Answer:
Energy use can affect the ocean in a number of ways. Some of the key ways in which energy use affects the ocean include:
1. Climate Change: The burning of fossil fuels, such as coal, oil, and gas, for energy releases large amounts of carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases into the atmosphere. These gases trap heat in the Earth's atmosphere, leading to global warming and climate change. As the Earth's temperature rises, the ocean absorbs much of the excess heat, leading to ocean warming and acidification. This can have a negative impact on marine ecosystems and the organisms that live in them.
2. Ocean Acidification: The ocean absorbs a significant amount of the excess carbon dioxide released by human activities, which reacts with seawater to form carbonic acid. This process increases the acidity of the ocean, which can have negative impacts on marine organisms that rely on calcium carbonate to build shells and skeletons, such as corals and shellfish.
3. Oil and Gas Drilling: Energy production from offshore oil and gas drilling can have negative impacts on marine ecosystems, including oil spills that can harm wildlife and contaminate water.
4. Renewable Energy: While renewable energy sources such as wind, wave, and tidal power have a much smaller impact on the ocean compared to fossil fuels, there are still some potential negative impacts, such as the physical disturbance of marine habitats and the potential for collisions with marine mammals.
Overall, it is important to carefully consider the impact of energy use on the ocean, and to work towards developing sustainable and renewable energy sources that minimize harm to marine ecosystems.
mark me brilliant
Energy use can affect the ocean in a number of ways. For example, burning fossil fuels to generate electricity releases carbon dioxide into the atmosphere, which can be absorbed by the ocean and cause it to become more acidic. This can harm marine life, including coral reefs, and affect the entire ocean food chain. Energy production can also involve the discharge of heated water into the ocean, which can alter the temperature of the water and affect marine ecosystems. Finally, oil spills and other accidents associated with energy production can have devastating impacts on ocean habitats and wildlife.
Human Bones: The sacrum, a triangular bone of the lower spine, is the product of the fusion of how many vertebrae?
The sacrum is a triangular bone located in the lower part of the spine, formed by the fusion of five vertebrae.
The sacrum is located between the two wings of the pelvis in the upper, rear portion of the pelvic cavity. With four other bones, it forms joints. The ilium articulates with the two extensions on either side of the sacrum, known as the alae (wings), at the L-shaped sacroiliac joints. The sacral and coccygeal cornua connect the sacrum's lower portion with the coccyx (tailbone) and its upper portion with the last lumbar vertebra (L5).
The three surfaces of the sacrum are shaped to accommodate the nearby pelvic tissues. It is concave (curved inward) throughout. The broadest and uppermost portion of the sacrum, the base, is internally pronated forward.
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at least 20- 25% of the resting ______ normally flows through the kidney via the renal artery.
At least 20-25% of the resting cardiac output normally flows through the kidney via the renal artery.
The renal artery branches off of the abdominal aorta and supplies blood to the kidneys. The kidneys play a vital role in filtering waste and excess fluids from the blood, and this high percentage of blood flow is necessary for them to carry out their functions effectively.
It's important to note that this percentage can vary depending on factors such as hydration status and overall cardiovascular health.
So, at least 20-25% of the resting blood flow normally flows through the kidney via the renal artery.
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In pea plants, the gene for the color of the seed has two alleles. In the following Punnett square shown below, the dominant allele (Y) represents yellow and the recessive allele (y) represents green.
Punnett Square showing a grid that is blank with 4 empty boxes, two columns and two rows. The female parent plant across the horizontal side, top, of the grid indicates a yellow phenotype and a genotype of Yy. The male parent plant along the vertical side of the grid indicates a yellow phenotype and a genotype of YY.
Based on the Punnett square, what percentage of offspring would be expected to have yellow seeds?
0%
25%
50%
100%
The Punnett square data indicates that 100% of the offspring would be expected to contain yellow seeds, the correct option is (D).
The Punnett square illustrates the possible genotypes of offspring resulting from the cross between a female parent with a Yy genotype and a male parent with a YY genotype for seed color in pea plants.
The Punnett square indicates that all offspring will have a Yy genotype, meaning they will carry one dominant allele (Y) and one recessive allele (y) for seed color. Since the Y allele is dominant, all offspring will express the yellow seed color phenotype is 100%, the correct option is (D).
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The correct question is:
In pea plants, the gene for the color of the seed has two alleles. In the following Punnett square shown below, the dominant allele (Y) represents yellow and the recessive allele (y) represents green.
Punnett Square shows a grid that is blank with 4 empty boxes, two columns, and two rows. The female parent plant across the horizontal side, top, of the grid indicates a yellow phenotype and a genotype of Yy. The male parent plant along the vertical side of the grid indicates a yellow phenotype and a genotype of YY.
Based on the Punnett square, what percentage of offspring would be expected to have yellow seeds?
A) 0%
B) 25%
C) 50%
D) 100%
Answer:
100%
Explanation:
Because both phenotypes are yellow
during which stage of transcription does rna polymerase bind to the promoter?
RNA polymerase binds to the promoter during the initiation stage of transcription.
Transcription is the process of copying DNA into RNA, and it occurs in three stages: initiation, elongation, and termination. During the initiation stage, RNA polymerase binds to the promoter region of the DNA molecule. The promoter is a specific sequence of nucleotides that signals the start of a gene and helps to recruit RNA polymerase to the correct location on the DNA strand.
Once RNA polymerase is bound to the promoter, it can begin to unwind the DNA double helix and start copying the genetic information into an RNA molecule.
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RNA polymerase binds to the promoter during the Initiation stage of transcription. This binding is facilitated by transcription factors which recognize the promoter. The actual transcription process begins in the subsequent elongation step.
Explanation:RNA polymerase binds to the promoter during the Initiation stage of transcription. A promoter is a specific DNA sequence that signals the beginning of a gene. It is here that the transcription machinery, including RNA polymerase, assembles. RNA polymerase itself does not identify the promoter; rather, that task is performed by transcription factors. Once these factors have bound to the promoter, they pave the way for RNA polymerase to bind as well and begin forming the transcription initiation complex, thus kicking off the transcription process.
It's important to note that the actual transcription process - the creation of the mRNA strand from the DNA template - does not start until the RNA polymerase starts moving down the DNA strand, a step known as elongation, which comes after initiation.
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What role do auxins play in tropistic responses? PLEASE HURRY
Answer: modulates such diverse processes as tropic responses to light and gravity
Explanation:
Answer :As a critical plant hormone, auxin modulates such diverse processes as tropic responses to light and gravity, general root and shoot architecture, organ patterning, vascular development and growth in tissue culture
Explanation:
Refer to the diagram of the chromosome to answer the question that follows.
What type of mutation is shown above?
deletion
translocation
inversion
duplication
what else may happen to cause a developing duck embryo to not hatch?
Some reasons that may cause a developing duck embryo to not hatch are genetic defects, bacterial infections, and inadequate incubation conditions.
There are several factors that can cause a developing duck embryo to not hatch. One of the most common reasons is genetic defects that may cause developmental abnormalities, such as malformed beaks, wings, or legs. Bacterial infections can also be a problem, especially if the eggshell is not properly disinfected before incubation. Inadequate incubation conditions, such as low or high humidity, temperature fluctuations, or lack of ventilation, can also lead to poor embryo development and low hatchability rates. Other possible causes include poor nutrition or disease in the parent ducks, physical damage to the eggshell, and exposure to toxins or chemicals. Proper incubation management, regular monitoring, and good hygiene practices can help prevent many of these issues and increase hatchability rates.
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Science Brain Builders
FANTASTIC FOSSILS
By studying fossils, we can't learn...
a) what the animal ate
b) where the animal lived
c) the exact color of the animal
d) when the animal lived
Answer:
d) when the animal lived
Organelle that makes lipids.
Answer:
endoplasmic reticulum
Explanation:
The endoplasmic reticulum is an organelle that is responsible for the synthesis of lipids and the modification of proteins.
define innate/ nonspecific immunity vs adaptive/ specific immunity.organize the following into each category:inflammatory responsesecreting cytokinesB-Cells (briefly describe)monocytesT-Cells (briefly describe)neutrophils
Innate/nonspecific immunity is the body's first line of defense against pathogens, providing immediate but non-specific protection. Adaptive/specific immunity, on the other hand, is a slower, targeted response that provides long-term protection against specific pathogens.
Innate immunity includes the inflammatory response, and secretion of cytokines, monocytes, and neutrophils. The inflammatory response increases blood flow to the affected area, and cytokines help regulate immune responses. Monocytes are white blood cells that engulf pathogens, while neutrophils target and destroy bacteria.
Adaptive immunity involves B-cells and T-cells. B-cells produce antibodies that neutralize specific pathogens, while T-cells recognize and destroy infected cells. Both B-cells and T-cells contribute to the development of immunological memory, which provides long-lasting protection against future infections with the same pathogen.
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How can a bird or a reptile be considered a marine animal?
A bird or a reptile can be considered a marine animal if they live or spend a significant amount of time in marine environments, such as oceans, coastal regions, or estuaries.
A bird or reptile can be considered a marine animal if they primarily inhabit, depend on, or have adapted to living in oceanic or coastal environments. For example, many species of birds such as pelicans, seagulls, and puffins rely on the ocean as their primary food source and habitat. Marine birds like seagulls or albatrosses spend most of their lives near the ocean, feeding on marine organisms. Marine reptiles, such as sea turtles or marine iguanas, also rely on the ocean for food and habitat, exhibiting unique adaptations for their marine lifestyle. Similarly, some species of reptiles such as sea turtles, saltwater crocodiles, and marine iguanas are adapted to living in marine environments and depend on the ocean for their survival. Therefore, even though they are not traditionally thought of as marine animals, birds and reptiles that inhabit marine environments are considered part of the larger marine ecosystem.
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in a monohybrid cross, where you have one rr (red flower) crossed with another rr (red flower), what will be the phenotypic ratio of the offspring?
The phenotypic ratio of the offspring in a monohybrid cross between two rr (red flower) parents will always be 1:0, with 100% of the offspring having the same phenotype as the parents.
In a monohybrid cross between two individuals with the same genotype for a single trait, such as the example given with rr (red flower) crossed with rr (red flower), the phenotypic ratio of the offspring can be predicted using the Punnett square.
In this case, both parents have the homozygous recessive genotype (rr), which means that they only have the allele for red flower color. When these two individuals are crossed, all of their offspring will also inherit the rr genotype.
Since the rr genotype only produces red flowers, all of the offspring from this cross will have red flowers, resulting in a phenotypic ratio of 100% red-flowered offspring.
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discuss the factors that can affect the efficency of antiseptics and disinfectants in controlling microbial growth
The factors that can affect the efficiency of antiseptics and disinfectants in controlling microbial growth are:
Temperature, pH, Relative humidityWater hardnessTemperature, pH, relative humidity, and water hardness are other physical and chemical variables that affect disinfection processes. For instance, most disinfectants become more active as the temperature rises, although there are some exceptions. A significant health risk might also result from an excessive temperature increase since it diminishes the disinfectant's ability to kill germs and causes the disinfectant to deteriorate.
Some disinfectants, such as glutaraldehyde and quaternary ammonium compounds, have better antibacterial activity when the pH is raised, whereas phenols, hypochlorites, and iodine have less antimicrobial activity when the pH is raised. The pH affects the antibacterial action via changing the cell surface or the disinfectant molecule 413.
The action of gaseous disinfectants/sterilants like EtO, chlorine dioxide, and formaldehyde is mostly influenced by relative humidity.
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a developing animal begins as a fertilized egg, or____, that must undergo cell division to produce the new individual.
A developing animal begins as a fertilized egg, also known as a zygote, that must undergo a series of complex processes including cell division, differentiation, and morphogenesis to produce a new individual.
The zygote divides into two cells, then four, then eight, and so on, eventually forming a blastula, which is a hollow ball of cells. From there, the cells continue to divide and differentiate, forming the three germ layers (ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm) that give rise to all of the body's tissues and organs.
As the cells differentiate, they also undergo morphogenesis or the shaping of the embryo into its final form. This process involves changes in cell shape, migration, and signalling between cells, and is tightly regulated by a complex network of genes and other molecular factors. Overall, the process of development from a single fertilized egg to a fully-formed individual is a long and complex one, involving a wide range of biological processes and mechanisms.
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Why do we study lesions in animals over lesions in humans?
There are several reasons why scientists and researchers may choose to study lesions in animals over lesions in humans. One primary reason is ethical considerations.
Conducting experiments on humans can be potentially harmful, and many researchers may not feel comfortable subjecting people to invasive procedures or potentially dangerous treatments. In contrast, animal studies can be conducted with more control and without risking harm to humans.
Another reason is that animal models can be better controlled in a laboratory setting, allowing researchers to manipulate variables and study the effects of different treatments or interventions more precisely. This level of control is often not possible in human studies, which are subject to numerous confounding variables that can make it difficult to isolate the effects of specific factors.
Finally, animal studies can provide valuable insights into the underlying mechanisms of disease and injury. By studying the way lesions develop and progress in animals, researchers can gain a better understanding of the physiological and cellular processes that contribute to these conditions.
This knowledge can then be applied to human studies, helping to improve our understanding and treatment of lesions in humans.
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how is a back door front different from most other fronts
Answer:
do you have a picture or something
Explanation:
what is the naturally occurring antinutrient that is mainly associated with legumes that cause nausea, vomiting and diarrhea within 1-3 hours and also lead to organ damage with chronic exposure?
The naturally occurring antinutrient that is mainly associated with legumes and can cause nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea within 1-3 hours of consumption, as well as potential organ damage with chronic exposure, is a group of compounds called lectins.
Lectins are proteins that are found in varying amounts in many legumes, such as beans, lentils, peas, and soybeans, as well as in some other plant-based foods. They are considered antinutrients because they can interfere with nutrient absorption or cause adverse effects when consumed in large amounts or improperly prepared.
Lectins have the ability to bind to the lining of the gut and disrupt the normal functioning of the gastrointestinal tract. This can lead to symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea, which can occur shortly after consuming foods containing high levels of lectins. In some cases, lectins may also cause organ damage with chronic exposure, as they have been shown to have toxic effects on certain cells and tissues in laboratory studies.
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The system that modulates excitation and inhibition of smooth and cardiac muscles of the digestive, cardiovascular, and excretory systems is the
A) central nervous system.
B) peripheral nervous system.
C) autonomic nervous system.
D) parasympathetic nervous system.
E) sympathetic nervous system.
The system that modulates excitation and inhibition of smooth and cardiac muscles of the digestive, cardiovascular, and excretory systems is the autonomic nervous system. Therefore the correct option is option C.
The excitation and inhibition of the smooth and cardiac muscles of the digestive, cardiovascular, and excretory systems are controlled by the autonomic nervous system.
The peripheral nervous system component that the controls uncontrollable physiological processes. The sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems, which function in the opposition to each other to the modulate these activities, are further divisions of the autonomic nervous system. Therefore the correct option is option C.
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Biomechanics: Which bone is fractured most commonly, affecting all types of people, from newborns to NFL quarterbacks (most recently Nick Foles)?
The most commonly fractured bone affecting all types of people, including newborns and NFL quarterbacks like Nick Foles, is the clavicle or collarbone. The clavicle is a long, slender bone that connects the sternum (breastbone) to the scapula (shoulder blade). It plays a crucial role in supporting the shoulder and upper extremities.
The clavicle is prone to fractures due to its position and structure. It bears a significant amount of force from impacts or falls, especially in contact sports like football. A fracture can occur from a direct blow to the shoulder, a fall on an outstretched arm, or even due to an awkward landing.
When a clavicle fracture occurs, immediate symptoms include pain, swelling, and difficulty moving the affected arm. Treatment usually involves immobilization with a sling or brace, pain management, and physical therapy for a full recovery. In severe cases, surgery may be necessary to repair the fracture.
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how could genetic drift explain differences in the genotype frequencies among the caucasian and aborigine populations? see section 23.4 (page) .
Genetic drift is a random fluctuation in allele frequencies within a population.
It can occur due to chance events such as natural disasters or random mating. In the case of the caucasian and aborigine populations, genetic drift could explain differences in genotype frequencies due to their different population sizes and histories.
The caucasian population is larger and has experienced more migration and interbreeding, leading to a more diverse gene pool.
The aborigine population, on the other hand, has a smaller population size and has experienced more isolation, which increases the chances of genetic drift occurring. Over time, this could lead to differences in genotype frequencies between the two populations.
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From their formation to ejaculation, sperm cells take the following pathway: a. Seminiferous tubule, epididymis. rete testis, urethra, ejaculatory duct, ductus deferens b. Seminiferous tubule, epididymis, rete testis, ejaculatory duct, ductus deferens, urethra c. Seminiferous tubule, rete testis, epididymis, ductus deferens, ejaculatory duct, urethra d. Seminiferous tubule, rete testis, epididymis, ejaculatory duct, urethra, ductus deferens
The correct pathway for sperm cells from their formation to ejaculation is :- Seminiferous tubule, rete testis, epididymis, ductus deferens, ejaculatory duct, urethra.
The correct option is :- (c)
Sperm cells are produced in the seminiferous tubules, which are part of the testes (male reproductive organs). From the seminiferous tubules, the sperm cells move into the rete testis, which is a network of tubules that connects the seminiferous tubules to the epididymis.
From the rete testis, the sperm cells then enter the epididymis, which is a coiled tubular structure located on the surface of the testes. The epididymis is responsible for the maturation, storage, and transport of sperm cells.
After maturation in the epididymis, the sperm cells move into the ductus deferens (also known as vas deferens), which is a muscular tube that connects the epididymis to the urethra. The ductus deferens serves as the main duct for transporting mature sperm cells from the epididymis to the urethra during ejaculation.
Prior to ejaculation, the sperm cells pass through the ejaculatory duct, which is formed by the union of the ductus deferens and the seminal vesicle. The ejaculatory duct then opens into the urethra, which is the common passage for both urine and semen in males.
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HELP!’Some people see the benefit of wind energy as a clean alternative to fossil fuels for energy production. What might be a negative impact of wind power?
A. It can kill migratory birds and reduce biodiversity
B. It produces pollution
C. It is renewable
D. It reduces carbon dioxide emissions
Answer:
A. It can kill migratory birds and reduce biodiversity.
what is a speciesalso define how isolation, prezygotic mechanisms and postzygotic mechanisms are related to this.
A group of organisms that can reproduce sexually and give birth to live offspring in the wild is referred to as a species. Because it enables us to categorize and comprehend the diversity of life on Earth the concept of a species is crucial to biology.
Prezygotic and postzygotic mechanisms of isolation are essential for the emergence and maintenance of species. Postzygotic mechanisms refer to barriers that prevent the development or survival of offspring produced by interbreeding between two different species, whereas prezygotic mechanisms refer to barriers that prevent mating or fertilization from occurring.
On the other hand, postzygotic mechanisms can involve phenomena like hybrid inviability in which the offspring of two different species fail to develop normally and perish before reaching maturity. The creation and preservation of distinct species in the natural world depends on isolation and the various barriers that keep different species from mating.
Prezygotic mechanisms can take the form of isolation due to geography, variations in reproductive anatomy or mating habits, or variations in breeding season.
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Marine fishes usually do not survive in freshwater because of _________.
Answer:
the effects of osmotic pressure.
Explanation:
Marine fishes usually do not survive in freshwater because of the effects of osmotic pressure.
Marine fishes usually do not survive in freshwater because of osmoregulatory challenges.
Because seawater contains more salt than their bodies do, marine fish have adapted to exist in a hypertonic environment. Freshwater, in comparison, is hypotonic, which means that the salt content is lower than in a fish's body.
In order to maintain their internal salt balance, freshwater fish must continuously consume water and actively eliminate salt, which poses the opposite issue for them.
The converse issue affects marine fish in freshwater; they lose salt to the environment and consume too much water, which can cause osmotic stress and eventually death.
As a result, the majority of marine fishes cannot endure prolonged survival in freshwater conditions.
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what is the complement system? is this a specific or nonspecific response?what is a classical vs alternative pathway
A complement system is a group of proteins that are part of the immune system and function to identify and eliminate pathogens. This is a nonspecific response as it does not specifically target a particular pathogen but rather any foreign substance.
There are two pathways that can activate the complement system: the classical and alternative pathways. The classical pathway is activated by antibodies binding to a pathogen, while the alternative pathway is activated by the presence of certain molecules on the surface of the pathogen.
Both pathways ultimately lead to the formation of a membrane attack complex, which can directly lyse the pathogen's cell membrane or make it more susceptible to phagocytosis by immune cells. Additionally, the complement system can stimulate inflammation and attract immune cells to the site of infection.
Overall, the complement system plays a crucial role in our immune response to infections.
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What is the formula for the edge length of the body-centered cubic unit cell based on the radius, r, of the atom?
The formula for the edge length of the body-centered cubic unit cell based on the radius, r, of the atom is given by:
a = 4√(2) r/3
where "a" is the edge length of the unit cell. This formula can be derived by considering the geometry of the body-centered cubic lattice and the size of the atoms occupying the lattice. Essentially, the edge length must be large enough to accommodate the size of the atoms while maintaining the overall symmetry of the lattice structure. By using the radius of the atom, we can calculate the appropriate edge length to achieve this balance.
Atoms are arranged in a cube with one atom in the centre and one atom in each of the four corners to form a body-centered cubic unit cell structure. The atom is shared by eight more unit cells at the cube's corners. The size of each corner atom is therefore one-eighth of an atom.
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if you also did this experiment using emb plates, would you expect more colonies on the na or the emb plates? explain your answer.
Because NA plates are more likely to have more colonies than EMB plates when cultivating a chicken fluid sample, EMB plates are used to discover gram-negative bacteria of the Enterobacteriaceae family that can cause human sickness.
Eosin Methylene Blue agar plates, often known as EMB plates, are a popular selective and differential media for the isolation and identification of gram-negative bacteria, especially those from the family Enterobacteriaceae.
Eosin and methylene blue dyes, which are present in EMB plates, prevent gram-positive bacteria from growing while permitting gram-negative bacteria to do so. Lactose-fermenting bacteria generate dark colonies with a metallic green sheen, whereas non-fermenting bacteria produce pale colonies without the sheen. The dyes also distinguish between lactose fermenters and non-fermenters.
It is predicted that more colonies will grow on the NA plate than the EMB plate if a chicken fluid sample were cultured using both NA (Nutrient Agar) and EMB plates.
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Complete question - What type of bacteria could you identify by using the EMB plates, and why would these bacteria be of concern for human health?
If you also did this (chicken fluid sample) using EMB plates, would you expect more colonies on the NA or the EMB plates? Explain your answer.
the process and products of microbial metal metabolism can be beneficial or harmful to humans and the environment. bacteria of the genus geobacter can convert the uranium containing uo22 , which is soluble, to the insoluble uo2. this conversion is most likely an example of which of the following? choose one: a. bioremediation of uranium contamination b. colimitation by uranium and oxygen c. contamination with radioactive uranium d. assimilation of uranium into biomass
Bacteria of the genus Geobacter can convert the uranium is and example of bioremediation of uranium contamination, option A.
A genus of bacteria is called Geobacter. Anaerobic respiration bacterial species called Geobacter species have properties that make them effective in bioremediation.
It was discovered that Geobacter was the first organism capable of utilising iron oxide or other readily accessible metals as electron acceptors to oxidise organic molecules and metals, including iron, radioactive metals, and petroleum chemicals, into ecologically benign carbon dioxide. It has been discovered that Geobacter species may breathe on a graphite electrode. Soils and aquatic sediment have both been discovered to contain them in anaerobic circumstances.
Geobacter has been employed in the environmental cleanup of subsurface petroleum spills and for the precipitation of uranium out of groundwater because of its capacity to devour oil-based contaminants and radioactive substances with carbon dioxide as a waste byproduct. By forming electrically conductive pili between itself and the polluting material and utilising it as an electron source, Geobacter degrades the substance.
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What do you mean by symbiotic relationship? Explain by giving examples?
Answer: Its relationship among two different species depending on each other for their survival
Ex. Lichens - Its a symbiotic association between algae & fungi.
Explanation:
which of these statements concerning the glossopharyngeal nerve is incorrect?
The statement that is incorrect concerning the glossopharyngeal nerve is: The pre- and postganglionic fibers synapse in the otic ganglion. The answer is C)
The glossopharyngeal nerve is the ninth cranial nerve and is responsible for the sensation and taste in the posterior third of the tongue, the secretion of the parotid gland, and the general sensory information from the pharynx and posterior third of the tongue.
The preganglionic fibers that stimulate the parotid gland originate in the inferior salivatory nucleus of the medulla oblongata and travel in the glossopharyngeal nerve. They then synapse in the otic ganglion, where the postganglionic fibers arise and travel to the parotid gland to stimulate its secretion.
Therefore, statements A) and B) are correct, and statement D) is also correct as the stimulation of the glossopharyngeal nerve does induce secretion from the parotid gland.
However, statement C) is incorrect as the pre- and postganglionic fibers do not synapse in the otic ganglion; only the postganglionic fibers arise from this ganglion.
The complete question is:
Which of these statements concerning the glossopharyngeal nerve is incorrect?
A) The preganglionic fibers originate in the inferior salivatory nucleus.
B) The pre- and postganglionic fibers travel in this nerve.
C) The pre- and postganglionic fibers synapse in the otic ganglion.
D) Stimulation induces secretion from the parotid gland.
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