Recurve crossbows need longer limbs and barrels than compound crossbows do to deliver a longer power stroke.
What is the difference between recurve crossbow and compound crossbow?
Recurve crossbow:
Recurve crossbows don't have cables or cams, hence their designs are less complicated than those of compound crossbows. It has bigger limbs and a bigger overall barrel to give the crossbow bolt the power it needs. The recurve crossbow is consequently heavier and bigger than the compound crossbow.
Recurve crossbows get their name from the way their limb tips curve away from the shooter to give the shot extra force. Recurve crossbows have a broader bore than compound crossbows and are a little quieter.
Compound crossbow:
Although the compound crossbow has a more intricate build, it is frequently more potent than the recurve crossbow. The limbs and barrel of the compound crossbow are smaller since the limbs do not provide the majority of its power. The additional cams and wires increase the overall weight despite the fact that it is more compact.
The compound crossbow is narrower overall, but when fired, it makes more noise than the recurve crossbow. The compound crossbow's reloading speed is also quicker due to its more compact size.
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The nurse is assigned to care for a postpartum client with a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) who is prescribed anticoagulation therapy. Which statement will the nurse include when providing education to this client
The statement which a nurse should include when providing education to a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) who is prescribed anticoagulation therapy is to watch for excessive bleeding
The patient should also be educated to take medication as directedWhat is deep vein thrombosis?Deep vein thrombosis is a medical condition with a blood clot in the vein
In conclusion, the statement which a nurse should include when providing education to a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) who is prescribed anticoagulation therapy is to watch for excessive bleed and to take medication as prescribed
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When you receive a chest x-ray at a hospital, the x-rays pass through a set of parallel ribs in your chest. Do your ribs act as a diffraction grating for x-rays?.
Because the wavelength of photons with the significance of order 10 KeV is a little smaller than the spacing of particles in solids, a crystal will act as a sort of diffraction grating for an x-ray. As a crystal is three-dimensional, the diffraction requirements are more stringent than for a two-dimensional grating.
What is x-rays?X-rays use invisible electromagnetic power beams to assemble images of internal tissues, bones, and organs on film or digital media. Standard X-rays are conducted for many reasons, including analyzing tumors or bone injuries.X-rays can be utilized to examine most regions of the body. They're especially used to look at the bones and joints, although they're sometimes used to detect difficulties affecting soft tissue, such as internal organs. Situations that may be detected during an X-ray include bone fractures and breaks.The wavelength of X− rays are very small (≈A). Hence they are not diffracted using standard grating.To learn more about x-rays, refer to:
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Which mechanism leads to the development of cor pulmonale, which should serve as the basis for your response to mr. garabedian?
Right ventricular hypertrophy is the result of compensatory increased resistance to pulmonary arterial flow as the basis for your response to mr. garabedian.
What is right ventricular hypertrophy?The condition known as right ventricular hypertrophy (RVH), which is most frequently caused by severe lung illness, is an abnormal enlargement or pathologic increase in the right ventricle's muscle mass in response to pressure overload.It can cause major problems, such as cardiac failure, if left untreated. Call your doctor right away if you get any heart-related symptoms, such as chest pain, breathlessness, or swelling in your legs.Treatment options for hypertrophic cardiomyopathy-related left ventricular hypertrophy include medication, a nonsurgical technique, surgery, implanted devices, and dietary and lifestyle modifications. Medication, chemotherapy, and even a stem cell transplant are all part of the amyloidosis treatment strategy.Severe pulmonary illness is the most frequent cause of right ventricular hypertrophy. The following conditions are among those that cause secondary right ventricular hypertrophy and pulmonary hypertension.Arterial hypertension in the lungs (PAH) lung hypertension brought on by left heart disease.Learn more about right ventricular hypertrophy here:
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The primary function of the humoral, or antibody-mediated, immune response is to control freely circulating pathogens. True or false?.
It is true that the primary function of the humoral, or antibody-mediated, immune response is to control freely circulating pathogens.
What is humoral immunity?
Humoral immunity is the immunity to infection due to antibodies, which circulate in the blood and lymph, and which are produced by B cells.
Generally, immunity is the resistance of an organism to disease-causing agents or foreign substances.
However, the humoral immune system deals with antigens from pathogens that are freely circulating, or outside the infected cells.
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What common findings of pregnancy should be discussed in routine prenatal teaching?
The common findings of pregnancy which should be discussed in routine prenatal teaching are as follows:-
Common symptoms throughout the course of pregnancy like fatigue, heartburn, varicose veins, and other common problems.Dealing with back pain and other aches and pains during pregnancy.Common topics which are discussed in both one-to-one and online prenatal education include prenatal care, physical and emotional changes associated with the pregnancy, childbirth, breastfeeding, postpartum changes, parenting roles, as well as care and safety of the newborn.
Prenatal care involves nursing assessments and client education for expectant mothers.
Prenatal education covers information provided to a client who is pregnant. Important areas of focus include assisting the client in self-care of the discomforts during pregnancy, promoting a safe outcome to a pregnancy, and fostering positive feelings by the pregnant woman and her family regarding the childbearing experience.
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How is the gp120 protein important to hiv and its ability to confound the immune system?.
The gp120 protein binds to the CD4 receptor of TH cells in order to enter the cell.
What is the importance of gp120 protein to HIV?Gp120 protein of HIV is a glycoprotein found in the virus's outer envelope. It manifests as viral membrane spikes made up of three gp120 molecules joined together and fixed to the membrane by gp41 protein. The best-known and most well studied function of Gp120 in HIV infection is to enable HIV entrance into the host cell, which is crucial for viral infection. However, it is becoming more and more clear that gp120 may potentially be promoting viral persistence and maintaining HIV infection by affecting the T cell immunological response to the virus.
Numerous mechanisms could be at play in this process, but the interaction between gp120 and the CD4 receptor on T cells is the most well-known and crucial one since it makes it easier for the virus to enter CD4+ cells and causes their depletion, which is a defining feature of HIV infection. Gp120 is expelled from the viral envelope and significantly builds up in lymphoid tissues. Here, it has the potential to trigger apoptosis and significantly modify the immune system's response to the virus by tamping down the antiviral CTL response, so preventing the clearance of HIV.
I understand the question you are looking for is this:
How is the gp120 protein important to HIV and its ability to confound the immune system?
The gp120 protein has reverse transcriptase activity and is needed to replicate the genome.The gp120 protein is a protease needed to prepare the capsid.The gp120 protein binds to the CD4 receptor of TH cells to enter the cell.The gp120 protein enables HIV to insert its genome into the host DNA.Learn more about gp120 protein here:
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Cardiovascular training that involves activities lasting from more than 3 minutes to more than 20 continuous minutes would be called
Cardiovascular training that involves activities lasting from more than 3 minutes to more than 20 continuous minutes would be called
a form of exercise that is performed at a 'continuous' intensity throughout and doesn't involve any rest periods.
What is Cardiovascular training?Exercise programs that target the heart and lungs are known as cardiovascular training (CV). Cardiovascular training is the term used to describe muscle activity that makes the body require more oxygen than usual to power the workout movements. With oxygen in mind, these exercises are commonly referred to be aerobic.
By forcing the heart to beat faster during the workout, these aerobic workouts boost heart strength. For the body's muscles to receive the essential oxygen, this pace is required. Of course, the lungs must do more effort to take in enough oxygen to satisfy the body's increased need.
Aerobic training or just cardio are other names for cardiovascular training.
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Chronic alcohol intoxication, lead toxicity, and infectious diseases are possible causes of a. neuroblastoma. b. trigeminal neuralgia. c. peripheral neuritis.
Option-C Peripheral neuritis is the correct answer.
Chronic alcohol intoxication, lead toxicity, and infectious diseases are possible causes of peripheral neuritis.
What is Peripheral neuropathy or Peripheral neuritis?
Peripheral neuropathy describes the disorders that happen when the nerves that transmit signals from and to the rest of the body to and from the brain and spinal cord are injured or ill.The brain and spinal cord are linked to the muscles, skin, and internal organs through a complex network of peripheral nerves.The dermatomes are lines on the body where peripheral nerves are organized after exiting the spinal cord. Usually, when a nerve is damaged, one or more dermatomes are impacted, and these dermatomes can be traced to particular body regions. Damage to these neurons prevents the brain from communicating with other body parts, disrupts feeling in the arms and legs, and can affect muscle action. Causes of peripheral neuropathy-Environmental factors like chemicals, trauma, disease, or infection can lead to acquired neuropathies. Acquired neuropathies can be brought on by Diabetes .Several uncommon hereditary illnesses alcoholism vitamin shortage or inadequate nutrition certain cancer types and the chemotherapy used to treat them conditions in which the body's immune system damages neurons by accidentally attacking them or when it overreacts to an injury certain medicines thyroid or kidney illness.There are fewer cases of hereditary neuropathies. Peripheral nerve disorders known as hereditary neuropathies are transmitted genetically from father to kid. Type 1 Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease is the most prevalent of them. Leg and, to a lesser extent, arm weakness are its hallmarks; symptoms typically start to show between the middle of childhood and age 30. The insulation that ordinarily surrounds the nerves and aids in the conductance of the electrical impulses necessary for the nerves to induce muscular movement is degenerating, which is the underlying cause of this condition.To learn more about Peripheral neuritis click here-
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Despite their growing popularity, many complementary and alternative medicine practices remain controversial, and individuals need to be critically aware of safety issues. Group of answer choices true false
Answer:
Explanation:
I think it's true.
A patient should always be aware of what he/she puts in their mouth and swallows. You don't really know, unless you study what the "medicine" does. And you should. You can trust your doctor to know what he/she is doing, but you should know as well.
You may uncover a reaction to what you are taking especially if your doctor does not know what you are doing. That's especially true of alternate medications which may work against what is prescribed. ]
Refer to the case study at the beginning of chapter 6 in Pearson's Comprehensive Medical Assisting and use what you have learned to answer the following questions.
What errors did Susan make in preparing the injection?
What tests must be performed as a result of this needlestick?
Is Linda responsible for anything in this situation?
How would this pertain to OSHA’s Bloodborne Pathogens Standards?
Susan's errors were using non-safety needles and disposing into sharp containers, tests are HIV, Hepatitis B, and C, Linda should have used the safety needles and OSHA's standards indicate annual trainings.
What does safety needles mean?The expression 'safety needles' makes reference to the use of suitable needles for injections in clinical settings, which must full fill appropriate hygiene conditions.
Moreover, the sharps container must be exclusively used for these types of devices since the combination may lead to cross-contamination and avoidable infections.
Under OSHA's bloodborne pathogen standards employees must be trained regarding potentially infectious objects/materials.
In conclusion, the errors are associated with using non-safety needles and disposing of them in sharp containers, the tests include HIV, Hepatitis B, and C, Linda's error might be the preparation of non-safe injections and bloodborne pathogens are addressed in OSHA standards.
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It is recommended to close off areas used by ill persons and wait before beginning to clean and disinfect to minimize potential for exposure to respiratory droplets. If possible, you should wait up to ______ before beginning to clean and disinfect.
A medical emergency that involves an alcohol-dependent person suffering from confusion, disorientation, seizures, and hallucinations brought on by the reduction of alcohol intake is called?
Blood pressure in the renal glomerulus is lower than in most parts of the body in order to conserve body water. What causes water heaters to build pressure?.
The higher blood pressure and increased blood volume will enter the afferent arteriole and the glomerulus, increasing GFR. On the other hand, people who are dehydrated and have little blood volume will have a lower GFR.
What is blood pressure in kidney ?Renal hypertension, also known as renovascular hypertension, is high blood pressure brought on by the narrowing of your kidney-supplying arteries. It is also referred to as renal artery stenosis occasionally. Your kidneys react by producing a hormone that causes your blood pressure to increase because they are not receiving enough blood.
A healthy blood pressure for adults is less than 120/80 (120 over 80). For most healthy people, a blood pressure of 140/90 or more is too high. If you have diabetes or kidney disease, a blood pressure of 130/80 or more is too highLearn more about Kidney blood pressure here:
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genevieves second client appears to have a skin type that consists of normal-sized follicles, is usually free of belmishes, and primarily requires maintenance and preventative care. what is this clients skin type
The clients skin type that consists of normal-sized follicles, is usually free of blemishes and primarily requires maintenance and preventative care is normal skin type.
What are the basic skin-types?
Normal skin type is not too dry and not too oily, normal skin has no or few imperfections, no severe sensitivity, barely visible pores and a radiant complexion.Combination skin type can have pores that look larger than normal because they’re more open, blackheads, shiny skin.Dry skin type has almost invisible pores, dull rough complexion, red patches, less elastic skin, more visible lines.Oily skin type has enlarged pores, dull or shiny, thick complexion, blackheads, pimples or other blemishes.Sensitive skin type show redness, itching, burning and dryness.To learn more about skin: https://brainly.com/question/20693358
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What will happen to the urine volume if adh is not added to the collecting duct?.
The urine volume would enhance if ADH was not added to the collecting duct. This is because the ADH works on the collecting ducts where the increase permeability for water is improved, so less water is perspired into the urine, so urine evolves more concentrated.
What happens to urine volume when ADH advances?ADH improves the permeability to water of the distal serpentine tubule and collecting duct, which is normally impervious to water. This effect causes heightened water reabsorption and retention and reduces the volume of urine produced comparable to its ion content.In SIADH, the body is unable to subdue the secretion of ADH, conducting to insufficient water excretion and reduced urine output. Normally, when water is ingested, serum tonicity and osmolality reduction, and ADH are quelled, resulting in an output of dilute (less concentrated) urine.A hormone that allows blood vessels narrow and helps the kidneys control the portion of water and salt in the body. This enables the control of blood pressure and the quantity of urine that is made. Antidiuretic hormone is made by a portion of the brain called the hypothalamus and is perspired into the blood by the pituitary gland.To learn more about ADH advances, refer to:
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According to the frustration aggression theory, what would you expect to happen after Mekayla bombs her performance at the piano recital?
a. Mekayla kicks her cat.
b. Mekayla eats a sandwich.
c. Mekayla meditates.
d. Mekayla takes a nap.
Answer:
a. Mekayla kicks her cat.
Explanation:
The frustration aggression theory simply states that aggression is a result of frustration.
Obviously, Mekayla would be frustrated after bombing her piano recital and would show aggressive behavior. Eating a sandwich, meditating and taking a nap are NOT signs of aggressive behavior. Therefore, the correct option is a. Mekayla kicks her cat, which is a sign of aggression.
Maria has a terrible headache. If she takes some aspirin to make her headache go away, this would be an example of?
Maria has a terrible headache. If she takes some aspirin to make her headache go away, this would be an example of negative reinforcement.
Its a method that can be used to teach specific behaviors. In negative reinforcement something uncomfortable or unpleasant is taken away in response to stimulus. Negative reinforcement means "to take something away".Its not reinforce negative behavior.
Negative reinforcement also strengthens the likelihood of a particular response, but by removing an undesirable consequences.If you engage in an action in order to avoid a negative result. Remember negative reinforcement is to think of it as something being subtracted from situation.
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The first antipsychotic medications such as thorazine and stelazine came into widespread use in the 1950s and 1960s, and resulted in?
The first antipsychotic medications such as Thorazine and stelazine came into widespread use in the 1950s and 1960s, and resulted in a dramatic decline in the number of people who were hospitalized for mental disorders.
Thorazine (chlorpromazine), a phenothiazine anti-psychotic drug, is used to treat severe behavioral issues in children as well as psychotic diseases like schizophrenia or manic-depression. It can cure severe nausea and vomiting, behavioral issues, tetanus, blood illnesses such porphyria, and mental illness. Additionally, it can lessen pre-operative anxiety.Stela zine (trifluoperazine hydrochloride) is a phenothiazines (anti-psychotic) medicine used to treat schizophrenia and other psychotic diseases as well as anxiety.In order to treat some mental/mood disorders, medication is utilized (such as schizophrenia, psychotic disorders). Minimize and manage a variety of psychotic symptoms, such as hallucinations and delusions like paranoia and hearing voices. anxiousness as well as extreme agitation.learn more about antipsychotic medications here: https://brainly.com/question/28043530
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what is respiratory system exactly?
Answer:
The respiratory system is made up of the organs that transport oxygen throughout your body.
Explanation:
Your airways, lungs, and blood vessels work together to bring oxygen into your body and remove waste gases, such as carbon dioxide from your body.
During a collision, when the vehicle's airbag deploys, it can cause injuries to the?
Answer:
sprained fingers and wrists or other injuries on the hands
Explanation:
A transverse fracture through the distal radius with posterior angulation and overriding of the distal fracture fragment is?
Mrs. Jones brought her 22-year-old daughter Sally to see the doctor. During the assessment he discovered that she was delusional, her speech was disorganized, she exhibited alogia, and she admits to seeing and speaking to her grandmother who has been dead for five years. After trying resperidone, the doctor prescribed Thorazine. What are the extrapyriamidal side effects (EPS) of this drug
This medicine may create issues with the neurological system or muscles (extrapyramidal symptoms-EPS), such as headaches, dizziness.
What is the drug Thorazine and its side effects?This drug thorazine, commonly known as chlorpromazine, is used to treat several mental and mood disorders (such as schizophrenia, psychotic disorders, manic phase of bipolar disorder, severe behavioral problems in children). You may participate in daily life and think more clearly and calmly when you take chlorpromazine.
It can lessen aggressive actions and the urge to harm oneself or others. Hallucinations, or hearing or seeing things that are not there, may also be lessened. It functions by aiding in the reestablishment of the proper ratio of a few natural compounds in the brain. Along with helping to treat tetanus, chlorpromazine is also used to treat persistent hiccups, nausea and vomiting, restlessness before surgery, and anxiety.
Some of the side effects of thorazine include:
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Explain one (1) thing you learned from the coding guidelines for Surgery of Skull Base preceding the codes (61580-61619) in the Nervous System subsection of the CPT manual.
In your own words, summarize what you think that coding guideline (from question 1) is instructing the coder to do when assigning codes for those types of services.
Describe how you will apply that coding guideline (from question 1) when assigning codes for those types of services.
learned from the coding guidelines for Skull Base Surgery prior to codes (61580-61619) in the Nervous System subsection of the CPT manual Monitoring intracranial pressure (2.02.02.06-7): code used for assessment of intracranial pressure, which is starts from the surgical moment of the ICP catheter installation, until the daily follow-ups, for visit/day. The assessment and conduct must be described in the patient's medical record. Value/day of monitoring neurological patient. Together with the other parameters of neurointensivism, this exam is part of the multimodal assessment of neurocritical patients.
In your own words, summarize what you think the coding guideline (from question 1) is instructing the coder to do when assigning codes to these types of services.Instructs the coder to understand the processes being carried out and the current state of the patient.
With this information, we can conclude that Manual of Coding Procedures Guidelines in Neurosurgery, is fully supported by legality and ethics and in absolute accordance with the regulations of our professional and supervisory bodies, the Code of Medical Ethics and the Federal Constitution.
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Women who develop gestational diabetes have a greater risk of developing _____ later in life.
Women who develop gestational diabetes have a greater risk of developing of high blood pressure, as well as preeclampsia later in life.
Gestational diabetes occurs when your body is unable to produce enough insulin during pregnancy. Insulin is a hormone produced by your pancreas that acts as a key to allow blood sugar into your cells for use as energy.Gestational diabetes increases your risk of high blood pressure and preeclampsia, a serious pregnancy complication that causes high blood pressure and other symptoms that can endanger both your life and your baby's life.Learn more about Gestational diabetes from here:https://brainly.com/question/19286748
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When coding for labratory procedures, and neither automated nor manual are indicated, which should you choose ,and why?
The automated laboratory procedure will be selected in this scenario.
What is Medical Coding?This is defined as the transformation of medical procedures, treatment etc into numeric or alpanumeric characters.
The automated is most common today as a result of technological advancement which is why it will be chosen.
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______ are important for fat digestion and absorption because they help to emulsify lipids in chyme.
Phospholipids are important for the fat digestion and absorption because that help to emulsify lipids in chyme. When chyme is entered into the duodenum ,the hormone are trigger the release of bile, which produce in liver and stored in gallbladder.
The enzyme lingual lipase with small amount of phospholiids as a emulsifier which initiates the process of digestion and this can causes the fats to become more accessible to digestive enzymes.
Bile and phospholipids both are excreted from the bile duct into the upper small intestine or duodenum to emulsify lipids.Bile ,which is responsible for emulsification of lipids in duodenum.
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The signs and symptoms of staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome are caused by coagulase.
a. staphylokinase.
b. exfoliative toxins.
c. lipase.
d. beta-lactamase.
The signs and symptoms of staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome are caused by coagulase. which is staphylokinase, Bacterial kinases are enzymes that break down fibrin and then digest the clots formed
A. staphylokinase.What is the function of coagulase?Coagulases are bacterial enzymes capable of clotting fibrinogen present in the blood. Fibrinogen, which is a plasma protein produced by the liver, is converted by coagulase into fibrin, forming a clot.
What is the concept of bacteria?Bacteria are single-celled prokaryotic organisms that are included in the Archaea and Bacteria Domain. Bacteria are fairly simple organisms and belong, according to Whittaker's classification of five kingdoms, to the Monera Kingdom.
With this information, we can conclude that Coagulases are bacterial enzymes capable of clotting fibrinogen present in the blood.
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Short-term control; released by the duodenum and respond to food in the stomach, resulting in a decrease in appetite.
After eating, the gut releases a hormone called cholecystokinin (CCK), which promotes digestion and curbs hunger.
Is CCK an appetite suppressant?Although CCK may only be one of many satiety signals, when given exogenously at pharmacologic levels, it can result in a significant reduction in food intake. Humans' appetites can be decreased by administering exogenous CCK or endogenous CCK released by oral protease inhibitors.
What use does CCK function?The proximal small intestine contains a high concentration of CCK cells, and when food is consumed, the hormone is secreted into the blood. CCK's physiological effects include inducing satiety, regulating stomach emptying, and stimulating pancreatic secretion and gallbladder contraction.
CCK secretion: What is it?A peptide/neurotransmitter secreted by neurons of the central and peripheral nervous systems, cholecystokinin (CCK) is a hormone released by the I-cells of the upper small intestine in response to fat, protein, and some nonnutrients.
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Those who examine external forces on behavior take the side of ________, while those who focus on internal factors take the side of ________
a dispositionism; situationalism
b confirmation bias; information avoidance
c situationism; dispositionism
d attribution; internal factor analysis
Those who examine external forces on behavior take the side of situatonism , while those who focus on internal factors take the side of dispositionism. Thus, option c is correct.
What is effect on the behavior due to situtionism and dispositionism?Behavior is the combine effect of both situation i.e ( cultural effect , social roles and the presence of bystanders) and of the person i.e ( their own personality)
Situationism is the basic view that our behavior, and actions are easily predictable by our environment and surrounding.
Dispositionism is view that our behavior is predicted by internal factors. An internal factor is an allocate of a individual and includes personality and their temperament .
Therefore those who examine external forces on behavior take the side of situatonism , while those who focus on internal factors take the side of dispositionism. Thus, option c is correct.
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A common foot condition with a sudden onset of pain in the arch region that is relieved by becoming non-weight bearing and gives extreme point tenderness at the plantar surface of the calcaneus may be indicative of a:
Plantar fascia strain
It results from plantar fascia irritation, overuse, or injury. The ligament that joins the front of your foot to your heel is called the plantar fascia.
What is Plantar fascia ?An infection of the thick tissue band that runs from the heel bone to the toes.
The bottom of the foot is covered in swollen tissue.
Repetitive action or anything that puts a lot of strain on the arch of your foot might lead to plantar fasciitis. Therefore, repetitive extended durations of standing or being on your feet, along with sports like running, jogging, and walking, can frequently cause plantar fasciitis.Learn more about Plantar fascia here:
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