1.General formula for computing a rate: (events / population) x multiplier, 2- Beds included: Inpatient beds in use,Beds excluded : Cribs, bassinets, 3. Compute Bed occupancy % for A&C: (Number of adult and pediatric patients in beds / Total adult and pediatric beds) x 100
1. The general formula for computing a rate is: (Number of events / Total population at risk) x multiplier
2. The beds included in bed counts are all inpatient beds, including medical/surgical, intensive care, obstetric, and psychiatric beds. The beds excluded are those for outpatient care, such as emergency department beds, observation beds, and procedural recovery beds.
3. To compute the bed occupancy percentage for adults and children, divide the total number of inpatient beds occupied by adults and children by the total number of inpatient beds available for adults and children and multiply by 100.
4. To compute bassinet occupancy for newborns, divide the total number of occupied bassinets by the total number of bassinets available and multiply by 100.
5. To compute the bed/bassinet turnover rate, divide the total number of patients discharged or transferred from a bed or bassinet by the total number of beds or bassinets available and multiply by 100.
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The complete question is:
Question: Hospital Occupancy Respond To The Following Learning Objectives Found In Chapter 5 Of Your Text: Identify The General Formula For Computing A Rate Identify Beds Included And Excluded In Bed Counts Explain How To Compute The Bed Occupancy Percentage For Adults And Children (A&C) Identify How To Compute Bassinet Occupancy For Newborns (NB) Explain How To
Hospital Occupancy Respond to the following learning objectives found in Chapter 5 of your text: Identify the general formula for computing a rate Identify beds included and excluded in bed counts Explain how to compute the bed occupancy percentage for adults and children (A&C) Identify how to compute bassinet occupancy for newborns (NB) Explain how to compute the bed/bassinet turnover rate In addition, search the Internet for some hospital data that depicts an example of the following types of charts: Bar chart Pie chart Line chart Comparison chart Include the link or URL address for the examples you find for each type.
Hospital Occupancy
Respond to the following learning objectives found in Chapter 5 of your text:
Identify the general formula for computing a rate
Identify beds included and excluded in bed counts
Explain how to compute the bed occupancy percentage for adults and children (A&C)
Identify how to compute bassinet occupancy for newborns (NB)
Explain how to compute the bed/bassinet turnover rate
In addition, search the Internet for some hospital data that depicts an example of the following types of charts:
Bar chart
Pie chart
Line chart
Comparison chart
Include the link or URL address for the examples you find for each type.
T/F A three-digit code is to be used only if it is not further subdivided.
A three-digit code is used only if it is not further subdivided. In various coding systems, codes can be subdivided to provide more specific information or classifications.
A three-digit code serves as a base or primary category, and if no further subdivisions are present, it is the final and complete code to be used. However, if there are subdivisions, additional digits or characters would be added to the original three-digit code to create more specific codes. In such cases, using only the three-digit code would not provide the necessary level of detail or accuracy required by the coding system. Although, A three-digit code can be further subdivided if necessary. The use of subcodes can provide more specific information within a category and allow for greater accuracy in record-keeping and data analysis. For example, the International Classification of Diseases (ICD) uses three-digit codes to classify diseases and related health problems but also includes four-digit and five-digit subcodes for greater specificity. Therefore, the use of subcodes can enhance the usefulness and effectiveness of a coding system.
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Which of the following components is NOT typically readied in setting up an IV administration set? A. drip chamber B. flow regulator C. drug or needle port D. IV needle
In setting up an IV administration set, the component that is NOT typically readied is the IV needle (D). The IV administration set typically includes a drip chamber (A), which allows for monitoring the flow rate of the fluid.
A flow regulator (B), which controls the speed of the fluid entering the patient's bloodstream; and a drug or needle port (C), which enables the addition of medications or other solutions to the IV fluid. The IV needle itself is not a part of the administration set, as it is used to establish access to the patient's vein but is then removed, and the administration set is connected to a catheter or a cannula that remains in the patient's vein during the infusion process.
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Which of the following is an advantage of MDI drug administration over SVN drug administration?
- The MDI route does not require an external oxygen source.
- The patient does not need to be conscious for MDI drug administration.
- MDI medications have no side effects.
- MDI medications do not expire.
According to the given information the correct answer is the advantage of MDI drug administration over SVN drug administration is that the patient does not need to be conscious for MDI drug administration.
MDI stands for Metered Dose Inhaler, which is a medical device used to deliver medication directly into the lungs to treat respiratory conditions such as asthma, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), and bronchitis.The administration of medication through an MDI involves the following steps:Remove the protective cap from the inhaler.Shake the inhaler well to ensure that the medication is well mixed.Exhale fully to empty the lungs.Hold the inhaler upright with the mouthpiece at the bottom and place the mouthpiece between the teeth, with the lips sealed around it.Begin to inhale slowly and deeply through the mouth, while pressing down on the canister to release one dose of the medication.Continue to inhale deeply and hold the breath for several seconds.Remove the inhaler from the mouth and exhale slowly.Wait at least 30-60 seconds before repeating the process with another dose, if required.It is important to use an MDI correctly to ensure that the medication is delivered effectively to the lungs. Incorrect use can lead to reduced effectiveness of the medication, and may also increase the risk of side effects. Patients should always consult their healthcare provider or pharmacist for guidance on how to use their specific MDI device and medication.
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Which urinary care teaching will the nurse provide to a young adult female client?-Wipe from the back to the front.-Refrain from douching unless ordered by a health care provider.-If you do not feel like voiding, still strain to make sure the bladder is empty.-Drink water more frequently in the morning and evening to facilitate hydration.
The nurse will most likely provide the urinary care teaching to a young adult female client to refrain from douching unless ordered by a health care provider.
Douching is the practice of washing or cleaning the vagina with water or other fluids. However, douching can cause several adverse effects such as altering the normal pH balance of the vagina, leading to the growth of harmful bacteria and infection. Therefore, it is recommended to avoid douching unless it is ordered by a healthcare provider for medical reasons. There are another important urinary care teaching that the nurse can also provide to a young adult female client, such as wiping from the front to the back after urination or bowel movement to prevent the spread of bacteria from the anus to the urethra, straining to empty the bladder completely to prevent urinary retention or infections, and maintaining good hydration by drinking plenty of water throughout the day.
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STARS is the way we remember our guest service recovery program. What do the letters represent? a) Service, Timeliness, Accuracy, Responsiveness, Satisfaction b) Smile, Thank, Acknowledge, Respond, Solve c) Support, Teamwork, Attitude, Respect, Service d) Sensitivity, Transparency, Accountability, Responsibility, Satisfaction
The letters in STARS represent Smile, Thank, Acknowledge, Respond, Solve. This acronym is used to help employees remember the steps to take when addressing guest service recovery.
When a guest is unhappy or dissatisfied with their experience, it's important for employees to handle the situation with transparency and responsiveness. By acknowledging the issue and responding promptly with a smile, employees can help alleviate the guest's concerns and work towards finding a solution. This approach emphasizes the importance of being proactive and taking responsibility for providing excellent customer service. Through this approach, employees can demonstrate their sensitivity to the needs and concerns of guests, and work towards achieving customer satisfaction.
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typically, preterm infants will catch up in growth by ______ of age
Typically, preterm infants will catch up in growth by the age of two years old.
This means that by the time they reach their second birthday, they are expected to have achieved a similar size and weight to their full-term peers. However, it is important to note that catching up in growth does not necessarily mean that preterm infants will have the same level of development as their full-term counterparts. They may still be at a higher risk for developmental delays, cognitive impairment, and other health issues that can affect their overall wellbeing.
Therefore, it is crucial for preterm infants to receive specialized care and interventions to ensure that they are reaching their full potential and achieving optimal health outcomes. This may include regular monitoring of growth and development, early intervention services, and close collaboration between healthcare providers and families to provide comprehensive care for these vulnerable infants.
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in coding the bmi, a coder can report the bmi without an accompanying weight-related diagnosis. group of answer choices true false
The given statement, in coding the bmi, a coder can report the bmi without an accompanying weight-related diagnosis is true because the BMI (body mass index) is a measurement of a person's weight in relation to their height and is used as an indicator of body fatness. Option a is the correct choice.
When coding the BMI (Body Mass Index), a coder can report it without an accompanying weight-related diagnosis. The BMI is a measure of body fat based on an individual's weight and height. It is used as a screening tool to identify possible weight problems in adults. The BMI is calculated by dividing the weight (in kilograms) by the height (in meters) squared. However, it is important to note that the BMI is not a diagnostic tool and does not account for factors such as muscle mass or body composition.
Therefore, it is possible for an individual to have a high BMI but not necessarily be overweight or obese. Nonetheless, the BMI can be used as a starting point for healthcare professionals to discuss weight-related issues with their patients and recommend appropriate interventions if necessary. Option a is the correct choice.
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which fetal heart tracing during labor can most likely result in fetal hypoxia and metabolic acidosis
A fetal heart tracing with late decelerations during labor can most likely result in fetal hypoxia and metabolic acidosis.
Late decelerations in fetal heart tracing occur when the fetal heart rate decreases after the peak of the contraction, indicating impaired fetal oxygenation. This can lead to fetal hypoxia, which can cause metabolic acidosis if left untreated. Metabolic acidosis occurs when there is an excessive buildup of acid in the body, which can be life-threatening if not addressed promptly.
Therefore, it is important for healthcare providers to closely monitor fetal heart tracing during labor and intervene if necessary to prevent fetal distress and adverse outcomes.
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name six types of safety hazards in the workplace and give an example of each
There are six types of safety hazards in the workplace: physical hazards, chemical hazards, biological hazards, ergonomic hazards, psychosocial hazards, and electrical hazards.
Physical hazards: These are hazards that can cause physical harm to workers. Examples include noise, vibration, temperature extremes, and radiation.
Chemical hazards: These are hazards that involve exposure to hazardous chemicals that can cause harm through inhalation, skin contact, or ingestion. Examples include acids, solvents, and pesticides.
Biological hazards: These are hazards that involve exposure to harmful biological agents such as viruses, bacteria, and fungi. Examples include bloodborne pathogens and airborne illnesses.
Ergonomic hazards: These are hazards that arise from the physical design of workstations and equipment that can cause physical strain or injury. Examples include repetitive motion injuries and lifting heavy objects.
Psychosocial hazards: These are hazards that arise from the social and organizational aspects of the workplace that can cause stress or psychological harm. Examples include workplace bullying and job insecurity.
Electrical hazards: These are hazards that arise from electrical equipment and installations that can cause electric shock or fire. Examples include faulty wiring and overloaded circuits.
Identifying and managing these types of safety hazards is crucial for maintaining a safe and healthy workplace for employees. Employers should conduct regular risk assessments, provide appropriate training and personal protective equipment, and implement appropriate control measures to mitigate these hazards.
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Patients who undergo surgery require less anesthetic when _____ is used. a. post operative medication. c. hypnosis. b. apnea. d. narcolepsy.
Patients who undergo surgery require less anesthetic when hypnosis is used. Hypnosis is a form of therapy that involves relaxation and focused attention to promote a state of heightened suggestibility.
During surgery, hypnosis can be used as a complementary technique to reduce the amount of anesthetic required, leading to a quicker recovery time and fewer side effects. The hypnotic state can help patients feel more comfortable during the procedure, reducing anxiety and stress. It can also be used to manage pain and reduce the need for opioid painkillers post-surgery. However, it is important to note that not all patients may be suitable candidates for hypnosis and it should only be performed by trained professionals. In summary, the use of hypnosis during surgery can help patients require less anesthetic, leading to a quicker recovery time and fewer side effects.
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.A nurse understands that for the parathyroid hormone to exert its effect, what must be present?
A. Decreased phosphate level
B. Adequate vitamin D level
C. Functioning thyroid gland
D. Increased calcium level
For the parathyroid hormone to exert its effect, increased calcium level must be present.
The parathyroid hormone plays a crucial role in regulating calcium levels in the body. When calcium levels in the blood are low, the parathyroid gland releases the hormone, which stimulates the release of calcium from bones, enhances calcium absorption in the gut, and reduces calcium excretion in the kidneys, all of which lead to increased calcium levels in the blood. Adequate vitamin D levels are also important for the parathyroid hormone to function properly as it helps with calcium absorption in the gut. However, decreased phosphate levels or functioning thyroid gland are not necessary for the parathyroid hormone to exert its effect.
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Commonly known as cough medicine, a(n) is administered to prevent or relieve coughing. a. analgesic b. antihistamine c. expectorant d. antitussive
The correct answer is d. antitussive.
This type of medication is specifically designed to prevent or relieve coughing. It works by suppressing the cough reflex in the brain, helping to calm the urge to cough. Commonly found in over-the-counter cough medicines, antitussives are often used to treat dry, hacking coughs that are unproductive and can cause discomfort. It is important to note that antitussives should not be used to treat coughs caused by asthma or other respiratory conditions, as these coughs are usually productive and require a different type of treatment. When using any type of medication, it is important to follow the recommended dosage and consult with a healthcare professional if you have any questions or concerns.
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Four of the five answers below are diseases caused by recessive genes. Select the exception.
a. Huntington disease
b. Phenylketonuria
c. Colorblindness
d. Hemophilia
e. Sickle cell anemia
The exception is Huntington disease, which is caused by a dominant gene.
Huntington disease is caused by a dominant gene, not a recessive gene. This means that a person only needs to inherit one copy of the mutated gene to develop the disease. Phenylketonuria (PKU) is a recessive genetic disorder that affects the body's ability to break down the amino acid phenylalanine.
Colorblindness is caused by mutations on the X chromosome, which affects how the eyes respond to different colors. Hemophilia is a rare genetic disorder that affects the body's ability to clot blood properly, and it is caused by mutations on the X chromosome. Sickle cell anemia is a genetic disorder that affects the shape of red blood cells and is caused by mutations on the HBB gene.
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If a baby was born with Gon/orrhea, it is: A. Idiopathic B. Congenital C. Iatrogenic D. Systemic.
If a baby is born with gonorrhea, it is considered congenital. Thus, option B is correct from the given four choices.
Congenital refers to a condition or disease that is present at birth, usually as a result of genetic factors, infections, or other issues that occur during pregnancy or childbirth. In the case of gonorrhea, the infection can be transmitted from an infected mother to her baby during delivery. This occurs when the baby comes into contact with the bacteria in the birth canal.
To reduce the risk of congenital gonorrhea, pregnant women should be screened for sexually transmitted infections, and appropriate treatment should be administered if necessary. Early diagnosis and treatment can help prevent complications and ensure the health of both the mother and the baby.
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what type of gloves should be worn to open drawers during a dental procedure?
During a dental procedure, it is important to wear appropriate gloves to protect both the dental professional and the patient from potential infection.
The type of gloves that should be worn to open drawers during a dental procedure are exam gloves or utility gloves, which are disposable and made of latex, nitrile, or vinyl.
Exam gloves are typically used for patient care, while utility gloves are used for cleaning and disinfecting surfaces, such as dental drawers, that may be contaminated with blood or other bodily fluids. Both types of gloves provide a barrier between the wearer and potentially infectious materials.
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the hardened deposit that forms on the teeth and irritate the surrounding tissues is known as dental
The hardened deposit that forms on the teeth and irritates the surrounding tissues is known as dental calculus or tartar.
Dental calculus or tartar is a result of mineralized plaque which is a biofilm of bacteria, minerals, and food particles that has not been removed through regular brushing and flossing.
Dental calculus is composed of hardened dental plaque that has mineralized and can only be removed by a dental professional through a process called scaling.
If left untreated, dental calculus can lead to gum disease or gum inflammation, tooth decay, and other oral health issues. Regular dental cleanings and proper oral hygiene can help prevent the formation of dental calculus.
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Which action would be most appropriate when evaluating a client's neck for thyroid enlargement?
A-inspect changes in pigmentation in the neck.
B-Perform repeated palpation of the thyroid gland.
C-Palpate the thyroid gland gently.
D-examine the skin of the neck for excessive oiliness.
Option C is Correct. Palpate the thyroid gland gently. When evaluating a client's neck for thyroid enlargement, the most appropriate action would be to palpate the thyroid gland gently.
This can help identify any enlargement or abnormalities in the gland. Inspecting changes in pigmentation, examining the skin for excessive oiliness, or performing repeated palpation may not provide accurate information regarding the thyroid gland. It's important to approach the evaluation with a gentle touch to ensure the client's comfort and safety.
Two lateral lobes of the thyroid gland are joined by an isthmus.Two lateral lobes of the thyroid gland are joined by an isthmus. A third lobe that rises from the isthmus or one of the two lobes is present in about one-third of the population.The anatomy-related language. Although, when used alone, the word cervix most frequently refers to the uterine cervix, the neck of the uterus, the Latin names cervix or collum are also used to refer to the neck in anatomy. The thyroid gland is made up of two lateral lobes that are joined together by an isthmus.
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prior to prescribing medication for attention deficity hyperativity disorder the nurse gathers information to complete a sleep history. the study reveals sleep problems. which medication would the nurse expect to be prescribed for this child?
When prescribing medication for ADHD, the nurse will consider both the attention issues and sleep problems to select an appropriate treatment option. Non-stimulant medications such as atomoxetine or guanfacine may be expected to be prescribed for a child with ADHD who also experiences sleep problems.
One medication the nurse might expect to be prescribed in this situation is a non-stimulant medication, such as atomoxetine (Strattera). Non-stimulant medications are often chosen when a child with ADHD also has sleep problems, as stimulant medications can exacerbate these issues. Atomoxetine works by increasing the levels of norepinephrine in the brain, which helps improve attention and focus, without causing sleep disturbances.
Another potential medication could be guanfacine (Intuniv), an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist. This medication helps improve attention and reduce hyperactivity, while also having a mild sedating effect that can be helpful for children with sleep problems.
It is important to note that the choice of medication depends on the specific needs of the child and the severity of their ADHD symptoms and sleep problems. The nurse will work closely with the prescribing doctor to ensure that the most appropriate medication is selected, and the child's progress will be closely monitored to make any necessary adjustments to the treatment plan.
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after two minutes of cpr you conduct another rhythm check and determine that the patient has the following rhythm palpable pulse and is showing signs of rosc how do you continue treating this patient?
If after two minutes of CPR and a subsequent rhythm check, the patient has a palpable pulse and is showing signs of respiratory effort, then the next step is to provide high-quality chest compressions and airway management.
If the patient is unresponsive and not breathing, the first step is to establish an airway by performing the head-tilt, chin-lift maneuver or use of an oral airway. Once the airway is open, ventilation should be provided using a bag-mask device or an endotracheal tube.
The patient's circulation should be maintained with appropriate fluid and blood products, as determined by the patient's clinical condition and the availability of resources. The patient should be immediately transported to a hospital for further evaluation and treatment.
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Which of the following gypsum products has the highest powder-to-water ratio?
A)Model plaster
B)Dental stone
C)High-strength stone
D)All gypsum products have the same powder-to-water ratio.
Among the given gypsum products, high-strength stone (C) typically has the highest powder-to-water ratio. Gypsum products are widely used in dentistry for making casts and models, with different types having distinct properties and applications.
A) Model plaster, also known as Type II gypsum, has a lower powder-to-water ratio, typically around 100g of powder to 30-40mL of water. This product is used for diagnostic purposes and articulating casts due to its softer nature and weaker physical properties.
B) Dental stone, or Type III gypsum, has a slightly higher powder-to-water ratio, usually around 100g of powder to 28-30mL of water. This results in a stronger and more durable product, suitable for making working casts and working models for fabricating dental prostheses.
C) High-strength stone, also known as Type IV or Type V gypsum, has the highest powder-to-water ratio among the options. This ratio is around 100g of powder to 22-25mL of water. The high ratio results in a strong, durable, and accurate material that is ideal for creating master casts, complex dental prostheses, and implant-supported restorations.
D) The statement that all gypsum products have the same powder-to-water ratio is incorrect, as different types of gypsum products have varying ratios to achieve specific properties and purposes in dentistry.
In summary, high-strength stone (C) has the highest powder-to-water ratio among the listed gypsum products, providing the strength and accuracy required for more complex dental applications.
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a client was just admitted for possible gallbladder surgery. the nurse understands which function of digestion may be impaired?
A large language model trained by Panda Chat. Based on the information provided, the client has been admitted for possible gallbladder surgery, which suggests that there may be a problem with the gallbladder's function.
The gallbladder is a small organ located under the liver that stores and concentrates bile, which is a digestive fluid produced by the liver. The bile is released into the small intestine to aid in the digestion of fats.
The function of the gallbladder that may be impaired in this case is the storage and release of bile. If the gallbladder is not functioning properly, it may not release bile at the appropriate times, leading to the inability to digest fats properly.
It is important to note that gallbladder surgery may be necessary in some cases to alleviate symptoms such as abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting, and to prevent complications such as gallstones.
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a nurse is planning care for a client who has cushing's syndrome due to chronic corticosteroid use
A. Monitoring fluid intake and output.
B. Administering foods rich in sodium.
C. Stopping corticosteroid intake once symptoms have diminished
D. All of the above
The correct answer is D. All of the above. Cushing's syndrome is a condition that occurs when the body is exposed to high levels. Corticosteroid use is one of the most common causes of this condition.
The nurse's care plan for a client with Cushing's syndrome due to chronic corticosteroid use would include monitoring the client's fluid intake and output because excess cortisol can cause fluid retention. Administering foods rich in sodium is also appropriate because cortisol can cause the body to retain sodium, leading to an increase in blood pressure. Finally, stopping corticosteroid intake once symptoms have diminished is crucial in managing Cushing's syndrome.
When the body loses excessive amounts of fluids, particularly water, which are required for regular operation, dehydration, a condition, results. Taking specific medications, not drinking enough fluids, excessive sweating, a fever, excessive urination, or severe diarrhoea and vomiting can also cause dehydration.
Homeostasis is influenced by the total volume of water in a patient's body as well as how it is divided between intracellular and extracellular spaces. Electrolytes are distributed throughout the system and maintained at various concentrations as a result of gradients created by active and permissive transport across cell membranes.
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a nurse is preparing to suction a clients tracheostomy tube. which of the following should the nurse plan to take? a. apply intermittent suction during catheter insertion b. suction the client's airway for 20 sections with each pass c. hyperoxygenation the client manually for 30 to 60 sections before suctioning d. decrease suction pressure to 150 mm hg if the oxygen saturation level drop during suctioning*
The nurse should decrease suction pressure to 150 mm Hg if the oxygen saturation level drops during suctioning. Option d is Correct.
During tracheostomy suctioning, it's important to monitor the patient's oxygen saturation levels to avoid hypoxia (low oxygen levels). If the oxygen saturation level drops during suctioning, it may indicate that the suction pressure is too high. In this case, the nurse should decrease the suction pressure to 150 mm Hg.
Intermittent suction during catheter insertion, suctioning the client's airway for 20 sections with each pass, and hyperoxygenation of the client manually for 30 to 60 sections before suctioning are not appropriate steps for suctioning a tracheostomy tube. Option d is Correct.
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which response would the nurse made after a foster parent tells the nurse their child who lost their parents in an accident expresses feelings by making sketches ?
The nurse should acknowledge, validate and offer support and resources, including counseling or therapy, to the child and foster parent.
After a non-permanent parent lets the medical caretaker know that their youngster, who lost their folks in a mishap, communicates their sentiments through making draws, the medical caretaker's reaction ought to be strong and compassionate. The medical caretaker might recognize the kid's imagination and utilization of workmanship as a type of articulation, as well as approve the youngster's feelings and the meaning of their misfortune. The medical attendant may likewise offer assets and references for guiding or treatment, which can give the kid extra devices and backing for adapting to their pain. Moreover, the medical caretaker might urge the temporary parent to keep on giving a safe and supporting climate for the youngster and to keep up with open correspondence to work with their profound mending process.
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asthma affects ____% of children between 5 and 17 years of age.
The statistics also show that asthma affects around 10.5% of children between the ages of 5 and 17. This means that roughly one in ten children in this age group has asthma, making it a prevalent condition that can have a significant impact on a child's life.
Asthma is a chronic respiratory disease that affects millions of people worldwide, and unfortunately, children are not exempted from this condition. According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), asthma affects approximately 6 million children under the age of 18 in the United States alone. That means around 8.4% of children in the country have asthma.
Asthma is a chronic inflammatory disease that affects the airways, causing them to narrow, making it difficult to breathe. Children with asthma may experience symptoms such as coughing, wheezing, chest tightness, and shortness of breath. These symptoms can be triggered by various factors, including allergens, air pollution, exercise, and respiratory infections.
It is crucial for parents and caregivers to monitor and manage their child's asthma symptoms to prevent flare-ups and reduce the risk of complications. Proper medication, regular check-ups with a healthcare provider, and lifestyle changes can help control asthma symptoms and improve a child's quality of life.
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A section of DNA that codes for a protein or other functional product is called a(n)A. codon. B. gene.C. replicon.D. anticodon.
The correct answer is B. gene.
A gene is a segment of DNA that contains the instructions for making a functional product, such as a protein or RNA molecule. These instructions are encoded in the sequence of nucleotide bases that make up the gene. The sequence of nucleotides in a gene determines the sequence of amino acids in a protein, which in turn determines the protein's function.The process of gene expression involves copying the information in the gene into RNA, which is then used as a template to build the functional product. Mutations in genes can affect the structure or function of the proteins they encode, and can lead to a variety of genetic disorders.
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A nurse is caring for a client who has hyperemesis gravidarum and receiving IV fluid replacement. What finding should the nurse report to the provider?
The nurse should report any signs of fluid overload or electrolyte imbalances to the provider when caring for a client with hyperemesis gravidarum receiving IV fluid replacement.
Hyperemesis gravidarum is a severe form of nausea and vomiting during pregnancy that can lead to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. IV fluid replacement is used to correct these issues. However, monitoring for signs of fluid overload (such as edema, shortness of breath, or crackles in the lungs) and electrolyte imbalances (such as irregular heartbeats, muscle weakness, or changes in mental status) is crucial to prevent complications.
When caring for a client with hyperemesis gravidarum receiving IV fluid replacement, the nurse should diligently monitor the client for any adverse effects and promptly report any concerning findings to the healthcare provider.
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A 54-year-old male is found pulseless and apneic on the sofa. The scene is safe. You should first:
A. Start CPR and retrieve an AED
B. Call for ALS
C. Apply oxygen
D. Call medical control
A. Start CPR and retrieve an AED
In this situation, since the person is pulseless and apneic, starting CPR (cardiopulmonary resuscitation) and retrieving an AED (automated external defibrillator) is the most appropriate first action.
It is crucial to begin life-saving measures immediately to improve the person's chances of survival.
In this scenario, the best course of action is to begin CPR and retrieve an AED as quickly as possible.
Summary: When encountering a pulseless and apneic individual, start CPR and retrieve an AED as the primary action.
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What is the correct 7th character, in ICD-10-CM, for a healing comminuted fracture of the right fibula, open, type 1? A) B B) D C) HD) E.
The correct 7th character for a healing comminuted fracture of the right fibula, open, type 1 in ICD-10-CM is "D." The 7th character is used to indicate the episode of care for the patient, and "D" is specifically used for subsequent encounters for routine healing and monitoring of fractures.
The initial encounter for this injury would use the 7th character "A," and subsequent encounters for complications or delayed healing would use "G." It is important to accurately assign the correct 7th character in order to reflect the current state of the patient's condition and to ensure proper coding and billing.
A) Initial encounter for closed fracture
B) Initial encounter for open fracture
C) Subsequent encounter for fracture with routine healing
D) Subsequent encounter for fracture with delayed healing
E) Subsequent encounter for fracture with nonunion
F) Subsequent encounter for fracture with malunion
G) Subsequent encounter for fracture with sequelae
In your case, the fracture is open and healing, so the correct 7th character to indicate an initial encounter for an open fracture is B. Keep in mind that the full ICD-10-CM code also includes additional characters to identify the specific type and location of the fracture, but for the purpose of answering your question, the 7th character is B.
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Which of the following is the longest period of gestation in which organs grow and mature? A) uterine B) embryonic C) fetal D) umbilical
The correct answer is C) fetal. Fetal development is the longest period of gestation during which organs grow and mature. During the fetal period, the developing baby is called a fetus, and its organs and tissues continue to grow, differentiate, and become functional. This is a critical time for the proper development of the organs, ensuring the fetus is well-prepared for life outside the womb.
This period typically lasts from the 9th week of pregnancy until birth. During this time, the fetus undergoes rapid growth and development, and all major organs and body systems become fully formed. The fetal stage is marked by the development of important organs such as the brain, lungs, heart, and liver, as well as the development of the nervous system, muscles, and bones. During this stage, the fetus also gains weight and size as it prepares for life outside the womb. The umbilical cord connects the fetus to the placenta, which provides the necessary nutrients and oxygen for fetal growth and development. Overall, the fetal stage is critical for the healthy development of the baby and lays the foundation for a healthy life ahead.
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