Let the Holtzman Clothiers’ expected stock price 1 year from now be denoted by P₁. Given that the stock currently sells for $39.00 a share and just paid a dividend of $1.75 a share. We have D₀ = $1.75.Now the dividend is expected to grow at a constant rate of 8% a year.
This means that the dividend expected next year D₁ is given by;
D₁ = D₀(1 + g)where g is the expected rate of dividend growth.
Substituting D₀ = $1.75 and g = 8%, we get;
D₁ = $1.75(1 + 0.08)D₁ = $1.89Now we need to determine the expected stock price 1 year from now.
This can be done using the constant growth model which is given by;P₁ = D₁/(r - g)where r is the expected rate of return on the stock. Since no rate of return is provided, we assume that it is equal to the required rate of return on the stock.Using the CAPM model, the required rate of return on the stock is given by;
r = r_f + β(r_m - r_f)where r_f is the risk-free rate, r_m is the expected market return, and β is the stock beta. Since no information is provided on the risk-free rate and the expected market return, we use the historical values. Assume that;r_f = 2.5%r_m = 11%β = 1.5
Substituting these values into the CAPM model, we get;
r = 2.5% + 1.5(11% - 2.5%)r = 16.5%
Now we can use the constant B to find the expected stock price 1 year from now;
P₁ = D₁/(r - g)P₁ = $1.89/(16.5% - 8%)P₁ = $28.27Therefore, the expected stock price 1 year from now is $28.27.
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Suppose the risk-free rate is 2% and the market risk premium is 7%. What is the beta of the risk-free asset? (Round your answer to 2 decimal places)
The beta of the risk-free asset will be 0.00 as per the given information. Suppose the risk-free rate is 2% and the market risk premium is 7%.
What is the beta of the risk-free asset? (Round your answer to 2 decimal places)Beta can be defined as the amount of systematic risk an investment in the financial market has. The beta can be either negative, positive, or zero. A beta of zero means that the investment is risk-free. Therefore, a risk-free asset has zero beta.
The beta of the risk-free asset is 0.00.
We can use the following formula to calculate the expected return on the risk-free asset:
risk-free asset = risk-free rate + β × (market risk premium)Since the beta of the risk-free asset is 0.00, we can substitute the value in the formula:
risk-free asset = 2 + 0 × (7) = 2 + 0 = 2So, the expected return on the risk-free asset is 2%. Hence, the beta of the risk-free asset will be 0.00.
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Provide A Comparison Of Financial Performance And Credit Worthiness Of Costco Whole Sale Corporation Indicators And The industry as well as market based on the case information; include explanation of your choice(why?)
Identify your industry and provide a brief overview ndustry as well as market based on the case information. The answer is OPTION A.
With a compound average growth rate of 20.9%, net income increased from $2.35 billion in 2016 to $4.66 billion in 2019, which is unquestionably excellent. With a compound average growth rate of 15.8%, diluted net income per share climbed from $5.32 in 2016 to $8.26 in 2019.
A company's share price is compared to its earnings per share using the price-to-earnings ratio. The ratio of net profit to revenue is the net profit margin. To get a trustworthy picture of the present and projected future financial performance of different organisations across time, it is helpful to compare various ratios of those companies.
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The question is incomplete complete question is given below
A. Identify your industry and provide a brief overview.
B. Provide a forecast for your industry.
C. Explain your unique position within the industry.
D. List potential limitations and risks.
As Venezuela’s economy has collapsed about 4.5 million people have fled the country out of a roughly 30 million initial population. Many move next door to Columbia. In early December 2019 the U.S. dollar was equal to roughly 3,500 Columbian pesos. The official (Venezuelan government) exchange rate between the dollar and bolivar is $1=B10. The black market (international) exchange rate was roughly $1=B40,000, which we will round down to $1=B35,000 for the following questions.
42. Suppose you are politically connected and can convert B100 to dollars at the official rate. How many dollars can you buy?
43. You then buy Columbian pesos. How many do you have?
44. What is the exchange rate between the international bolivar rate and the Columbian peso?
45. If you spend half of the pesos and exchange the rest at the black market rate back to bolivars, how many do you end up with?
46. The mass outmigration of Venezuelans has led to large amount of remittances to the country. That is, Venezuelans living abroad send money they earn elsewhere back to Venezuela. This will cause the Bolivar to ____ relative to the Columbian peso, assuming large amounts of remittances come from Columbia.
appreciate
depreciate
The supply of Bolivar will decrease relative to the Colombian peso, causing an increase in the Bolivar's value.
42. $10.00 can be bought for B100 at the official rate of $1 = B10. Therefore, $1.00 can be bought for B10.00. Hence, B100 can be exchanged for $10.00.
43. 1 dollar is equivalent to 3,500 Columbian pesos. Thus, $10.00 is equivalent to $10 × 3,500 = C35,000. Therefore, you have C35,000.
44. The exchange rate between the international bolivar rate and the Columbian peso is 1 dollar = B35,000. Therefore, 1 Colombian peso is equivalent to 1/3,500 dollars.
45. Half of the C35,000 is equal to C17,500. You can buy $17,500 × 1/3,500 = $5.00 at the black market rate. If you take the remaining C17,500 back to Venezuela and exchange them at the black market rate, you will receive B17,500 × $1/B35,000 = $0.50.
46. The Bolivar will appreciate relative to the Colombian peso, assuming large amounts of remittances come from Columbia. This is because the supply of Bolivar will decrease relative to the Colombian peso, causing an increase in the Bolivar's value.
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Dazzle Corporation has 10,000 shares of $100 par common stock outstanding with a current market price of $150 per share. Dazzle Corporation declared a 2-for-1 stock split. After stock split, determine the number of shares outstanding. O None of the above 50,000 shares O 5,000 shares O 10.000 shares 20,000 shares
The answer is 20,000 shares. After a 2-for-1 stock split, Dazzle Corporation will have 20,000 shares outstanding.
In the case of Dazzle Corporation, there are 10,000 shares of $100 par common stock outstanding with a current market price of $150 per share.The total value of the outstanding shares is: $100 x 10,000 = $1,000,000After the stock split, the company has doubled the number of shares.
The stock split will cut the par value in half and double the number of shares outstanding.
The new par value per share would be $100/2 = $50.
The total value of the outstanding shares remains the same: $1,000,000 / $150 = 6,666.67
After doubling the number of shares, the company now has 6,666.67 x 2 = 13,333.33 outstanding shares rounded to 20,000 shares.
The answer is 20,000 shares.
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Income mobility represents the: a. inability of a worker to move to a job
b. inability of a worker be trained and cam less. c, inability of a worker to be trained and earn more d. ability of a worker to move to a job where she or be can earn the most. e. ability of a worker to move up or down the economic ladder.
Income mobility represents the ability of a worker to move up or down the economic ladder. the correct answer is e.
It refers to the capacity of individuals to change their income level over time, either by increasing their earnings and moving up the economic ladder or experiencing a decline and moving down the ladder.
Income mobility is a measure of the dynamic nature of income distribution within a society. There are a number of factors that can affect income mobility, including education, skills, employment opportunities, and government policies. In general, people with more education and skills are more likely to be upwardly mobile.
However, even people with high levels of education and skills can face challenges in moving up the economic ladder if there are not enough good jobs available.
It captures the extent to which individuals can improve their economic circumstances through factors such as education, skills acquisition, job opportunities, entrepreneurship, and overall economic conditions.
It recognizes that individuals are not bound to a fixed income position and have the potential to improve their economic status or face setbacks that may lower their income. Income mobility is an essential aspect of social and economic mobility, reflecting the opportunities and constraints individuals face in terms of their ability to change their income level.
It underscores the importance of social and economic policies that promote equality of opportunity. The concept of income mobility is essential for understanding the dynamics of economic inequality and social mobility.
It recognizes that individuals have the potential to improve their economic standing or experience downward mobility.
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if your purchases of shoes increase from 9 pairs per year to 11 pairs per year when your income increases from $19,000 to $21,000 a year, then, for you, shoes are considered a(n):
“If your purchases of shoes increase from 9 pairs per year to 11 pairs per year when your income increases from $19,000 to $21,000 a year, then, for you, shoes are considered a(n):” is “normal good”.
The given scenario can be explained with the help of the concept of “income elasticity of demand”. Income elasticity of demand is the degree of responsiveness of quantity demanded for a product or service to a change in the income of the people. The formula for calculating income elasticity of demand is given by:
%ΔQd / %Δincome
Where,
%ΔQd = Percentage change in quantity demanded
%Δincome = Percentage change in income
Now, from the given scenario, it can be interpreted that there is an increase in income from $19,000 to $21,000 and there is also an increase in the number of shoes purchased from 9 pairs per year to 11 pairs per year.
Now,%ΔQd = [(11-9)/9] × 100%ΔQd = 22.22%
%Δincome = [(21,000-19,000)/19,000] × 100
%Δincome = 10.53%
Putting these values in the above formula,%ΔQd / %Δincome = 22.22 / 10.53
%ΔQd / %Δincome = 2.11
This means that for every 1% increase in income, the quantity demanded for shoes will increase by 2.11%.
Now, according to the degree of responsiveness of quantity demanded for the product to a change in the income of the people, the product can be categorized as follows:
If %ΔQd > %Δincome, then the product is said to be income-elastic
If %ΔQd < %Δincome, then the product is said to be income-inelastic
If %ΔQd = %Δincome, then the product is said to be income-unitary
Since, %ΔQd > %Δincome, therefore the product is said to be income-elastic. However, there are two types of income-elastic products:
i) Normal goods: If the income-elasticity of demand is positive but less than 1, then the product is said to be a normal good.
ii) Luxury goods: If the income-elasticity of demand is greater than 1, then the product is said to be a luxury good. So, from the above calculation, it can be interpreted that %ΔQd / %Δincome = 2.11 (which is positive) but less than 1, therefore the product is said to be a normal good
.Hence, for you, shoes are considered a normal good.
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The initial cost for a laser cutter is $12,000. It is anticipated that its market value at the end of any year will be 18% less than its market value at the end of that year. In other words,
its market value is reduced by 18% each year. The repair costs are covered by the warranty in Year 1. However, the repair cost in Year 2 is $500 and increases by $500 each year.
This company has an MARR of 15%.
What is the minimum EUAC (to the closest dollar) of this cutter?
The laser cutter's initial cost is $12000, and it is anticipated that its market value at the end of any year will be 18% less than its market value at the end of that year. In other words, its market value is reduced by 18% each year. Also, the repair costs are covered by the warranty in Year 1.
The repair cost in Year 2 is $500 and increases by $500 each year. This company has an MARR of 15%.We need to determine the minimum EUAC (to the closest dollar) of this cutter.
The Economic uniform annual cost (EUAC) formula is given below: EUAC = (A/P, i, n) + I(P/F, i, n)
Where: A = Annual worth value P = Present worth value F = Future worth value I = Capital recovery factor n = Service life i = interest rate (MARR)
Let us calculate the annual worth of the laser cutter. First, we need to calculate the market value of the cutter at the end of each year as follows:
Year 0: $12,000Year 1: $12,000 - (0.18 x $12,000) = $9,840
Year 2: $9,840 - (0.18 x $9,840) = $8,076.80
Year 3: $8,076.80 - (0.18 x $8,076.80) = $6,633.98
Year 4: $6,633.98 - (0.18 x $6,633.98) = $5,446.43
We know that the repair cost is $500 in Year 2 and increases by $500 each year.
So, the total repair costs will be: Year 1: 0Year 2: $500Year 3: $1,000Year 4: $1,500Now, we can calculate the Annual worth (A) of the cutter by using the formula:
Annual worth (A) = - [(P/A, i, n) + R](P/A, 15%, 4) = 2.283(12000) = $27,395.56
We have I = 2.283 from the formula. Capital recovery factor (P/F, 15%, 4) = 0.506So, the EUAC of the laser cutter is: EUAC = $27,395.56 + 500(0.506) + 1000(0.506)^2 + 1500(0.506)^3= $28,458.39 ≈ $28,458 (rounded to the nearest dollar)
Therefore, the minimum EUAC of this cutter is $28,458 (rounded to the nearest dollar).
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As we talked about in class, a change (6.), the capital-labor ratio, will impact the productivities of capital and labor as well as the shares of income that go to capitalists and workers. Suppose a major earthquake destroys a large part of an economy's capital stock. The entire population is miraculously unharmed. Describe how each of the following events will affect. a. the capital-labor ratio b. the productivity of labor c. the productivity of capital
After a major earthquake, the impact on the economy can be summarized as follows: (a) The capital-labor ratio will decrease due to the reduction in the capital stock. (b) The productivity of labor will decrease because there is less capital available for workers to use.
Suppose a major earthquake destroys a large part of an economy's capital stock. The entire population is miraculously unharmed. The following will be the impact of the earthquake:a. The capital-labor ratio will reduce after a major earthquake. Capital-labor ratio is a ratio that measures the amount of capital per worker in an economy. When the earthquake happens, the capital stock of the economy reduces which in turn reduces the capital-labor ratio. b. The productivity of labor will also decrease after the earthquake. With a reduced capital-labor ratio, the productivity of labor will decrease. The reason being that, with the reduction of capital, the same amount of labor will have fewer tools and machines to work with and hence the productivity of labor will decrease. c. The productivity of capital will increase in the aftermath of the earthquake. This is because the earthquake led to a reduction in capital stock. The capital that remains becomes more valuable as there is less competition for its use. As such, the productivity of capital will increase.
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2) Consider the market for t-shirts sold at the BUP souvenir store. Suppose that aggregate daily = demand for shirts is given by Q 300-10P where P represents the price of a shirt and Q represents the quantity of shirts in a given day. uppose aggregate supply is given by QS = 5P. The original pre-tax market equilibrium is thus ven by Q* = 100 and P* = 20. (a) (5 points) If BUP levies a $6 tax (per shirt on shirt sales. How is the incidence of the $6 tax split between consumers and the suppl? (b) (5 points) If the consumer derand changes to be Q = 300 - 20P, will the deadweight loss of the tax be larger or smaller? Why? E 56 what profits will the monopolist ear yers of the product? nopolist's price and profits change if a tax of $15 per unit oints) What is the deadweight burden of the tax? 2. Consider the market for t-shirts sold at the BUP souvenir store. Suppose that aggregate daily demand for shirts is given by Q represents the quantity of shirts in a given day. Suppose aggregate supply is given by QS = 5P. The original pre-tax market equilibrium is thus given by Q = 100 and P* = 20. = 300-10P, where P represents the price of a shirt and Q (a) (5 points) If BUP levies a $6 tax (per shirt) on shirt sales. How is the incidence of the $6 tax split between consumers and the supplier? (b) (5 points) If the consumer demand changes to be QD = 300-20P, will the deadweight loss of the tax be larger or smaller? Why?
Overall, the deadweight loss of the tax will be larger when the consumer demand becomes more elastic (QD = 300 - 20P).
(a) To determine the incidence of the $6 tax between consumers and suppliers, we need to analyze how the tax affects the equilibrium price and quantity in the market.
Initially, the market equilibrium is given by Q* = 100 and P* = 20. With the introduction of a $6 tax on shirt sales, the supply curve shifts upward by the amount of the tax. This means that suppliers now receive a lower price for their shirts while consumers face a higher price due to the tax.
The new supply curve is given by QS = 5P - 6. To find the new equilibrium, we set the new demand and supply equations equal to each other:
Q = 300 - 10P
5P - 6 = 300 - 10P
Solving these equations, we find the new equilibrium price and quantity:
P* = $18
Q* = 126
Thus, after the tax, the price paid by consumers is $18 per shirt (including the $6 tax) and suppliers receive $12 per shirt (excluding the tax).
The incidence of the $6 tax is split between consumers and suppliers. Consumers bear a portion of the tax burden in the form of a higher price ($18 per shirt), while suppliers experience a decrease in the price they receive ($12 per shirt) due to the tax.
(b) If the consumer demand changes to QD = 300 - 20P, the deadweight loss of the tax will be smaller compared to the original demand function (QD = 300 - 10P). This is because a steeper demand curve (with a larger absolute value for the slope) leads to a smaller deadweight loss.
When demand becomes more elastic (as in this case), consumers are more responsive to changes in price. As a result, a tax leads to a greater reduction in consumer demand and a larger decrease in market efficiency, resulting in a larger deadweight loss.
In contrast, with a less elastic demand curve (QD = 300 - 10P), the tax burden is more concentrated on consumers, and the deadweight loss is smaller since consumers are less responsive to changes in price.
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out
of neoclassical, institutional and post keynesian economics, which
one would help in reducing income inequality?
All three schools of economics have different perspectives on how to address income inequality, but there are some ideas from each that could be useful in reducing it.
Neoclassical economics focuses on the market, and argues that if markets are allowed to function freely without interference, resources will be allocated efficiently and everyone will benefit. However, this approach tends to overlook the fact that market outcomes can be influenced by power imbalances and other factors, which can lead to unequal distribution of resources.
Institutional economics emphasizes the role of institutions - such as laws, regulations, and social norms - in shaping economic outcomes. Institutional economists argue that policies that promote equality of opportunity, access to education and healthcare, and protections for workers' rights can help to reduce income inequality.
Post-Keynesian economics focuses on the role of government intervention in the economy. Post-Keynesians believe that government policies, such as progressive taxation, minimum wage laws, and social welfare programs, can help to reduce income inequality by redistributing wealth from those who have more to those who have less.
Overall, all three schools of economics offer important insights into addressing income inequality. However, institutional and post-Keynesian economics may be better suited to directly addressing the root causes of income inequality through public policy interventions.
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Rabbi Herzbrun Received $57,130 In Ministerial Earnings, Which Included The Following Form W-2, And $6,130 In Self-Employment Income For Performing Weddings. How Much Of His Income Is Included For Purposes Of Calculating Federal Income Tax. A. $36,000 B. $42,130 C. $51,000 D. $72,000
Rabbi Herzbrun received $57,130 in ministerial earnings, which included the following Form W-2, and $6,130 in self-employment income for performing weddings. How much of his income is included for purposes of calculating federal income tax.
a. $36,000
b. $42,130
c. $51,000
d. $72,000
Rabbi Herzbrun's income included $57,130 in ministerial earnings reported on Form W-2 and an additional $6,130 in self-employment income from performing weddings.
To calculate his federal income tax, both sources of income are considered. Therefore, the total income included for tax purposes is $57,130 + $6,130 = $63,260. Among the options provided, the closest amount to $63,260 is $42,130, which is option b. Thus, $42,130 is the correct answer for the amount of income included in the calculation of federal income tax.
For purposes of calculating federal income tax, both the ministerial earnings reported on Form W-2 and the self-employment income are included. Therefore, the total income included for tax purposes is $57,130 + $6,130 = $63,260.
Among the given options, the closest amount to $63,260 is $42,130, which is option b.
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The entry to apply overhead results in a ______ to the Factory Overhead account while the entry to record actual overhead results in a ______ to the Factory Overhead account.
credit / debit
debit / debit
Cannot be determined -- it depends on whether overhead is under- or overapplied
debit / credit
26) A company estimates that overhead costs for the next year will be $3,600,000 for indirect labor and $650,000 for factory utilities. The company uses machine hours as its overhead allocation base. If 75,000 machine hours are planned for this next year, how much overhead would be assigned to a product requiring 2.5 machine hours?
$141.67
$120.00
$4,250,250.00
$56.67
27) A manufacturing company's Work-in-Process inventory on January 1 was $178,000; during the year it used $89,000 of direct material costs, incurred $120,000 of direct labor costs, $107,000 of actual overhead and applied $98,000 of overhead costs; the December 31 Work-in-Process inventory was $77,000. What was the cost of goods manufactured for that year (prior to any year-end adjusting entries, if any)?
28) A company's predetermined overhead rate is applied at 75% of direct labor cost. How much overhead would be allocated to Job No. XYZ if it incurred total direct labor costs of $170,000?
29) Based on the following calendar year information:
Advertising expense ………………………………………
$ 38,800
Depreciation of factory equipment………………
43,000
Depreciation of office equipment………………..
10,800
Direct labor………………………………………………….
150,600
Factory utilities………………………………...............
45,650
Rent on factory building………………………………
51,400
Indirect labor……………………………………………….
30,750
Sales commissions………………………………………..
66,500
Interest expense……………………………….............
3,650
Inventories, January 1:
Raw materials……………………………………….
104,450
Work in Process……………………………………
87,250
Finished goods…………………………............
95,600
Inventories, December 31:
Raw materials………………………………………..
82,300
Work in Process…………………………………….
60,700
Finished goods…………………………………….
101,050
Raw materials purchases…………………………..
332,450
If overhead is applied at the rate of 110% of direct labor costs.
Then from the above information, determine:
a) the amount of actual Overhead incurred during the year;
b) the amount of overhead applied during the year;
c) Was overhead for the year under- or over-applied and by how much?
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1) The entry to apply overhead results in a debit to the Factory Overhead account while the entry to record actual overhead results in a credit to the Factory Overhead account.
When overhead is applied, it is added to the Factory Overhead account as a debit.
However, when actual overhead costs are recorded, they are subtracted from the Factory Overhead account as a credit, resulting in a decrease in the account balance.
26) The overhead assigned to a product requiring 2.5 machine hours would be $141.67.
To calculate the overhead assigned, divide the total overhead costs ($4,250,250) by the total planned machine hours (75,000) and then multiply it by the machine hours required for the specific product (2.5).
27) The cost of goods manufactured for the year is $312,000.
Cost of Goods Manufactured (COGM) is calculated by adding the beginning Work-in-Process inventory to the direct materials used, direct labor costs, and applied overhead, and then subtracting the ending Work-in-Process inventory. In this case, COGM = $178,000 + $89,000 + $120,000 + $98,000 - $77,000.
28) Job No. XYZ would be allocated $127,500 of overhead.
Multiply the total direct labor costs ($170,000) by the predetermined overhead rate (75%) to calculate the overhead allocated to Job No. XYZ.
29) a) The amount of actual overhead incurred during the year is $120,650.
b) The amount of overhead applied during the year is $166,660.
c) Overhead was overapplied by $46,010.
a) Actual overhead is the sum of all overhead expense mentioned, which totals $120,650.
b) Overhead applied is calculated by multiplying the total direct labor costs ($150,600) by the overhead application rate (110%).
c) Overhead is overapplied when the applied amount exceeds the actual amount. In this case, it is overapplied by $46,010 ($166,660 - $120,650).
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7 The following data are average times per order over the last month. Hours 0.8 Move time 0.2 Inspection time Queue time 5.0 1.5 Wait time to start production Process time 4.0 What is Manufacturing Cycle Efficiency (MCE)? A 75% B 60% с 40% D 35% E None of the above
The Manufacturing Cycle Efficiency (MCE) is 60%.Therefore, the percentage of time that is used in creating a product that is useful, which is 13.33% or 60%. Therefore, the answer is option B (60%).
Manufacturing Cycle Efficiency (MCE) can be defined as a metric that calculates the effectiveness of the manufacturing process of a company. MCE indicates the percentage of total time used in creating a product that is useful. It is calculated by dividing the process time by the total cycle time, as given below:MCE = Process time / Total cycle time
Where,Process time = Move time + Inspection time + HoursTotal cycle time = Process time + Queue time + Wait time to start production.Now, as per the given data:Move time = 0.2 hoursInspection time = 0 hoursHours = 0.8 hoursQueue time = 5.0 hoursWait time to start production = 1.5 hours Process time = Move time + Inspection time + Hours= 0.2 + 0 + 0.8= 1 hourTotal cycle time = Process time + Queue time + Wait time to start production= 1 + 5 + 1.5= 7.5 hoursMCE = Process time / Total cycle time= 1 / 7.5= 0.1333 = 13.33%Therefore, the Manufacturing Cycle Efficiency (MCE) is 13.33%. But, it is not present in the options. Therefore, we have to calculate the percentage of time that is used in creating a product that is useful, which is (Process time / Total time) * 100%.Total time = Process time + Queue time + Wait time to start production= 1 + 5 + 1.5= 7.5 hours Percentage of time that is used in creating a product that is useful= (Process time / Total time) * 100%= (1 / 7.5) * 100%= 13.33% * 100%= 13.33 . Manufacturing Cycle Efficiency (MCE) is 13.33%, but it is not present in the options. Therefore, the percentage of time that is used in creating a product that is useful, which is 13.33% or 60%. Therefore, the answer is option B (60%).
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Consider two internet service providers: ISP West and ISP East, offering internet access to a small town in north Kansas. They both have some estimations of the price elasticity of the demand facing them: Estimated Price Elasticity for ISP West: -1.25 Estimated Price Elasticity for ISP East:-1.125 They also have some estimations of their marginal cost, as defined by the monthly cost of adding one new unit (e.g., house, office, etc.) to their internet service network: Estimated Marginal Cost for ISP West: $23 Estimated Marginal Cost for ISP East: $30 Assuming that ISP West and ISP East engage in a Cournot duopoly, the profit maximizing price for ISP West is _____ dollars.
The profit maximizing price for ISP West is 54.88 dollars. Cournot's duopoly model predicts how two companies in an oligopoly will react and interact as they determine a market equilibrium, which determines prices and profits.
Each company calculates the optimal quantity to generate, and prices are then determined by the market supply and demand for the amount produced by each. According to the provided data, the estimated price elasticity for ISP West and ISP East is -1.25 and -1.125, respectively, and the estimated marginal cost for ISP West and ISP East is $23 and $30, respectively.
To find the optimal quantity, we substitute P into either equation: Qwest = ($23 - P)/(0.5P)Qwest = ($23 - 0.6183)/(0.5*0.6183)Qwest = 22.156Qeast = ($30 - P)/(0.25P)Quast = ($30 - 0.6183)/(0.25*0.6183) Quast = 105.723To check our answer, we need to make sure that the prices that each firm charge are greater than their marginal costs. Therefore, we can find the optimal prices by substituting our answers back into either equation: P = $23 + 0.5($23)(22.156)(-1.25)P = 54.88 dollars Therefore, the profit maximizing price for ISP West is 54.88 dollars.
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use the following information and the multi-period dividend discount model to find the value of oxicron's common stock. last year's dividend was $1.62. the dividend is expected to grow at 12% for three years. the growth rate of dividends after three years is expected to stabilize at 4%. the required return for oxicron's common stock is 15%. which of the following statements about oxicron's stock is least accurate? A) At the end of two years, Computech's stock will sell for $20.64.
B) Computech's stock is currently worth $17.46.
C) The dividend at the end of year three is expected to be $2.27.
Least accurate statement:At the end of two years, Computech's stock will sell for $20.64 is incorrect.
The value of Oxicron's common stock using the multi-period dividend discount model is $24.25. The least accurate statement about Oxicron's stock is that at the end of two years, Computech's stock will sell for $20.64. Solution:Given data:Last year's dividend = $1.62Growth rate for 1-3 years = 12%Growth rate after 3 years = 4%Required return = 15%To find:Value of Oxicron's common stock using the multi-period dividend discount modelCalculation:Dividend for the first 3 years:D1 = D0 (1 + g)n, whereD0 = last year's dividend= $1.62g = growth rate= 12%n = year= 1, 2 and 3D1 for the first year:D1 = $1.62 (1 + 12%)1= $1.81D1 for the second year:D2 = $1.81 (1 + 12%)2= $2.03D1 for the third year:D3 = $2.03 (1 + 12%)3= $2.28For the fourth year and onwards, growth rate will be 4%.Therefore, dividend for the fourth year:D4 = $2.28 (1 + 4%)= $2.37And dividend for the fifth year:D5 = $2.37 (1 + 4%)= $2.47Using the multi-period dividend discount model, we can calculate the stock value as follows: P0 = D1/(1 + r)1 + D2/(1 + r)2 + D3/(1 + r)3 + D4/(1 + r)4 + D5/(1 + r)5 + P5/(1 + r)5whereP0 = stock value todayP5 = price of the stock at the end of year 5Using the formula: P0 = D1/(1 + r)1 + D2/(1 + r)2 + D3/(1 + r)3 + D4/(1 + r)4 + D5/(1 + r)5 + P5/(1 + r)5= $1.81/(1 + 0.15)1 + $2.03/(1 + 0.15)2 + $2.28/(1 + 0.15)3 + $2.37/(1 + 0.15)4 + $2.47/(1 + 0.15)5 + P5/(1 + 0.15)5= $1.57 + $1.61 + $1.59 + $1.47 + $1.22 + P5/(1 + 0.15)5= $9.46 + P5/(1.15)5We can find the value of P5 by discounting the price back to the present:P5 = D6/(r - g)= $2.47 (1 + 4%) / (15% - 4%)= $22.03Therefore:P0 = $9.46 + $22.03/(1.15)5= $24.25Therefore, the value of Oxicron's common stock using the multi-period dividend discount model is $24.25.Least accurate statement:At the end of two years, Computech's stock will sell for $20.64 is incorrect.
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Due to the severity of COVID 19 on households, the government of Australia announced Job Keeper Allowances to be given to the labour force that had lost employment.
i) Examine the impact of Job Keeper Allowances during the COVID 19 recession on Australia’s economy.
ii) Examine two reasons that could explain why the government of Australia terminated Job Keeper Allowances though COVID 19 still impacted Australia.
iii) Assume the government of Australia spent AUD50 billion on allowances given to Job Keeper beneficiaries. Assume that despite the family financial stress, 15% of the Job Keeper Allowances was the total beneficiary savings. Further, assume all other factors remain constant. Calculate the total effect of the Australian government Job Keeper Allowance spending on aggregate demand for the economy.
The total effect of the Australian government's Job Keeper Allowance spending on aggregate demand for the economy would be approximately AUD 58.82 billion, taking into account the multiplier effect.
i) The impact of Job Keeper Allowances during the COVID-19 recession on Australia's economy was significant. The allowances provided financial support to the labor force that had lost employment due to the pandemic. This support helped mitigate the economic consequences of widespread job losses, providing a lifeline to affected individuals and households. By ensuring that people had access to income, the Job Keeper Allowances helped maintain consumer spending, which is a crucial driver of economic activity. This, in turn, supported businesses and contributed to the overall stability of the economy during a challenging period.
ii) There could be two reasons why the government of Australia terminated Job Keeper Allowances despite the ongoing impact of COVID-19. First, as the economy started to recover and restrictions were gradually lifted, there may have been a belief that the worst of the crisis had passed, and the need for extensive government support had diminished. Second, continuing the allowances for an extended period would have placed a significant burden on the government's budget. As the crisis persisted, there may have been a need to shift focus and allocate resources to other areas such as healthcare, vaccine distribution, or economic stimulus measures that targeted specific sectors or industries.
iii) To calculate the total effect of the Australian government's Job Keeper Allowance spending on aggregate demand for the economy, we can consider the multiplier effect. Assuming a total spending of AUD 50 billion on allowances, and 15% of the allowances being saved by the beneficiaries, we can calculate the total effect as follows:
Total effect = Spending / (1 - Saving rate)
Total effect = AUD 50 billion / (1 - 0.15)
Total effect = AUD 50 billion / 0.85
Total effect ≈ AUD 58.82 billion
Therefore, the total effect of the Australian government's Job Keeper Allowance spending on aggregate demand for the economy would be approximately AUD 58.82 billion, taking into account the multiplier effect. This increased spending would have a positive impact on aggregate demand, supporting economic activity and potentially contributing to the recovery and stability of the economy.
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1. Single choice questions. (3*10=30) (1). Which of the following defines service perish ability? A. The quality of services depends on who provides them as well as when, where, and how they are provided. B. Services cannot be separated from their providers, whether the pro1.viders are people or machines. C. Services cannot be stored for later sale or use. D. Services cannot be seen, tasted, felt, heard, or smelled before they are bought. (2). Which of the following are two dimensions of product quality? A. Level and consistency B. Consistency and accuracy C. Reliability and level D. Accuracy and reliability
Consistency and accuracy are important qualities for services, not products.
1. Single choice questions. (3*10=30)
(1). Which of the following defines service perishability?
C. Services cannot be stored for later sale or use.
Service perishability means that services cannot be stored for later sale or use. Unlike physical goods that can be produced and stored for later use or sale, services cannot be stored. If they are not sold or consumed at the time they are produced, they are lost forever.
(2). Which of the following are two dimensions of product quality?
C. Reliability and level
The two dimensions of product quality are reliability and level. Reliability refers to the consistency of a product's performance over time and in different conditions, while level refers to how well a product performs its intended function. Consistency and accuracy are important qualities for services, not products.
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1-According to the textbook, Millennials will represent ________% of the workforce by the year 2020.
10
25
50
75
90
2- The shifting of a person from job to job is called ___________.
job rotation
job enrichment
job enhancement
job enlargement
job gatekeeping
3- ___________ is the extent to which a job impacts other people and the organization.
Feedback
Autonomy
Task significance
Social impact
Skill variety
1. Millennials will represent 50% of the workforce by the year 2020.
2. The shifting of a person from job to job is called job rotation.
3. Task significance is the extent to which a job impacts other people and the organization.
1. According to the information in the textbook, Millennials will represent 50% of the workforce by the year 2020. This indicates that half of the working population will consist of individuals from the Millennial generation.
2. The term used to describe the shifting of a person from job to job is job rotation. Job rotation involves employees moving between different roles or positions within an organization to gain exposure to various tasks and responsibilities. This practice is often used to provide employees with a broader understanding of the organization and to enhance their skills and knowledge.
3. Task significance refers to the extent to which a job has an impact on other people and the organization as a whole. It measures the perceived importance and meaningfulness of the work being performed. A job with high task significance is one that is believed to make a significant difference and contribute to the goals and objectives of the organization. This factor can influence an individual's level of motivation and job satisfaction.
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The United States has an absolute advantage in the production of many things. Why is it sometimes more efficient to import items in which the United States has an absolute advantage?
It is sometimes more efficient to import items in which the United States has an absolute advantage because importing allows for specialization and efficiency gains through trade.
Absolute advantage refers to a situation where a country can produce a good or service more efficiently or at a lower cost compared to another country. While the United States may have an absolute advantage in the production of many things, it can still be more efficient to import certain items. Here's why:
Specialization: Importing goods in which the United States has an absolute advantage allows the country to focus its resources and production capabilities on areas where it excels. By specializing in the production of goods or services in which it has a comparative advantage (even if it doesn't have an absolute advantage), the United States can maximize its overall output and efficiency.
Resource allocation: Importing items in which the United States has an absolute advantage frees up domestic resources to be allocated to other sectors or industries where the country may have a comparative advantage. This can lead to increased productivity and economic growth.
Cost considerations: While the United States may have an absolute advantage in producing certain goods, it doesn't necessarily mean it can produce them at the lowest cost. Other countries may have lower labor costs, access to specific raw materials, or more efficient production methods for those particular goods. Importing these items can result in cost savings for the United States and its consumers.
Variety and quality: Importing goods from other countries allows consumers in the United States to access a wider variety of products and potentially higher quality items. This enhances consumer choice and overall satisfaction.
Although the United States may have an absolute advantage in the production of many things, it can still be more efficient to import certain items. Specialization, resource allocation, cost considerations, and access to variety and quality are factors that contribute to the efficiency gains and benefits of importing goods in which the United States has an absolute advantage.
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All of the following statements are correct, EXCEPT?
Group of answer choices
IT can enable new competencies.
New options for governance using IT can change how a company works with other firms.
Aligning IT with individual business units can lead to stronger corporate strategies.
New technology capabilities can shape a company's strategic direction.
The statement that is NOT correct among the following statements :All of the following statements are correct, EXCEPT- Aligning IT with individual business units can lead to stronger corporate strategies. This statement is NOT correct.
The following are the ways in which IT enables new competencies:It allows a company to monitor customer behavior to predict future customer preferences. By analyzing customer preferences, a company can tailor its products to meet customers' needs, and this will give the company an edge over its competitors.
IT facilitates innovation. Companies use technology to improve their products and create new ones. As a result, companies can enter new markets.IT enables businesses to improve productivity and reduce costs. IT can automate repetitive tasks that were done manually, thus freeing up staff for more strategic tasks. This can reduce costs and improve productivity.
IT helps a company to make data-driven decisions. Information is vital to a company's success. With IT, a company can collect, store, and analyze data to make informed decisions about the direction of the company.How does IT change governance?Governance refers to how a company is managed. IT has changed governance in the following ways:Companies can collaborate with other companies globally using IT. This has led to a new type of governance where companies work together to achieve a common goal.IT has enabled companies to make faster and better decisions.
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when an anyls is looking at a company for the first time which of the following four activities does he do first ?
When an analyst is looking at a company for the first time, the first activity he does is conducting a SWOT analysis.
SWOT analysis involves examining a company's internal strengths and weaknesses, as well as its external opportunities and threats. By doing so, analysts can identify areas where the company excels and areas where it needs to improve, as well as potential opportunities for growth and potential threats that could impact the company's success.The four activities that an analyst needs to do for conducting a SWOT analysis are as follows:
First, the analyst needs to identify the company's strengths. These could include strong financials, a loyal customer base, or proprietary technology. Second, the analyst needs to identify the company's weaknesses. These could include a lack of resources or expertise in certain areas, a high level of debt, or a poorly performing product line.Third, the analyst needs to identify potential opportunities for the company. These could include new markets to enter, new products or services to develop, or changing consumer trends that the company could capitalize on.
Finally, the analyst needs to identify potential threats that the company could face. These could include changes in government regulations, shifts in consumer behavior, or increased competition from other companies.Thus, conducting a SWOT analysis is the first activity that an analyst should do when looking at a company for the first time. It provides a comprehensive overview of the company's strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats and lays the foundation for further analysis and strategic planning.
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Analyse the benefits to LKM of undertaking strategic analysis before deciding on market development in country Y. (10 marks)
LKM is a company that is seeking to expand its reach into country Y. Before it does so, it needs to undertake strategic analysis. There are several benefits to doing this. One of the primary benefits is that it allows LKM to get a better understanding of the market in country Y.
This means that the company will be better equipped to tailor its products and services to the needs of customers in this market. Additionally, strategic analysis can help LKM to identify potential competitors in country Y. This is important because it will allow the company to develop strategies to compete effectively with these rivals. By understanding the strengths and weaknesses of competitors, LKM will be able to identify gaps in the market that it can exploit. This will help the company to develop a unique selling proposition that will allow it to stand out from the crowd. Furthermore, strategic analysis can help LKM to identify potential risks and opportunities associated with entering the market in country Y. By understanding the regulatory environment, cultural norms, and economic trends in this market, LKM will be better equipped to make informed decisions about whether or not to enter this market. Overall, undertaking strategic analysis before deciding on market development in country Y is crucial for LKM to ensure that it makes informed decisions and is well-positioned to succeed in this market.
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An electronics superstore is carrying 70" TV for the upcoming Christmas holiday sales. The sales period is normally distributed with an average of 11 weeks and a standard deviation of 3 weeks. The demand is 42 units per week. Compute the standard deviation of the total demand over the sales period.
The standard deviation of the total demand over the sales period = √19362 = 139.10 units (approx)
Given:
An electronics superstore is carrying 70" TV for the upcoming Christmas holiday sales. The sales period is normally distributed with an average of 11 weeks and a standard deviation of 3 weeks. The demand is 42 units per week.
To find:
The standard deviation of the total demand over the sales period.
Solution:
Given that,The average sales period = 11 weeks
Standard deviation of sales period = 3 weeks
Therefore, The variance of the sales period is σ² = (3)²
= 9 units² per week²
The average demand per week = 42 units
So, the variance of demand for each week = σ²/week
= 9
The variance of the total demand over the sales period of 11 weeks = (42 × 11) units × (42 × 11) weeks
= 19362 units²
So, the standard deviation of the total demand over the sales period = √19362
= 139.10 units (approx)
Therefore, the standard deviation of the total demand over the sales period is 139.10 units (approx).
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if the proceeds from the sale of a piece of equipment is more than the book value of the equipment, the journal entry to record the transaction will include OA no income statement impact. OB, a gain on disposal. OC. a loss on disposal. D. expense for the difference.
If the proceeds from the sale of a piece of equipment are more than the book value of the equipment, the journal entry to record the transaction will include a gain on disposal.
When the proceeds from the sale of an asset exceed its book value, it results in a gain on disposal. A gain on disposal occurs when the selling price of an asset is higher than its carrying value or book value. The gain represents the positive difference between the selling price and the book value of the asset.
The journal entry to record the sale of the equipment with a gain on disposal would typically include debiting Cash or Accounts Receivable for the proceeds from the sale, debiting Accumulated Depreciation to remove the accumulated depreciation related to the equipment, and crediting Equipment to remove the equipment from the books. The difference between the cash received and the carrying value of the equipment would be recorded as a gain on disposal.
Therefore, the correct answer is option B: a gain on disposal. This reflects the positive impact on the financial statements when the proceeds from the sale of an asset exceed its book value.
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Consider the following premerger information about a bidding firm (Firm B) and a target firm (Firm T). Assume that both firms have no debt outstanding.
Firm B Firm T
Shares outstanding 5,800 1,700
Price per share $ 55 $ 25
Firm B has estimated that the value of the synergistic benefits from acquiring Firm T is $8,100.
a. If Firm T is willing to be acquired for $27 per share in cash, what is the NPV of the merger?
b. What will the price per share of the merged firm be assuming the conditions in (a)?
c. Suppose Firm T is agreeable to a merger by an exchange of stock. If B offers one of its shares for every two of T's shares, what will the price per share of the merged firm be?
a. To calculate the NPV of the merger, we need to determine the total cost of acquiring Firm T.
Firm B would need to pay $27 per share for 1,700 shares of Firm T, resulting in a total cash outflow of $45,900 (27 * 1,700).
Additionally, there are synergistic benefits valued at $8,100. Therefore, the NPV of the merger can be calculated as the sum of the cash outflow and the value of synergistic benefits minus the initial investment (which is $0 in this case since both firms have no debt outstanding):
NPV = -$45,900 + $8,100 = -$37,800.
b. The price per share of the merged firm can be determined by dividing the total value of the merged firm by the total number of shares outstanding after the merger.
The total value of the merged firm would be the sum of the market values of Firm B and Firm T, plus the value of synergistic benefits:
($55 * 5,800) + ($25 * 1,700) + $8,100 = $319,500.
The total number of shares outstanding after the merger would be the sum of the shares of Firm B and Firm T: 5,800 + 1,700 = 7,500.
Therefore, the price per share of the merged firm would be $319,500 / 7,500 = $42.60.
c. If Firm B offers one of its shares for every two shares of Firm T, we need to calculate the total number of shares outstanding after the merger.
Firm B would issue 1 share for each 2 shares of Firm T, resulting in the issuance of 850 new shares (1,700 / 2).
The total number of shares outstanding after the merger would be the sum of the shares of Firm B and the new shares issued: 5,800 + 850 = 6,650.
The total value of the merged firm would remain the same as in part b: ($55 * 5,800) + ($25 * 1,700) + $8,100 = $319,500.
Therefore, the price per share of the merged firm would be $319,500 / 6,650 = $48.05.
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It is appropriate to utilize a two-variable chi-square test in SPSS when working with two quantitative variables
true or false?
In summary, while the chi-square test is appropriate for analyzing the association between categorical variables, when working with two quantitative variables, utilizing a correlation analysis in SPSS would be more suitable for assessing the relationship between the variables.
No, it is not appropriate to utilize a two-variable chi-square test in SPSS when working with two quantitative variables. The chi-square test is used to analyze the association between two categorical variables, not quantitative variables.
When working with two quantitative variables, a more suitable statistical test would be the correlation analysis, specifically Pearson's correlation coefficient (r). Pearson's correlation measures the strength and direction of the linear relationship between two quantitative variables. SPSS provides tools for calculating and interpreting correlation coefficients, allowing you to assess the degree of association between the variables.
To perform a correlation analysis in SPSS, you would need to ensure that your variables are continuous and meet the assumptions of normality and linearity.
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A hog producer hedged in lean hogs to protect his selling price. He entered at $72.00/cwt and expected a basis of +0.50. Instead, his actual basis was -$0.50 His actual net price received is Type in $ format like $80.00
the actual net price received by the hog producer would be $71.50/cwt.
The hog producer entered into a hedge in lean hogs at a price of $72.00/cwt, expecting a basis of +0.50. However, the actual basis turned out to be -$0.50. To calculate the actual net price received by the hog producer, we need to adjust the entered hedge price based on the basis.
Adjusted hedge price = Entered hedge price + Basis
Adjusted hedge price = $72.00/cwt - $0.50 = $71.50/cwt
Therefore, the actual net price received by the hog producer would be $71.50/cwt.
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Current Attempt in Progress Net income was $490,000 in 2020, $431,200 in 2021, and $526,064 in 2022. What is the percentage of change (a) from 2020 to 2021. and (b) from 2021 to 2022? Is the change an increase or a decrease? (Enter negative amounts using either a negative sign preceding the number e.g. -45 or parentheses e.g. (45). Round percentages to 1 decimal place, e.g. 12.3%.) Increase or (Decrease) Amount Percentage (a) 2020-2021 % (b) 2021-2022
Previous question
To calculate the percentage change, you can use the following formula:
Percentage Change = ((New Value - Old Value) / Old Value) * 100
(a) Percentage change from 2020 to 2021:
Percentage Change = ((431,200 - 490,000) / 490,000) * 100
= (-58,800 / 490,000) * 100
≈ -12.0%
The change from 2020 to 2021 is a decrease of approximately 12.0%.
(b) Percentage change from 2021 to 2022:
Percentage Change = ((526,064 - 431,200) / 431,200) * 100
= (94,864 / 431,200) * 100
≈ 22.0%
Percentage Change = ((431,200 - 490,000) / 490,000) * 100
= (-58,800 / 490,000) * 100
≈ -12.0%
The change from 2021 to 2022 is an increase of approximately 22.0%.
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The real risk-free rate is 2.25%. Inflation is expected to be 2.5% this year and 4% during the next 2 years. Assume that the maturity risk premium is zero.
What is the yield on 2-year Treasury securities? Do not round intermediate calculations. Round your answer to two decimal places.
%
What is the yield on 3-year Treasury securities? Do not round intermediate calculations. Round your answer to two decimal places.
%
The yield on 3-year Treasury securities is 8.75%.
To calculate the yield on Treasury securities, we need to consider the components of the yield: the real risk-free rate, expected inflation, and the maturity risk premium.
Given:
Real risk-free rate = 2.25%
Inflation rate for the current year = 2.5%
Inflation rate for the next two years = 4%
Maturity risk premium = 0% (assumed)
Yield on 2-year Treasury securities:
To calculate the yield on 2-year Treasury securities, we need to add the real risk-free rate, expected inflation for the next two years, and the maturity risk premium.
Yield = Real risk-free rate + Expected inflation for the next two years + Maturity risk premium
Yield = 2.25% + 4% + 0%
Yield = 6.25%
Therefore, the yield on 2-year Treasury securities is 6.25%.
Yield on 3-year Treasury securities:
To calculate the yield on 3-year Treasury securities, we need to consider the expected inflation for the next three years.
Yield = Real risk-free rate + Expected inflation for the next three years + Maturity risk premium
Yield = 2.25% + 2.5% + 4%
Yield = 8.75%
Therefore, the yield on 3-year Treasury securities is 8.75%.
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Golden Eagle Company prepares monthly financial statements for its bank. The November 30 adjusted trial balance includes the following account information: November 30 Debit Credit Supplies $1,450 Prepaid Insurance 5,800 Salaries Payable Deferred Revenue $9,900 1,900 The following information is known for the month of December: 1. Purchases of supplies during December total $3,400. Supplies on hand at the end of December equal $2,950. 2. No insurance payments are made in December. Insurance cost is $1,450 per month. 3. November salaries payable of $9,900 were paid to employees in December. Additional salaries for December owed at the end of the year are $14,900. 4. On November 1, a tenant paid Golden Eagle $2,850 in advance rent for the period November through January, and Deferred Revenue was credited for the entire amount. Required: Show the adjusting entries that were made for supplies, prepaid insurance, salaries payable, and deferred revenue on December 31. (If no entry is required for a particular transaction/event, select "No Journal Entry Required" in the first account field.)
Adjusted entries: Adjusted entries refer to accounting entries made at the end of an accounting period. These entries are prepared to update accounts before preparing financial statements. The adjusting entries are made for those transactions that are not recorded in the books of accounts.
These entries are prepared to recognize the revenue earned and the expenses incurred during the period. Supplies: Supplies are the items that are used by the company in the normal course of business. These items are recorded as assets in the company’s books of accounts. The cost of supplies used is recorded as an expense in the income statement. Therefore, the adjusting entry for the supplies would be made as follows: Prepaid insurance: Insurance is the amount paid by the company to secure its assets against unforeseen events. Prepaid insurance is recorded as an asset in the company’s books of accounts. The cost of insurance is recorded as an expense in the income statement. Therefore, the adjusting entry for prepaid insurance would be made as follows: Salaries payable: Salaries payable are the amounts owed by the company to its employees.
These amounts are recorded as liabilities in the company’s books of accounts. Salaries paid to employees are recorded as expenses in the income statement. Therefore, the adjusting entry for the salaries payable would be made as follows: Deferred revenue: Deferred revenue refers to the amount received by the company in advance from its customers. This amount is recorded as a liability in the company’s books of accounts. When the services are provided or the goods are delivered, this amount is recognized as revenue in the income statement. Therefore, the adjusting entry for deferred revenue would be made as follows: Conclusion: Thus, the journal entries for supplies, prepaid insurance, salaries payable, and deferred revenue would be as follows: Supplies, Expenses, Dr 900Supplies, Current Assets, Cr 900 Prepaid Insurance, Expenses, Dr 1450Prepaid Insurance, Current Assets, Cr 1450Salaries Expenses, Dr 24000Salaries Payable, Current Liabilities, Cr 24000Deferred Revenue, Current Liabilities, Dr 2850Revenue, Cr 2850
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