Percentage Rate and m is the number of times interest is compounded per year. Do not round any intermediate steps less than six decimal places.

The account with the highest EAR is the one that pays 6.8% every 18 months for three years. The EAR is calculated as follows:APR = 6.8%n = 2 compounding periods per yearEAR = (1 + (6.8%/2))² - 1EAR = 4.3%

Therefore, option b has the highest EAR of 4.3% and is the best account to choose.(B)

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Explain how you calculated the labor force
and population in depth. (The answer is NOT 55.6%)
Refer to the following scenario to answer the next four questions. A government worker surveys a number of households and comes up with the following information: there were a total of 90 people in th"

Answers

To calculate the labor force and population, we need to understand a few key terms. The labor force refers to the total number of individuals who are either employed or actively seeking employment. The population, on the other hand, includes all individuals living in a specific area, regardless of their employment status.

To calculate the labor force, we need to consider the number of employed individuals and those actively seeking employment. In this scenario, we have been provided with the total number of people in the households, which is 90. However, we are missing information regarding the number of employed individuals or those seeking employment. Without this information, it is not possible to accurately calculate the labor force or population.

In summary, to calculate the labor force and population, we need to know the number of employed individuals and those actively seeking employment. Without this information, it is not possible to provide an accurate calculation.

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A. Rational Behavior (10): Economists assume that human action is based on rational behavior, but many non-economists object to that assumption. Explain the five things that the authors say that rational behavior does not mean.

Answers

Rational behavior, as assumed by economists, is a concept that suggests individuals make decisions based on careful consideration and logic. However, there are certain misconceptions about what rational behavior entails. According to the authors, there are five things that rational behavior does not mean:

1. Rational behavior does not mean being completely self-interested: While rational behavior does consider personal interests, it does not imply that individuals act solely for their own benefit. People often take into account the well-being of others and engage in cooperative actions.

2. Rational behavior does not mean perfect foresight: Being rational does not mean individuals can accurately predict the future. It recognizes that decision-making is based on available information at a given time, and people may make mistakes or face uncertainties.

3. Rational behavior does not mean being emotionless: Contrary to popular belief, rational behavior does not exclude emotions. It acknowledges that emotions can influence decision-making, and individuals often take emotions into account when making choices.

4. Rational behavior does not mean having unlimited cognitive abilities: Rational decision-making assumes that individuals have a certain level of cognitive abilities, but it does not require them to possess unlimited mental capacity. People may have limitations in processing information or making complex calculations.

5. Rational behavior does not mean always maximizing utility or wealth: While rational behavior considers maximizing outcomes, it does not imply that individuals always aim to maximize their own utility or wealth. People have different preferences and may prioritize factors other than monetary gain, such as social connections or personal values.

In summary, rational behavior, as understood by economists, encompasses various factors beyond self-interest, incorporates emotions, acknowledges cognitive limitations, and considers diverse preferences and values.

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On January 1, 20X2, Power Company acquired 80 percent of Strong Company’s outstanding stock for cash. Strong Company reports Common Stock, $80,000 and Retained Earnings, $96,000 on Balance Sheet at December 31, 20X2. What amount should be reported as noncontrolling interest in net assets in Power Company’s December 31, 20X2, consolidated balance sheet? Group of answer choices $35,200 $16,000 $19,200 $140,800

Answers

The amount that should be reported as noncontrolling interest in net assets in Power Company’s December 31, 20X2, consolidated balance sheet is $19,200.

How to calculate the noncontrolling interest in net assets?The noncontrolling interest in net assets is a part of the equity section of the consolidated balance sheet that represents the percentage of the subsidiary owned by the noncontrolling shareholders. In this question, Power Company owns 80% of Strong Company’s outstanding stock. Therefore, the remaining 20% of the outstanding stock is owned by noncontrolling interest.

The computation of the noncontrolling interest in net assets is as follows:Noncontrolling interest in net assets = (Total net assets of the subsidiary - Fair value of the identifiable assets and liabilities of the subsidiary) × Noncontrolling interest percentage The fair value of the identifiable assets and liabilities of the subsidiary is not provided in the question. Hence, we cannot use the above formula to calculate the noncontrolling interest.

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Lauryn's Doll Co. had EBIT last year of $44 million, which is net of a depreciation expense of $4.4 million. In addition, Lauryn's made $5.25 million in capital expenditures and increased net working capital by $3.3 million, Assume that Lauryn's has a reported equity beta of 14 , a debt-to-equity ratio of 7 , and a tax rate of 21 percent. What is Lauryn's FCF for the year?(Do not round intermediate calculations. Enter your answer in millions rounded to 2 decimal places.)

Answers

Lauryn's Doll Co. has a Free Cash Flow (FCF) , using EBIT and depreciation, of $22.31 million for the year.

To calculate Lauryn's Free Cash Flow (FCF) for the year, we can use the following formula:

FCF = EBIT * (1 - Tax Rate) + Depreciation - Capital Expenditures - Increase in Net Working Capital

Given information:

EBIT (Earnings Before Interest and Taxes) = $44 million

Depreciation = $4.4 million

Capital Expenditures = $5.25 million

Increase in Net Working Capital = $3.3 million

Tax Rate = 21%

Let's calculate the FCF:

FCF = $44 million * (1 - 0.21) + $4.4 million - $5.25 million - $3.3 million

FCF = $34.76 million + $4.4 million - $5.25 million - $3.3 million

FCF = $30.86 million - $8.55 million

FCF = $22.31 million

Therefore, Lauryn's Doll Co. has a Free Cash Flow (FCF) of $22.31 million for the year.

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Which of the following criteria, when correctly used, give the same accept/reject decisions as NPV:
I. Payback
Il. Average return on book
Ill. Internal rate of return
IV. Profitability Index
A. I only B. l and Il C. I, Ill and IV D. Il and IV

Answers

The criteria that give the same accept/reject decisions as NPV (Net Present Value) are:

C. I, Ill, and IV

Explanation:

I. Payback: The payback period measures the time required to recover the initial investment. It focuses on the time taken to recoup the cash flows, without considering the time value of money. Payback accepts projects if the payback period is less than a specified cutoff period. Payback method can give the same accept/reject decisions as NPV when the cutoff period is equal to the point where the NPV becomes positive.

Ill. Internal Rate of Return (IRR): The internal rate of return is the discount rate at which the net present value of cash flows becomes zero. It represents the rate of return of an investment. If the IRR is greater than the required rate of return, the project is accepted. IRR and NPV give the same accept/reject decisions when comparing mutually exclusive projects.

IV. Profitability Index (PI): The profitability index is the ratio of the present value of cash inflows to the present value of cash outflows. If the profitability index is greater than 1, the project is accepted. The profitability index and NPV will give the same accept/reject decisions for independent projects when considering the same cutoff index value.

Il. Average return on book: The average return on book is not directly equivalent to NPV and may not give the same accept/reject decisions. It measures the average return generated by the investment relative to the book value of the investment. This criterion does not consider the time value of money or the cash flows generated by the investment, unlike NPV.

Therefore, the correct answer is C. I, Ill, and IV.

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Prepare entries to record the following transactions and events related to Northern township’s tax revenues for the year beginning January 1, 2015:

a. To raise property tax revenue of $1,500,000 the County bills its property owners a total of $1,504,000, providing $4,000 for uncollectible and refundable taxes.

b. During the year, taxpayers pay a total of $1,300,000 in property taxes.

c. Edam declares bankruptcy, owing the County $4,000 in property taxes. The County writes off the unpaid amount as uncollectible.

d. The state collects sales taxes on behalf of Northern townships. It sends the province’s $300,000 for sales taxes collected during the year.

e. At year-end, the Northern township declares all unpaid property taxes to be

Delinquent.

Answers

$1,000 is added to the allowance for uncollectible taxes (4,000 – 4,000 + 1,000 = 1,000). The $5,000 balance in the allowance for uncollectible taxes is subtracted from the $10,000 balance in the Delinquent Property Taxes account to arrive at the net balance in the account.

Northern township's Tax Revenue Entriesa. To raise property tax revenue of $1,500,000 the County bills its property owners a total of $1,504,000, providing $4,000 for uncollectible and refundable taxes.Accounts Debit CreditTaxes Receivable 1,500,000Allowance for uncollectible taxes 4,000, Revenue from Property Tax 1,504,000b. During the year, taxpayers pay a total of $1,300,000 in property taxes. Accounts Debit Credit Cash 1,300,000Taxes Receivable 1,300,000c. Edam declares bankruptcy, owing the County $4,000 in property taxes. The County writes off the unpaid amount as uncollectible. Accounts Debit Credit Allowance for uncollectible taxes 4,000Taxes Receivable 4,000d. The state collects sales taxes on behalf of Northern townships. It sends the province’s $300,000 for sales taxes collected during the year. Accounts Debit Credit Cash 300,000, Revenue from Sales Tax 300,000e. At year-end, the Northern township declares all unpaid property taxes to be Delinquent. Accounts Debit Credit Allowance for uncollectible taxes 5,000Delinquent Property Taxes 5,000Note: The allowance for uncollectible taxes is increased by $1,000. The county provides $4,000 for uncollectible and refundable taxes in transaction (a) and writes off $4,000 as uncollectible in transaction (c). Therefore, $1,000 is added to the allowance for uncollectible taxes (4,000 – 4,000 + 1,000 = 1,000). The $5,000 balance in the allowance for uncollectible taxes is subtracted from the $10,000 balance in the Delinquent Property Taxes account to arrive at the net balance in the account.

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Describe the difference between gross profit and net profit. Explain at least two ways in which senior managers can take action to improve a merchandising company’s gross profit margin.

Answers

Gross profit and net profit are both important financial metrics used to assess the profitability of a company.

Here's the difference between the two:

1. Gross Profit: Gross profit represents the amount of revenue left after deducting the cost of goods sold (COGS). It is calculated by subtracting the COGS from the total revenue. Gross profit does not include other operating expenses such as overhead costs, marketing expenses, or administrative costs. It provides insight into a company's ability to generate revenue and manage its production or purchasing costs.

Formula: Gross Profit = Total Revenue - Cost of Goods Sold (COGS)

2. Net Profit: Net profit, also known as the bottom line, is the final profit figure after deducting all operating expenses, taxes, interest, and other non-operating expenses from the gross profit. It represents the actual profit earned by the company after considering all costs associated with operations. Net profit is a comprehensive measure of a company's profitability and its ability to generate sustainable earnings.

Formula: Net Profit = Gross Profit - Operating Expenses - Taxes - Interest - Other Non-operating Expenses

Ways senior managers can improve a merchandising company's gross profit margin:

1. Negotiating Better Supplier Terms: Senior managers can work on negotiating more favorable terms with suppliers, such as volume discounts, rebates, or extended payment terms. This can help reduce the cost of goods sold (COGS) and increase the gross profit margin.

2. Optimizing Pricing and Sales Mix: Analyzing product profitability and sales data can help identify high-margin products or product categories. Senior managers can strategically adjust prices, focus on promoting higher-margin products, or consider introducing new products with better profit margins. By optimizing the pricing and sales mix, the company can improve its overall gross profit margin.

Additionally, other actions that can contribute to improving the gross profit margin include reducing waste or inefficiencies in the production process, implementing cost-effective inventory management practices, and investing in automation or technology solutions to streamline operations and reduce costs.

It is important for senior managers to regularly analyze financial statements, conduct thorough cost evaluations, and monitor key performance indicators to identify areas for improvement and take strategic actions to enhance the company's gross profit margin.

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Suppose you want to invest $5,000. A certain investment promises a 35% return over 4 years (in other words, its future value is $6,750 ). Another investment promises 25% over 2 years (in other words, its future value is $6,250 ). Which one has the highest average annual return? [Hint: Solve for i and don't forget about compound interest.]

Answers

The second investment has the highest average annual return. Average annual return for second investment =[tex](6250 - 5000)/2 = 625[/tex]

Given Initial investment = 5000 Future value of first investment

= 6750

Future value of second investment = 6250

To find Which one has the highest average annual return

Formula used, Compound Interest = P[tex](1 + r/n)^t[/tex]

Where P = Principal amount

r= Annual interest rate

n= Number of times the interest is compounded

t= Number of years Applying compound interest formula

Let's calculate the rate of interest for both investments.35% for 4 years, then future value 6750.6750

=[tex]5000(1 + r/4)^(4*4)6750/5000[/tex]

=[tex](1 + r/4)^161.25^(1/16)[/tex]

= [tex]1 + r/4r/4 = 0.05[/tex]

[tex]r = 0.05 * 4r = 0.2[/tex]

= 20%25% for 2 years

Then future value $6250.6250

=[tex]5000(1 + r/2)^(2*2)6250/5000[/tex]

= [tex](1 + r/2)^41.25^(1/4)[/tex]

=[tex]1 + r/2r/2 = 0.0738[/tex]

r[tex]= 0.0738 * 2[/tex]

r [tex]= 0.1475[/tex]

= 14.75%

Now,

Let's find the average annual return for each investment. Average annual return for first investment = [tex](6750 - 5000)/4 = 437.50[/tex]

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Examine each of the nine selection methods discussed and determine which of these would have their validity most and least affected by the type of validation design employed.

The nine selection methods are: Interviews, references, application blanks, background checks, physical ability tests, cognitive ability tests, personality inventories, work samples, and honesty tests/drug tests

Type of validation designs: Concurrent validation design and predictive validation design

Answers

Let's examine each of the nine selection methods and determine which ones would have their validity most and least affected by the type of validation design.

1. Interviews: Interviews are a common selection method where candidates are asked questions to assess their skills, qualifications, and fit for the job. The validity of interviews would be most affected by the type of validation design when using the predictive validation design. In predictive validation design, candidates are hired based on the results of the selection method and then their job performance is measured in the future.

2. References: References involve contacting previous employers or supervisors to gather information about a candidate's past job performance. The validity of references would also be most affected by the type of validation design when using the predictive validation design. By comparing the information obtained from references with the candidate's actual job performance, the validity of the reference method can be evaluated more effectively.

3. Application blanks: Application blanks are forms that candidates fill out, providing information about their education, work experience, and skills. In concurrent validation design, current employees are assessed using the same selection methods as candidates, and their job performance is measured simultaneously. By comparing the information provided on the application blanks with the performance of current employees, the validity of the application blank method can be evaluated.

4. Background checks: Background checks involve verifying a candidate's criminal record, education, and employment history. The validity of background checks would be most affected by the type of validation design when using the concurrent validation design. By comparing the results of background checks with the performance of current employees, the validity of the background check method can be evaluated.

5. Physical ability tests: Physical ability tests assess a candidate's physical capabilities required for the job. The validity of physical ability tests would be most affected by the type of validation design when using the concurrent validation design. By comparing the performance of current employees on physical ability tests with their job performance, the validity of the physical ability test method can be evaluated.

6. Cognitive ability tests: Cognitive ability tests assess a candidate's mental abilities, such as problem-solving and reasoning skills. The validity of cognitive ability tests would be most affected by the type of validation design when using the concurrent validation design. By comparing the performance of current employees on cognitive ability tests with their job performance, the validity of the cognitive ability test method can be evaluated.

7. Personality inventories: Personality inventories assess a candidate's personality traits and characteristics. The validity of personality inventories would be most affected by the type of validation design when using the concurrent validation design. By comparing the personality traits of current employees with their job performance, the validity of the personality inventory method can be evaluated.

8. Work samples: Work samples involve candidates completing tasks or projects that simulate actual job duties. The validity of work samples would be most affected by the type of validation design when using the predictive validation design. By assessing the job performance of candidates who performed well on work samples, the validity of the work sample method can be evaluated.

9. Honesty tests/Drug tests: Honesty tests and drug tests assess a candidate's honesty or drug usage. The validity of honesty tests and drug tests would be most affected by the type of validation design when using the concurrent validation design. By comparing the results of honesty tests or drug tests with the job performance of current employees, the validity of these tests can be evaluated.

In summary, the validity of each selection method would be most affected by the type of validation design employed. Interviews and references would have their validity most affected by the predictive validation design, while application blanks, background checks, physical ability tests, cognitive ability tests, personality inventories, work samples, and honesty tests/drug tests would have their validity most affected by the concurrent validation design. These validation designs allow for a comparison between the selection method results and subsequent job performance or current employee performance, respectively, which helps evaluate the validity of the methods.

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stion

(0)

The risk that could disrupt business of financial services firms in the form of lost customers and lost revenue.

A.

FinTech risk.

B.

interest rate risk.

C.

technology risk.

D.

liquidity risk.

E.

credit risk.

Answers

The risk that could disrupt the business of financial services firms in the form of lost customers and lost revenue is credit risk.

The correct option is E. credit risk.

Credit risk refers to the potential for borrowers or counterparties to default on their obligations, resulting in financial losses for the financial services firm. When borrowers fail to repay loans or meet their financial obligations, it can lead to a decrease in the firm's revenue and potentially the loss of customers.

While the other options mentioned also pose risks to financial services firms, such as FinTech risk (the risk associated with financial technology), interest rate risk (the risk of adverse movements in interest rates), technology risk (the risk of technology failures or cybersecurity breaches), and liquidity risk (the risk of being unable to meet short-term obligations), these risks may not directly result in the loss of customers and revenue as credit risk does.

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You have discovered that when the required return of a bond you own fell by 0.3% from 9.75% to 9.45%, the price rose from $965 to $980. What is the duration of this bond assume semiannual of compounding interest?

Answers

Since the bond compounds semiannually, the duration of this bond is approximately 5.17. To calculate the duration of a bond, we can use the formula:

Duration = (ΔP / P) / Δy

where:
- ΔP is the change in the price of the bond
- P is the initial price of the bond
- Δy is the change in yield or required return

In this case, the change in price (ΔP) is $980 - $965 = $15, the initial price (P) is $965, and the change in yield (Δy) is 9.45% - 9.75% = -0.3%.

Now let's plug these values into the formula:

Duration = ($15 / $965) / (-0.003)

Simplifying this equation, we get:

Duration = -0.0155 / (-0.003)

Duration = 5.17

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Write an appropriate news release on the following newsworthy topic to be included on your company’s website:

1) offering highly competitive warranties on a new line of products

Answers

Solutions to customers worldwide. With a strong commitment to quality, performance, and customer satisfaction, [Company Name] has established itself as a trusted name in the industry.

[Company Name] Announces Exciting New Line of Products with Highly Competitive Warranties
[CITY, DATE] - [Company Name], a leading provider of [industry] solutions, is thrilled to introduce a new line of products that come with highly competitive warranties.

This groundbreaking offering aims to provide customers with unparalleled peace of mind and exceptional value.
The new line of products features cutting-edge technology, superior performance, and unmatched durability. With our commitment to innovation and customer satisfaction, we have designed these products to exceed expectations and deliver exceptional results.
What sets [Company Name]'s warranties apart is their comprehensive coverage and extended duration. Customers can now enjoy [specify the warranty details, e.g., longer warranty periods, coverage for specific components, etc.]. This ensures that our customers receive the highest level of protection and support, further solidifying our commitment to their satisfaction.
"We are excited to introduce our new line of products with highly competitive warranties," said [Company Spokesperson]. "We believe that these warranties will offer our customers the peace of mind they deserve when investing in our products."
To learn more about our new line of products and the exceptional warranties they come with, please visit our website at [website URL]. For media inquiries, please contact [Media Contact Name] at [Media Contact Email] or [Media Contact Phone Number].
About [Company Name]:
[Company Name] is a leading [industry] provider, offering innovative

solutions to customers worldwide. With a strong commitment to quality, performance, and customer satisfaction, [Company Name] has established itself as a trusted name in the industry.

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