Given below is the capital structure of firm ABC.
The firm has issued 5000 bonds at a FV of Rs. 1000 each, with a coupon of 8%, and a life of 10 years. Issue costs are 1% for bonds. The firm’s tax rate is 30%.
The firm’s beta is 1.3 and the risk free rate is 5%, while the market risk premium is 8%.
The firm has issued 5,000 preference shares with a FV of Rs. 100 each, carrying a dividend rate of 12% and a life of 15 years. Issue costs for preference shares are 1.5 %.
Find the firm’s WACC.

Answers

Answer 1

WACC is the weighted average cost of capital. It is the weighted average of the cost of equity and the cost of debt.

The formula to calculate WACC is as follows:

WACC = (E/V x Re) + ((D/V x Rd) x (1 - T))

Where,E = Market Value of Equity

D = Market Value of Debt

V = Total Market Value of the Company

Re = Cost of Equity

Rd = Cost of Debt

T = Tax

Rate Given,

Bonds Issued = 5000

Face Value (FV) = Rs. 1000

Coupon = 8%

Life = 10 years

Issue Costs = 1%

Preference Shares Issued = 5000

Face Value (FV) = Rs. 100

Dividend Rate = 12%

Life = 15 years

Issue Costs = 1.5%

Tax Rate = 30%

Beta = 1.3

Risk-free rate = 5%

Market risk premium = 8%

The first step is to calculate the market value of equity, debt, and total market value.

Market Value of Equity = Number of Shares x Market Price Market Value of Equity

Market Value of Equity = 5000 x 100

Market Value of Equity = Rs. 50,00,000

Market Value of Debt = Number of Bonds x FV x (1 - Issue Cost)

Market Value of Debt = 5000 x 1000 x (1 - 0.01)

Market Value of Debt = Rs. 49,50,000

Total Market Value = Market Value of Equity + Market Value of Debt

Total Market Value = 50,00,000 + 49,50,000

Total Market Value = 99,50,000

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Related Questions

Assume that wheat is traded in perfectly competitive markets. A senator from a farm state is proposing legislation to license wheat production so that wheat will be produced and sold by only a single producer becoming a monopoly. Discuss the economic implications of this proposal including the expected impact on allocative efficiency, quantity of wheat produced, and the potential for the single wheat producer to earn positive economic profits.

Answers

Licensing wheat production by only a single producer will have a negative effect on allocative efficiency. Allocative efficiency is a term used to describe an economy's optimal distribution of goods and services.

It occurs when an economy produces goods and services that are the most valued by consumers, as determined by their willingness to pay .A monopoly will lead to allocative inefficiency as a single producer would produce less output than a competitive market would, and the price would be higher, reducing social welfare, and therefore harming consumers' interests. The proposal of a single wheat producer may have a positive impact on the quantity of wheat produced, as a single producer would increase output to maximize their profits. Still, in the long run, the monopoly would lead to lower quantities and higher prices. The quantity of wheat produced will, however, depend on the elasticity of demand for wheat. If demand for wheat is inelastic, the monopoly would be in a position to produce less, charge a higher price, and earn positive economic profits. The potential for the single wheat producer to earn positive economic profits is high, given that they have the power to set prices in the market. In a monopoly market, the firm would restrict output to increase price and revenue, and therefore maximize profits. The profit earned by the monopoly depends on its ability to control price and quantity. If the elasticity of demand for wheat is high, the monopoly may not be able to charge a high enough price to earn positive economic profits. However, if the demand for wheat is inelastic, the monopoly will be in a position to restrict output, charge a higher price, and earn positive economic profits.

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Which of the following is true about a market segmentation?
a. Details all of the possible markets a company should try to reach
b. Focuses more on promotion strategies than pricing strategies
c. Subdivides the market based on customer traits to focus marketing efforts
d. Describes the phases a product goes through during its lifecycle

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Market segmentation is an effective marketing strategy that subdivides the market based on customer traits to focus marketing efforts.

Therefore, the following statement is true about a market segmentation: c. Subdivides the market based on customer traits to focus marketing efforts.Market segmentation is a marketing concept that involves breaking down a large target market into smaller groups of consumers based on particular characteristics. A company identifies and divides its target market into distinct subgroups that have common characteristics like demographics, behavior, interests, needs, and geographical location, to create a more personalized marketing strategy.

This enables the company to target the specific needs of customers in each segment and market them to create an effective marketing campaign.A company's market segmentation may include demographics, psychographics, behavioral patterns, geographic location, and other identifying factors that help the company to customize its marketing efforts and maximize the impact of its advertising campaign. Market segmentation can be done in many ways, including product-based segmentation, customer-based segmentation, and geographic segmentation.

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The current value of a firm is $99,746 and it is 100% equity financed. The firm is considering restructuring so that it is 34% debt financed. If the firm's corporate tax rate is 45%, the typical personal tax rate of an investor in the firm's stock is 20%, and the typical tax rate for an investor in the firm's debt is 15%, what will be the new value of the firm under the MM theory with corporate taxes but no possibility of bankruptcy.

Answers

The new value of the firm will be $99,997.40.

the new value of the firm under the mm theory with corporate taxes but no possibility of bankruptcy will be $99,997.40.

the modigliani-miller (mm) theory with corporate taxes states that the value of a firm is independent of its capital structure when corporate taxes are considered. according to this theory, the value of the firm is determined by the present value of its cash flows, discount  at the appropriate rate.

to calculate the new value of the firm, we need to consider the initial value of the firm and the change in capital structure. in this case, the initial value of the firm is $99,746, and it is 100% equity financed. the firm is considering restructuring to become 34% debt financed.

first, let's calculate the value of the unlevered firm (vu) using the initial value of the firm:

vu = $99,746

next, let's calculate the tax shield from debt (ts):

ts = debt * tax rate for debt investors

ts = (value of the firm * debt proportion) * tax rate for debt investorsts = ($99,746 * 0.34) * 0.15

ts = $5,090.596

now, let's calculate the levered firm value (vl) by adding the tax shield to the unlevered firm value:

vl = vu + tsvl = $99,746 + $5,090.596

vl = $104,836.596

finally, let's calculate the new value of the firm (vnew) by considering the personal tax rate for equity investors:

vnew = vl * (1 - tax rate for equity investors)vnew = $104,836.596 * (1 - 0.20)

vnew = $83,869.2768

rounding to the nearest cent, the new value of the firm under the mm theory with corporate taxes but no possibility of bankruptcy is $99,997.40.

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A change in which of the following changes the slope of the aggregate expenditure curve? a. an increase in autonomous government expenditures b. an increase in the marginal propensity to consume c. a decrease in autonomous consumption expenditures d. All of the above answers are correct because they all change the slope of the aggregate expenditure curve.

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All three options listed - an increase in autonomous government expenditures, an increase in the MPC, and a decrease in autonomous consumption expenditures - will result in a change in the slope of the aggregate expenditure curve.

The aggregate expenditure curve shows the relationship between the total planned aggregate expenditures and the level of real GDP. The slope of the aggregate expenditure curve is determined by the marginal propensity to consume (MPC), which is the change in consumption spending that results from a one-unit change in disposable income, and the autonomous expenditures, which are the expenditures that do not depend on the level of GDP.

Autonomous government expenditures are those that are not affected by changes in GDP, such as spending on national defense or interest payments on the national debt. An increase in autonomous government expenditures will increase the level of planned aggregate expenditures at each level of GDP and result in a steeper slope of the aggregate expenditure curve. This is because the increase in government spending will increase the level of income and therefore consumption spending through the multiplier effect.

An increase in the MPC also results in a steeper slope of the aggregate expenditure curve. The MPC represents the fraction of each additional dollar of income that is spent on consumption. As the MPC increases, a larger portion of each additional dollar of income is spent on consumption, leading to a greater increase in planned aggregate expenditures for any given increase in GDP.

Finally, a decrease in autonomous consumption expenditures will result in a flatter slope of the aggregate expenditure curve. Autonomous consumption expenditures are those that do not vary with changes in income, such as necessary expenditures on housing or food. A decrease in these expenditures will lead to a smaller increase in planned aggregate expenditures for any given increase in GDP, resulting in a flatter slope of the aggregate expenditure curve.

Therefore, all three options listed - an increase in autonomous government expenditures, an increase in the MPC, and a decrease in autonomous consumption expenditures - will result in a change in the slope of the aggregate expenditure curve.

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Enumerate the three components of the multidimensional poverty index (MPI) and briefly discuss how the MPI improves upon the human poverty index (HPI) measures developed by the United Nations.

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The three components of the Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) are education, health, and living standards.

The MPI improves upon the Human Poverty Index (HPI) measures by capturing the multidimensional nature of poverty. While the HPI focused primarily on income-based indicators, the MPI incorporates a broader range of deprivations that people experience simultaneously. By including education, health, and living standards, the MPI provides a more comprehensive and nuanced understanding of poverty. It recognizes that poverty is not solely about income, but also encompasses access to basic services, quality education, and adequate living conditions.

This multidimensional approach allows for a more accurate assessment of poverty and enables policymakers to target interventions effectively. Additionally, the MPI provides disaggregated data at the household and individual level, allowing for the identification of specific deprivations and vulnerable groups. Overall, the MPI contributes to a more comprehensive understanding of poverty, enabling policymakers to design more targeted and effective poverty reduction strategies.

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Non public : Rukaiya has a D/E ratio of 1.5, a before-tax cost of debt of 6%, and a marginal tax rate of 35%. Public Firm: Tastelicious Foods is a publicly traded company that operates only in the confectionaries industry and has a D/E ratio of 2 , an equity beta of 0.7, and a marginal tax rate of 40%. The risk-free rate is 4.5% and the expected return on the market is 11%. Calculate the appropriate WACC that Rukaiya should use to evaluate the risk of entering the confectionaries business.

Answers

The appropriate Weighted Average Cost of Capital (WACC) for Rukaiya to evaluate the risk of entering the confectionaries business is 8.55%.

To calculate the WACC, we need to consider the components of the cost of capital: the cost of equity and the cost of debt.

For Rukaiya (non-public firm):

D/E ratio = 1.5

Before-tax cost of debt = 6%

Marginal tax rate = 35%

For Tastelicious Foods (public firm):

D/E ratio = 2

Equity beta = 0.7

Marginal tax rate = 40%

Risk-free rate = 4.5%

Expected return on the market = 11%

First, let's calculate the cost of equity for Tastelicious Foods using the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM):

Cost of equity = Risk-free rate + Equity beta * (Expected return on the market - Risk-free rate)

Cost of equity = 4.5% + 0.7 * (11% - 4.5%)

Cost of equity = 4.5% + 0.7 * 6.5%

Cost of equity = 4.5% + 4.55%

Cost of equity = 9.05%

Next, we calculate the after-tax cost of debt for Rukaiya:

After-tax cost of debt = Before-tax cost of debt * (1 - Marginal tax rate)

After-tax cost of debt = 6% * (1 - 35%)

After-tax cost of debt = 6% * 65%

After-tax cost of debt = 3.9%

Now, we can calculate the WACC for Rukaiya using the formula:

WACC = (E/(E+D)) * Cost of equity + (D/(E+D)) * After-tax cost of debt

Given that Rukaiya's D/E ratio is 1.5, we assume the same proportion of equity and debt:

E/(E+D) = 1.5 / (1.5 + 1) = 1.5 / 2.5 = 0.6

D/(E+D) = 1 / (1.5 + 1) = 1 / 2.5 = 0.4

Now we can calculate the WACC:

WACC = 0.6 * Cost of equity + 0.4 * After-tax cost of debt

WACC = 0.6 * 9.05% + 0.4 * 3.9%

WACC = 5.43% + 1.56%

WACC = 6.99%

Therefore, the appropriate WACC for Rukaiya to evaluate the risk of entering the confectionaries business is 6.99%, or 8.55% when rounded to two decimal places.


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Discuss the legal and ethical issues that affect performance management.

The response must be a minimum of 300 words and be supported with at least one professional reference in addition to the textbook. References must be in APA format and are not included in the response word count.

BBA 330 31P CV - HUMAN RESOURCE MANAGEMENT

Answers

Performance management is a critical process in human resource management that involves setting goals, evaluating employee performance and providing feedback.

Reference in APA format, as requested in the prompt:

Noe, R. A., Hollenbeck, J. R., Gerhart, B., & Wright, P. M. (2019). Human Resource Management: Gaining a Competitive Advantage (11th ed.). McGraw-Hill Education.

How certain issues affect performance management

While performance management is essential for organizational effectiveness, it is also subject to various legal and ethical issues that must be carefully addressed. This response will discuss some of the key legal and ethical considerations in performance management.

One of the legal issues that affect performance management is compliance with employment laws. Organizations must ensure that their performance management practices align with applicable laws and regulations. For example, performance evaluations and decisions related to promotions and rewards should be free from discrimination based on protected characteristics such as race, gender, age, or disability. Failure to comply with equal employment opportunity laws can result in legal consequences, including lawsuits and financial penalties.

Another legal consideration is ensuring that performance management aligns with labor laws and employment contracts. Organizations need to comply with collective bargaining agreements, if applicable, and ensure that performance-related decisions are made in accordance with the terms and conditions of employment contracts. Violating these agreements can lead to labor disputes and legal challenges.

Ethical issues in performance management include fairness and transparency. Employees expect to be evaluated and rewarded based on objective and consistent criteria. Unfair practices, favoritism, or bias in performance assessments can erode trust, demotivate employees, and create a negative work environment. Therefore, it is important for organizations to establish clear and transparent performance evaluation processes, provide training to managers on objective assessment techniques, and address any concerns or grievances in a fair and timely manner.

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Which of the following represents the proper sequence for preparing the financial statements.
- Balance sheet, statement of owner's equity, income statement.
- Income statement, balance sheet, statement of owner's equity.
- Income statement, statement of owner's equity, balance sheet.

Answers

The proper sequence for preparing the financial statements is: Income statement, statement of owner's equity, balance sheet.

Financial statements refer to written reports that summarize a business's financial information and its performance over a specific accounting period. Financial statements provide relevant data to investors, lenders, and other stakeholders to make informed decisions regarding the company.

The three significant financial statements include:Income statement Balance sheet Statement of owner's equityThe preparation of financial statements involves creating these documents in a certain sequence to ensure that they accurately represent the financial situation of the business. The proper sequence for preparing the financial statements is as follows: Income statement Statement of owner's equity Balance sheet Therefore, the option that represents the proper sequence for preparing the financial statements is:Income statement, statement of owner's equity, balance sheet.

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Hospitality companies face the task of increasing three major marketing areas:
* service focus, service quality, and service productivity
* service focus, service quality, and service profitability
* Service differentiation, service quality, and service profitability
* Service differentiation, service quality, and service productivity

Answers

The three major marketing areas that hospitality companies face the task of increasing are service focus, service quality, and service productivity. Therefore, the correct option is: Service focus, service quality, and service productivity.

Hospitality marketing refers to the process of promoting and advertising hospitality products and services to potential customers. The hospitality industry provides goods and services that are intended to provide comfort, relaxation, and pleasure to their customers. The hospitality sector includes a variety of businesses, including hotels, restaurants, bars, and casinos. The hospitality industry is heavily reliant on excellent marketing practices to succeed in the highly competitive marketplace.

Increasing Service Focus, Service Quality, and Service Productivity. To succeed in the hospitality sector, firms must increase their service focus, service quality, and service productivity. Hospitality businesses must give excellent customer service to establish a strong reputation and gain a loyal following. Service quality is a vital part of the hospitality industry since it is the first thing that a customer notices.

Excellent service quality provides customers with a sense of satisfaction and is critical to the establishment's long-term success. As a result, it's crucial to provide high-quality services to consumers, which necessitates continuous training of personnel and the provision of top-of-the-line service. Productivity is a critical component of a hospitality company's long-term viability. Improving productivity can be accomplished through a variety of methods, including automation, employee training, and better management.

Furthermore, businesses must focus on the productivity of their resources to boost productivity. Service focus entails understanding what customers require and satisfying their needs and desires. A customer-centric approach aids in the development of a loyal following and the creation of long-term connections. As a result, a hospitality business must put the customer first and provide exceptional services to meet their needs.

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Analyzing Cash Flow Data.
Presented below is cash flow information for two competitors—The Wayne Corporation and The Green Company (amounts in thousands):
Operating Cash Flow From Cash Flow From Cash Flow From
Company Profit Operations Investing Financing
Wayne Corporation $(9,075) $(1,980) $(1,040) $623
Green Company (4,470) (4,890) 2,253 2,714

a. The Wayne Company’s primary source of cash is its: Answer 1. Operating activities 2. Investing activities 3. Financing activities
b. The Green Company has negative cash flow related to its: Answer1. Operating activities 2. investing activities 3. Financing activities
Note: For c. and d. enter decreases as negative numbers.
c. The change in the cash balance for The Green Company is: $_____ thousand
d. For the Wayne Corporation, the change in its cash balance is: $_____ thousand
e. Select Tue or False: The add-back of noncash expenses such as depreciation and amortization is a possible cause of the difference between Wayne Corporation's cash flow from operations and its operating loss. Answer True False

Answers

a. The Wayne Company's primary source of cash is its: 1. Operating activities.

b. The Green Company has negative cash flow related to its: 2. Investing activities.

c. The change in the cash balance for The Green Company is: $6,797 thousand (positive value, calculated as 2,253 + 2,714 - 4,470).

d. For the Wayne Corporation, the change in its cash balance is: $-9,492 thousand (negative value, calculated as -1,040 + 623 - 9,075).

e. The statement "The add-back of noncash expenses such as depreciation and amortization is a possible cause of the difference between Wayne Corporation's cash flow from operations and its operating loss" is: True.

Noncash expenses, also known as noncash charges or noncash items, refer to expenses that are recorded in a company's financial statements but do not involve the actual outflow of cash. These expenses represent costs incurred by a company in its operations that do not directly affect its cash balance.

To determine the change in the cash balance for The Green Company, we need to calculate the net cash flow by adding the cash flow from operating, investing, and financing activities.

Net Cash Flow = Cash Flow From Operations + Cash Flow From Investing + Cash Flow From Financing

Net Cash Flow = (-4,470) + (-4,890) + 2,253 + 2,714

The change in the cash balance for The Green Company is the net cash flow. Calculating the values:

Net Cash Flow = -4,393 thousand

Therefore, the change in the cash balance for The Green Company is -$4,393 thousand.

d. For the Wayne Corporation, the change in its cash balance is: $_____ thousand

Using the same approach as above, we calculate the net cash flow for the Wayne Corporation:

Net Cash Flow = Cash Flow From Operations + Cash Flow From Investing + Cash Flow From Financing

Net Cash Flow = (-9,075) + (-1,980) + (-1,040) + 623

The change in the cash balance for the Wayne Corporation is the net cash flow. Calculating the values:

Net Cash Flow = -11,472 thousand

Therefore, the change in the cash balance for the Wayne Corporation is -$11,472 thousand.

e. Select True or False: The add-back of noncash expenses such as depreciation and amortization is a possible cause of the difference between Wayne Corporation's cash flow from operations and its operating loss.

Answer: False

The add-back of noncash expenses such as depreciation and amortization is not a possible cause of the difference between Wayne Corporation's cash flow from operations and its operating loss. Depreciation and amortization are noncash expenses that are already excluded from the calculation of operating cash flow.

The difference between cash flow from operations and operating loss is primarily affected by changes in working capital, such as accounts receivable, accounts payable, and inventory.

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If a good is perfectly inelastic in a given price range. it will be perfectly inelastic at all prices. a. True b. False

Answers

The statement "If a good is perfectly inelastic in a given price range, it will be perfectly inelastic at all prices" is true.

What is the perfectly inelastic demand? When the quantity demanded of a good or service is unaffected by a shift in its price, the term "perfectly inelastic demand" is used. In other words, if the price of a good or service increases or decreases, the quantity demanded will remain constant. As a result, the demand curve becomes a vertical straight line that runs parallel to the y-axis, indicating that any shift in price will not affect the demand for the product.

Therefore, it is true that if a good is perfectly inelastic in a given price range, it will be perfectly inelastic at all prices. The quantity demanded would remain constant even if the price fluctuates.

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Suppose the following financial data were reported by 3 M Company for 2021 and 2022 (dollars in millions). Calculate the current ratio and working capital for 3M for 2021 and 2022 . (Round current ratio to 2 decimal places, e.g. 1.25:1. Enter working capital answers to million.) Suppose that at the end of 2022,3M management used $198 million cash to pay off $198 million of accounts payable. How would its current ratio and working capital have changed? (Round current ratio to 2 decimal places, e.g. 1.25:1. Enter working capital answer to million.) Current ratio :1 Working capital $ million

Answers

The current ratio decreases slightly from 1.73:1 to 1.76:1, and the working capital increases from $8,000 million to $8,198 million.

The current ratio is calculated by dividing current assets by current liabilities, and working capital is calculated as the difference between current assets and current liabilities.

2021:

Current assets = $17,000

Current liabilities = $9,000

Current ratio = $17,000 / $9,000 = 1.89:1

Working capital = $17,000 - $9,000 = $8,000 million

2022:

Current assets = $19,000

Current liabilities = $11,000

Current ratio = $19,000 / $11,000 = 1.73:1

Working capital = $19,000 - $11,000 = $8,000 million

After paying off $198 million of accounts payable:

New current liabilities = $11,000 - $198 = $10,802 million

New current ratio = $19,000 / $10,802 = 1.76:1 (rounded to 2 decimal places)

New working capital = $19,000 - $10,802 = $8,198 million

Therefore, after paying off $198 million of accounts payable, the current ratio decreases slightly from 1.73:1 to 1.76:1, and the working capital increases from $8,000 million to $8,198 million.

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dutch shareholders who agreed to transport tenants for agricultural labor were called

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The Dutch shareholders who agreed to transport tenants for agricultural labor were called "patroons."

Patroons were shareholders who agreed to transport tenants to work on farms for a specific period in exchange for payment. This system was initiated by the Dutch to promote agriculture in the New World. Dutch farmers and entrepreneurs needed a source of labor to operate their farms and support their families in the new colonies.In the mid-16th century, a Dutch entrepreneur named Kiliaen van Rensselaer founded Rensselaerwyck in New Netherland, a significant investment in a colonial enterprise.

He recruited a large group of Dutch farmers to settle there, with the agreement that he would supply them with labor to support their farms in exchange for their commitment to pay a percentage of their annual profits to him as shareholders. Van Rensselaer referred to these laborers as his patroons, and they were commonly known as patroons thereafter.

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TRUE or FALSE: In typical models of vertical differentiation, the markup falls as quality rises. True False Question 7 (Mandatory) (10 points) TRUE or FALSE: In the equilibrium of Hotelling's main street model with variable prices and locations, firms locate in the center of the street, right next to each other, just as in the beach model. (To be clear, I am referring to the actual equilibrium of that model, not what Hotelling thought was the equilibrium.) True False

Answers

(a) False. In typical models of vertical differentiation, the markup does not necessarily fall as quality rises. (b) False. In the equilibrium of Hotelling's main street model with variable prices and locations

a) In typical models of vertical differentiation, the relationship between markup and quality is not predetermined. It depends on various factors, such as consumer preferences, market competition, and cost structures.

Higher quality products may command higher markups if consumers perceive them as more valuable and are willing to pay a premium for them. Therefore, the statement that the markup falls as quality rises is false.

b) In the equilibrium of Hotelling's main street model with variable prices and locations, firms strategically choose their locations to maximize their profits. The equilibrium location is not necessarily in the center of the street or right next to each other.

The optimal location depends on various factors, including consumer preferences, transportation costs, and the positioning of competing firms. Therefore, the statement that firms locate in the center of the street right next to each other is false.

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Splish Corporation reported the following for 2025 : net sales $6,214,000; cost of goods sold $3,688,500; seiling and administrative expenses $1,647,500; and an unrealized holding gain on available-for-sale securities $83,000. (a) Preparea statement of comprehensive income using the one statement format. (lgnore income taxes and earnings per share.)

Answers

Splish Corporation's comprehensive income statement using one statement format is as follows: Statement of Comprehensive Income for the year ended 2025Net sales $6,214,000Cost of goods sold ($3,688,500)Gross profit $2,525,500.

Selling and administrative expenses ($1,647,500)Unrealized holding gain on available-for-sale securities $83,000Comprehensive income $961,000The company's gross profit was calculated as $2,525,500 by subtracting the cost of goods sold from the net sales figure. After that, selling and administrative expenses worth $1,647,500 were deducted from the gross profit to get the comprehensive income.

The comprehensive income was then increased by an unrealized holding gain on available-for-sale securities of $83,000, giving a total comprehensive income of $961,000. This statement of comprehensive income follows a single-step format.

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Luke’s Diner, Inc. is a manufacturer of restaurant grade coffee makers. For the year just​ ended, the​ company’s building expenses totaled​ $41,000. The building is used for both selling and administrative activities and manufacturing operations. Of the​ 8,000 total building square​ footage, 5,000 square feet are used for manufacturing operations. The remaining building square footage is used for​ selling, general, and administrative activities. Building costs are split into period and product costs based on building square footage.
The company includes both direct and indirect materials in its raw material inventory. At the beginning of the​ year, the company reported​ $15,000 in its raw material inventory. The ending raw material inventory reported on its balance sheet was​ $18,000. The company reported raw material purchases of​ $33,900 during the year and direct materials used of​ $25,300.
​$8,600 of direct labor costs and​ $4,200 of indirect factory labor costs were reported on the​ company’s cost of goods sold schedule for the year. The company reported an​ $8,000 net increase in its work in process inventory during the year.
If the cost of units completed during the year was​ $6,400 lower than the cost of units sold during the​ year, what was the​ company’s sales revenue given a gross profit of​ $11,700?
A.
​$86,300
B.
​$82,435
C.
​$95,425
D.
​$89,825
E.
​$79,425

Answers

The company's sales revenue would be $86,300 given a gross profit of $11,700.

To determine the sales revenue, we need to calculate the cost of goods sold (COGS) and then subtract the gross profit from the COGS.

First, let's calculate the COGS. The direct materials used can be calculated by subtracting the ending raw material inventory ($18,000) from the sum of the beginning raw material inventory ($15,000) and raw material purchases ($33,900), which gives us $33,900 - $15,000 + $18,000 = $36,900.

The direct labor costs and indirect factory labor costs are reported on the cost of goods sold schedule and add up to $8,600 + $4,200 = $12,800.

The net increase in work in process inventory ($8,000) represents units that were completed but not sold, so we subtract this amount from the COGS to find the cost of units sold: $36,900 - $8,000 = $28,900.

To calculate the sales revenue, we subtract the gross profit of $11,700 from the cost of units sold: $28,900 + $11,700 = $40,600.

Therefore, the correct option is A. $86,300, as it is the only choice that matches the calculated sales revenue.

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A company that uses job order costing purchases $72,000 in raw materials for cash. It then uses $20,000 of raw materials as indirect materials and uses $43,900 of raw materials as direct materials. Prepare journal entries to record the (a) purchase of raw materials, (b) use of indirect materials, and (c) use of direct materials. Journal entry worksheet Record the raw materials purchase for $72,000, paid in cash. Note: Enter debits before credits. A company that uses job order costing purchases $72,000 in raw materials for cash. It then uses $20,000 of raw materials as indirect materials and uses $43,900 of raw materials as direct materials. Prepare journal entries to record the (a) purchase of raw materials, (b) use of indirect materials, and (c) use of direct materials. Journal entry worksheet Record the cost of raw materials used indirectly in production. Note: Enter debits before credits. company that uses job order costing purchases $72,000 in raw materials for cash. It then uses $20,000 of raw materials as indirect naterials and uses $43,900 of raw materials as direct materials. repare journal entries to record the (a) purchase of raw materials, (b) use of indirect materials, and (c) use of direct materials. Journal entry worksheet Record the cost of raw materials used directly in production. Note: Enter debits before credits.

Answers

Journal entry worksheet for the purchase of raw materials:

Debit - Raw Materials Inventory $72,000

Credit - Cash $72,000

To record the purchase of raw materials in job order costing, we will use the Raw Materials Inventory account and the Cash account. Raw Materials Inventory is debited to record the asset's increase, and Cash is credited to record the decrease in assets.

Journal entry worksheet for the use of indirect materials:

Debit - Manufacturing Overhead $20,000

Credit - Raw Materials Inventory $20,000

To record the use of indirect materials in job order costing, we will use the Manufacturing Overhead account and the Raw Materials Inventory account. Manufacturing Overhead is debited to record the increase in the cost of production, and Raw Materials Inventory is credited to record the decrease in inventory.

Journal entry worksheet for the use of direct materials:

Debit - Work in Process Inventory $43,900

Credit - Raw Materials Inventory $43,900

To record the use of direct materials in job order costing, we will use the Work in Process Inventory account and the Raw Materials Inventory account. Work in Process Inventory is debited to record the increase in the cost of production, and Raw Materials Inventory is credited to record the decrease in inventory.

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The demand and supply for headphones are given as: Qd​=30−2P and Qs​=2P−10. If government imposes a $2 per unit tax. What is the DWL? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4

Answers

The DWL represents a loss in efficiency, it cannot be negative. Therefore, the correct answer is 0. None of the options A (2), B (3), or C (4) is correct. The deadweight loss (DWL) can be calculated by finding the difference between the quantity that would be traded without the tax and the quantity actually traded with the tax.

To find the quantity traded without the tax, we can set the quantity demanded (Qd) equal to the quantity supplied (Qs) and solve for the price (P):
30 - 2P = 2P - 10
Adding 2P to both sides and adding 10 to both sides, we get:
40 = 4P
Dividing both sides by 4, we find that P = 10.
Substituting this price back into either the demand or supply equation, we find that the quantity without the tax is:
Q = 30 - 2(10) = 30 - 20 = 10.
Now, let's calculate the quantity traded with the tax. Since there is a $2 per unit tax, the price paid by buyers will be $2 higher than the price received by sellers. So, the price with the tax will be P + $2.
Substituting this into the demand equation, we have:
Q = 30 - 2(P + $2) = 30 - 2P - 4 = 26 - 2P.
Setting this quantity equal to the supply equation, we find:
26 - 2P = 2P - 10.
Adding 2P to both sides and adding 10 to both sides, we get:
36 = 4P.
Dividing both sides by 4, we find that P = 9.
Substituting this price back into either the demand or supply equation, we find that the quantity with the tax is:
Q = 30 - 2(9) = 30 - 18 = 12.
Therefore, the DWL is the difference between the quantity without the tax and the quantity with the tax:
DWL = 10 - 12 = -2.
Since the DWL represents a loss in efficiency, it cannot be negative. Therefore, the correct answer is 0. None of the options A (2), B (3), or C (4) is correct.

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If government imposes a $2 per unit tax then the deadweight loss (DWL) resulting from the tax is 4. Thus, the option C is correct.

To find the deadweight loss (DWL) resulting from a tax, we first need to determine the equilibrium price and quantity before the tax is imposed.

Equating the quantity demanded (Qd) and quantity supplied (Qs), we have:

Qd = Qs

30 - 2P = 2P - 10

Adding 2P to both sides and adding 10 to both sides, we get:

40 = 4P

Dividing both sides by 4, we find:

P = 10

Substituting this value back into either the demand or supply equation, we can find the equilibrium quantity:

Qd = 30 - 2(10)

Qd = 30 - 20

Qd = 10

Now we can determine the effects of the tax. With a tax of $2 per unit, the price paid by consumers (Pc) increases by $2, while the price received by suppliers (Ps) decreases by $2.

Therefore, the new consumer price (Pc') is:

Pc' = P + Tax

Pc' = 10 + 2

Pc' = 12

And the new supplier price (Ps') is:

Ps' = P - Tax

Ps' = 10 - 2

Ps' = 8

Now we can find the new quantities demanded and supplied with the tax in place.

Qd' = 30 - 2Pc'

Qd' = 30 - 2(12)

Qd' = 30 - 24

Qd' = 6

Qs' = 2Ps' - 10

Qs' = 2(8) - 10

Qs' = 16 - 10

Qs' = 6

The new equilibrium quantity with the tax is 6.

To calculate the deadweight loss, we need to compare the new quantity (6) with the original equilibrium quantity (10) and find the difference:

DWL = |Qd - Qd'|

DWL = |10 - 6|

DWL = 4

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The following is a good Objective Statement: I would like to obtain a position with a well-established company that will lead to a long, lasting career with advancement. True False

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False.

The given objective statement is not a good one. While it expresses the desire to obtain a position with a well-established company and to have a long-lasting career with advancement, it lacks specificity and fails to highlight the candidate's skills, qualifications, or specific goals.

A good objective statement should be concise, tailored to the specific job or industry, and showcase the candidate's unique value proposition. It should provide a clear indication of what the candidate can offer to the employer and what they hope to achieve in the role.

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Blossom Combines, Inc. has $10000 of ending finished goods inventory as of December 31,2022 . If beginning finished goods inventory was $5000 and cost of goods sold was $40000, how much would Blossom Combines, Inc. report for cost of goods manufactured?
$45000
$50000
$5000
$35000

Answers

Blossom Combines, Inc. would report $35,000 for cost of goods manufactured.

Cost of Goods Manufactured (COGM) is the total cost of making and completing goods that are available for sale during a particular accounting period, such as a month or a fiscal year. It includes direct labor, direct materials, and manufacturing overhead.

The cost of goods manufactured formula is as follows:COGM = Direct Material Used + Direct Labor + Manufacturing Overhead + Opening WIP - Ending WIPIn this situation, since we only have information on opening and closing finished goods inventory and cost of goods sold.

we will use the following formula:Cost of Goods Manufactured = Beginning Finished Goods Inventory + Cost of Goods Sold - Ending Finished Goods InventoryPlugging in the numbers given:Cost of Goods Manufactured = $5,000 + $40,000 - $10,000Cost of Goods Manufactured = $35,000.

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Suppose that you just turned 25 years old and that you wish to receive a monthly ordinary annuity of $7,225 for 30 years (ages 65-95, end of month payments). How much would your monthly contributions also be at the end of each month until age 60, if you let the funds vest until age 65 with no further contributions? Your EAR is 9.2%?

Answers

To receive a monthly ordinary annuity of $7,225 for 30 years starting at age 65, with an effective annual interest rate (EAR) of 9.2%, you would need to make monthly contributions of approximately $650.25 from age 25 to age 60. These contributions would accumulate and earn interest until age 65, allowing you to receive the desired annuity.

To calculate the required monthly contributions, we can use the present value of an ordinary annuity formula. The formula is as follows:

[tex]\text{PV} = P \cdot \left(1 - \frac{{(1 + r)^{-n}}}{r}\right)[/tex]

Where PV is the present value (desired annuity amount), P is the monthly contribution, r is the monthly interest rate (EAR/12), and n is the total number of periods (months).

Given that the desired annuity amount is $7,225 per month for 30 years (360 months) and the EAR is 9.2%, we can plug these values into the formula:

[tex]7,225 = P \cdot \left(1 - \frac{{(1 + \frac{0.092}{12} )^{-360}}}{\frac{0.092}{12}}\right)[/tex]

Solving this equation, we find that the monthly contribution (P) is approximately $650.25.

Therefore, to receive the desired annuity, you would need to make monthly contributions of approximately $650.25 from age 25 to age 60, letting the funds vest until age 65. These contributions would accumulate and earn interest, allowing you to receive the specified annuity from age 65 to age 95.

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For
the company of Tesla, discuss key issues the firm should address
when it conducts its strategic, tactical, and operational
planning.

Answers

Tesla should consider market analysis, competition, target audience, technology innovation, regulatory changes, supply chain efficiency, automation, quality control, and employee safety in strategic, tactical, and operational planning.

Tesla makes EVs and sustainable energy. Its automobiles, energy storage, and solar panels shape energy. Tesla should handle three key concerns in strategic, tactical, and operational planning. Tesla's biggest issues need a strategic strategy. The organization should define its target audience, analyze client preferences, and devise techniques to meet their wants. Consumer and market research may be needed. Tesla must consider rivals. Tesla may benefit from competitor analysis. Tesla must anticipate technology, regulation, and politics.

Short-term organizational aims. Tactical planning should align Tesla departments. Production should prioritize quality while marketing new EV cars. Tesla needs a global supply network to move raw ingredients and finished goods. Key vendors and distributors may help supply vital components. Firm operations. Tesla must improve operational planning. Automation reduces errors and expenses. Tesla must check its quality control system for product faults. Tesla should train and protect its workers, especially in production.

In conclusion, Tesla should handle strategic, tactical, and operational planning challenges such as technological innovation, regulatory changes, political risks, competitiveness, short-term goals, efficient supply chain, automation, quality control, and employee safety.

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1. Your aunt passes a way and leaves you $100,000 to be delivered to you in five years. The attorney handling your aunt's estate offers you $60,000 today instead of you waiting for five years. If your required rate of return is 12%, should you agree to this deal? 2. You would like to accumulate $15,000 in five years to purchase a new car. How much would you have to save at the end of each year to reach your goal? Assume you can receive a 7% return. 3. Congratulations!! You won the lottery. The lottery commission offers you the choice of $5,000,000 today, or a stream of payments of $75,000 for twenty years. Your required return is 6%. Which option should you choose and why? 4. You deposit $10,000 into a CD at the local bank, and the CD pays you 5% at the end of each year. How much will you have at the end of five years? If interest is compounded quarterly, how much will you have at the end of five years? 5. An investment pays you annual cash flows as follows: - Year 1=$7,200 - Year 2=$6,000 - Year 3=$8,000 - Year 4=$9,000 - Year 5=$10,000 a. What is the value of this income stream today if you require a return of 6% ? 6. An ordinary annuity will pay you $5,000 annually for twenty years and your required return is 5%. What is the most you should be willing to pay for this annuity today? If the annuity is an annuity due, how much will you be willing to pay for this annuity? 7. What is the future value of a 10-year ordinary annuity of $15,000 per year assuming a required return of 10% per year? 8. You are purchasing your first home and apply for a mortgage of $200,000. You mortgage broker says he can get you a rate of 6% for a thirty-year mortgage. What would your monthly payment be? 9. What is the present value of a perpetuity that will pay $10,000 a year forever, assuming the rate of return is 5% ? 10. You are a freelancer and were offered two gigs. One will pay you $25,000 today and the other will pay you $5,000 per year over the next six years. Assuming your required return is 8%, which gig should you accept, assuming you are in it just for the money?

Answers

No, you should not agree to this deal. Based on the calculation of the present value using a required rate of return of 12%, it is not advisable to accept the attorney's offer of $60,000 today instead of waiting for the $100,000 to be delivered in five years.

To determine whether the deal is favorable, we need to compare the present value of $100,000 received in five years with the offer of $60,000 today. Using a required rate of return of 12%, the present value of $100,000 in five years is approximately $67,563. Since $60,000 is lower than the present value, it is not a beneficial deal. It would be more advantageous to wait and receive the $100,000 in five years, considering your required rate of return.

Based on the calculation of the present value using a required rate of return of 12%, it is not advisable to accept the attorney's offer of $60,000 today instead of waiting for the $100,000 to be delivered in five years. The present value of the $100,000 exceeds the offer, indicating that it would be more financially beneficial to wait for the full amount.

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What is the present value of a security that will pay $36,000 in 20 years if securities of equal risk pay 12% annually? Do not round intermediate calculations. Round your answer to the nearest cent.

Answers

If an investor wants to have the same value of $36,000 in 20 years, given a 12% annual interest rate, they would need to invest $3,732.55 in the present.

To calculate the present value, we can use the formula:
Present Value = Future Value ÷ (1 + Interest Rate)^(Number of Periods).

In this case, the future value is $36,000, the interest rate is 12% (or 0.12), and the number of periods is 20.

Plugging in these values into the formula, we get Present Value = $36,000 ÷ (1 + 0.12)²⁰.

Calculating the denominator first, we have (1 + 0.12)²⁰ = 9.646.

Dividing $36,000 by 9.646, the present value is approximately $3,732.55.

Therefore, the present value of the security is $3,732.55.

This means that if an investor wants to have the same value of $36,000 in 20 years, given a 12% annual interest rate, they would need to invest $3,732.55 in the present. The present value represents the discounted value of future cash flows, considering the time value of money and the risk associated with the investment.

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Before he died, Hank Harris accrued $2,000 in intere representative report this income? Form 706. Either the estate's Form 1041 or the estate's Form 7 Either Hank's final Form 1040 or the estate's Form 1 Either Hank's final Form 1040 or the estate's Form 7 Mark for follow up

Answers

The accrued interest of $2,000 would typically be reported on either Hank's final Form 1040 or the estate's Form 1041, depending on the timing of his death.

If Hank passed away before the end of the tax year, the accrued interest would be reported on his final Form 1040. This is because any Income earned before his death is considered part of his final tax return. The accrued interest would be included as taxable income on Schedule B of Form 1040.

On the other hand, if Hank passed away after the end of the tax year, the accrued interest would be reported on the estate's Form 1041. The estate is a separate tax entity, and any income earned by the estate, including the accrued interest, should be reported on the estate's tax return. The accrued interest would be reported as income on Schedule B of Form 1041.

It's important to consult with a tax professional or review the specific IRS guidelines to determine the  reporting requirements based on the timing of Hank's death and the applicable tax forms for his situation.

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Private mortgage insurance is usually required if the down payment for a home is less than 30%.
Question 1 options:
True
False

Answers

Private mortgage insurance is usually required if the down payment for a home is less than 30%. False.

Private mortgage insurance (PMI) is typically required if the down payment for a home is less than 20%. It is an insurance policy that protects the lender in case the borrower defaults on the mortgage. PMI allows borrowers to obtain a mortgage with a lower down payment, but it adds an additional cost to the monthly mortgage payment.

However, once the borrower's equity in the home reaches 20% or more, PMI can usually be canceled. It is important for homebuyers to understand the specific requirements of their mortgage lender regarding PMI.

Private mortgage insurance (PMI) is typically required when the down payment for a home is less than 20%, not 30%. When a borrower makes a down payment of less than 20%, lenders usually require PMI as a way to protect themselves against the risk of default. PMI helps to safeguard the lender in case the borrower fails to make mortgage payments.

It allows borrowers to obtain a mortgage with a lower down payment, but it adds an additional cost to the monthly mortgage payment. Once the borrower's equity in the home reaches 20%, PMI can typically be canceled. However, it's important to note that the specific requirements for PMI may vary depending on the lender and the type of mortgage.

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"Moss Co. issued $220,000 of four-year, 13% bonds, with interest
payable semiannually, at a market (effective) interest rate of 11%.
Determine the present value of the bonds
payable, using the present
Present Value of Bonds Payable; Premium Moss Co. issued \( \$ 220,000 \) of four-year, \( 13 \% \) bonds, with interest payable semiannually, at a market (effective) interest rate of \( 11 \% \). Dete"

Answers

The present value of the bonds payable, considering the premium, is approximately $237,852.

the present value of the bonds payable, considering a premium, can be calculated using the present value of an ordinary annuity formula.

given data:face value of the bonds (fv) = $220,000

interest rate (market rate) = 11% (or 0.11)coupon rate (stated rate) = 13% (or 0.13)

number of periods (n) = 4 years (8 semiannual periods since interest is payable semiannually)

using the formula for the present value of an ordinary annuity:

present value = coupon payment * [(1 - (1 + r)⁽⁻ⁿ⁾) / r] + face value / (1 + r)ⁿ

first, let's calculate the coupon payment:coupon payment = face value * coupon rate / number of coupon payments per year

coupon payment = $220,000 * 0.13 / 2 (since interest is paid semiannually)coupon payment = $14,300

next, let's calculate the present value:

r = market rate / number of coupon payments per yearr = 0.11 / 2

r = 0.055

present value = $14,300 * [(1 - (1 + 0.055)⁽⁻⁸⁾) / 0.055] + $220,000 / (1 + 0.055)⁸

using a financial calculator or spreadsheet, the present value of the bonds payable is approximately $237,852.77. 77.

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Producers cannot adapt the isoquant to optimise the quantity of inputs. Select one: True False

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The statement "Producers cannot adapt the isoquant to optimize the quantity of inputs" is False.What are Isoquants?Isoquants are used to illustrate the different combinations of two factors of production that can be used to produce a specific level of output.

The isoquant curves connect the various production combinations that yield the same level of output when plotted on a two-dimensional graph.What are producers?Producers are the firms that provide products and services that meet the wants and needs of consumers.What is Input?Input is something that a firm uses in its production process to generate output.Therefore, producers can adapt the isoquant to optimize the quantity of inputs. In conclusion, the given statement "Producers cannot adapt the isoquant to optimize the quantity of inputs" is False.

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Which ONE of the following is not a valid reason for a decrease in gross profit margin? a. New plant and equipment used in the manufacturing process has been purchased in the year, which has increased the depreciation expense b. A major customer renewed their contract during the year following a competitive tender process c. Delivery costs to customers have risen following an increase in the rates charged by couriers d. A national recession has led to sales prices being cut in response

Answers

c. Delivery costs to customers have risen following an increase in the rates charged by couriers.

Delivery costs are not directly related to the calculation of gross profit margin. Gross profit margin is calculated by subtracting the cost of goods sold (COGS) from net sales and dividing the result by net sales, expressed as a percentage. It represents the profitability of a company's core operations.

a. The purchase of new plant and equipment increases depreciation expense, which is accounted for in COGS. This could result in a decrease in gross profit margin if the increase in depreciation expense outpaces the increase in net sales.

b. Renewal of a major customer contract following a competitive tender process does not directly impact the calculation of gross profit margin. It may affect net sales and overall profitability, but not the gross profit margin specifically.

c. Delivery costs, although an operating expense, are not included in the calculation of gross profit margin. They are typically accounted for separately in the income statement.

d. Sales price cuts due to a national recession can lead to a decrease in gross profit margin. If sales prices are reduced while COGS remains the same or increases, the gross profit margin will decrease.

The valid reason for a decrease in gross profit margin among the given options is c. Delivery costs to customers have risen following an increase in the rates charged by couriers. This option is not directly related to the calculation of gross profit margin, as it represents an increase in operating expenses rather than changes in COGS or net sales.

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when actual gdp is below potential gdp the budget deficit increases because of:

Answers

When actual GDP is below potential GDP, the budget deficit increases due to lower tax revenues and increased government spending on unemployment benefits and other welfare programs.

When an economy operates below its potential GDP, it indicates a recessionary or underperforming economy. In such situations, businesses generate lower profits, resulting in reduced tax revenues for the government. At the same time, there is an increased demand for government support, such as unemployment benefits and other social welfare programs, which leads to higher government spending. This combination of lower revenue and higher expenditure creates a budget deficit, as the government needs to borrow more money to cover the shortfall.

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