How does natural selection explain why some organisms are more likely to survive and reproduce than other organisms?.

Answers

Answer 1

In natural choice, genetic mutations which might be beneficial to an individual's survival are surpassed via reproduction. This affects a new generation of organisms.

The concept of natural choice is that developments that can be passed down allow organisms to evolve to the surroundings higher than other organisms of the equal species. This permits higher survival and duplication in comparison with different participants of the species, main to evolution.

The hat is more likely to survive to breed. people with adaptive traits—developments that deliver them some benefit—are more likely to live to tell the tale and reproduce. those people then skip the adaptive trends directly to their offspring. over time, these tremendous traits end up more common inside the population.

Due to the fact assets are restricted, more organisms are born than can live on: a few individuals could be extra a hit at finding food, mating or averting predators and could have a higher chance to thrive, reproduce, and skip on, their DNA.

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Related Questions

How does smoking damage the lungs GCSE?.

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Smoking harms the bronchioles and can eventually cause the loss of many lung alveoli.

The lining of arteries, notably the coronary arteries, is harmed by smoking. The injury promotes fatty material accumulation in the arteries. An attack on the heart or stroke may result from this. The amount of oxygen that the blood can carry is decreased by the inhalation of carbon monoxide found in cigarette smoke. Smoking cigarettes causes the heart to work harder because nicotine speeds up heart rate. It is possible for someone to get illnesses like emphysema. mucus, which typically traps particles in the lungs, builds up when the airways swell. Mucus is frequently infected, and injured alveoli lose some of their flexibility and surface area.

Hence, smoking is injurious to health.

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this process is used to record the electrical activity of the brain through the use of electrodes attached to the scalp:

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An electroencephalogram (EEG) is a test that uses tiny, metal discs (electrodes) connected to the scalp to assess electrical activity in the brain.

Which phrase describes the procedure for capturing brain electrical activity?

a documentation of brain activity electrically. It is created by attaching electrodes to the scalp, the skin that covers the top of the head, and sending electrical impulses to a specialised device. The diagnosis of brain and sleep disorders may be made with an EEG. termed an electroencephalogram as well.

Which of the following phrases describes the process of logging brain electrical activity, according to this quiz?

Echoencephalography is the procedure of using electrodes affixed to the scalp to capture the electrical activity of the brain.

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If transcription and translation were not coupled in bacteria, what type of regulation would be affected?.

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Attenuative gene regulation would not be conceivable in bacteria if transcription and translation were not linked. By attaching to it, a certain protein (a repressor) can stop transcription from occurring.

If transcription and translation were not connected in bacteria, gene control through attenuation would not occur.

Premature transcription termination is caused by attenuation, a suggested mechanism of regulation in some bacterial operons. In conditions of high tryptophan, attenuation is a process that also decreases the expression of the trp operon.

The physical separation of the chromosomal DNA from the cytosolic environment in the absence of the nuclear membrane, however, can lead to the idea that transcription and translation in bacteria and archaea are temporally connected.

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some pathogens, such as hiv, can be transmitted both vertically and horizontally. how do you expect their virulence to compare with that of pathogens that are transmitted only horizontally or only vertically?

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Some pathogens are transmitted by a single route and others by several, the more transmission routes are recorded, the more pathogens they are, in the HIV virus the transmission is vertical and horizontal therefore it has high pathogenicity, on the other hand, the varicella virus is transmitted only by inhalation.

What do you mean by HIV?

HIV is the virus that causes AIDS. It damages your immune system, making it easier for you to get sick. HIV is spread during sex, but condoms can help protect you.

HIV stands for Human Immunodeficiency Virus. It’s a virus that breaks down certain cells in your immune system (your body’s defense against diseases that helps you stay healthy). When HIV damages your immune system, it’s easier to get really sick and even die from infections that your body could normally fight off.

This is because, The vertical route is the transmission through childbirth, it is the moment in which the mother contacts the child's blood and transmits the virus, nowadays the vertical contagion of HIV is highly controlled.

On the other hand, the horizontal route is also called parenteral, it is one that consists of the inoculation of the virus through uncontrolled blood transfusions, intravenous drug addiction by syringe compartment, or uncontrolled injections.

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one morphological feature of modern cetaceans is a vestigial pelvic girdle. if it is determined that cetacean lineage diverged from the artiodactyls' lineage after the divergence of pigs and other artiodactyla, then what should be true of the vestigial pelvic girdle of cetaceans?

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It should be considered a shared derived character of the Cetacens.

What do you mean by Cetacens ?

Cetacens can be defined as an infraorder of aquatic mammals that includes whales, dolphins, and porpoises. The Characteristics include : fully aquatic lifestyle, streamlined body shape, often large size and exclusively carnivorous dietThey are separated into two groups: toothed and baleen whales. It should be considered a shared derived character of the cetaceans.They  are an order of mammals that originated about 50 million years ago in the Eocene epoch.

This is how the characteristics can be determined.

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plasmids containing which combination of operator and promoter allow activation of gene expression in response to an added metabolite?

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By turning on the so-called transcription factors, a class of DNA-binding proteins, signal transduction starts the transcription process.

The pace at which a gene is transcribed—the process by which RNA polymerase creates a messenger RNA—controls the majority of a gene's activity.

Which two procedures impact gene expression?

The two main procedures are transcription and translation. Gene expression is the result of both transcription and translation. The information contained in a gene's DNA is transferred to RNA (ribonucleic acid), a molecule comparable to DNA, in the cell nucleus during transcription.

Activators of transcription factors increase a gene's transcription. Transcriptional activity is suppressed. A gene can be turned on in particular body regions via clusters of enhancers, or transcription factor binding sites.

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What larynx is called in the human body?.

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The larynx in the human body is called as Voice Box.

The larynx is a hollow tube which is connected to the pharynx, also called throat which is in turn connected to the whole body. Larynx helps to swallow smoothly and it also contains vocal chords. These vocal chords vibrate which helps humans to speak through voice created by the vibrations.

Furthermore, larynx is also involved in other functions such as breathing, producing sound and protecting the trachea. This larynx contains three parts in its cavity called as vestibule, the middle, and the infraglottic space. Vestibule is the upper portion of the cavity followed by the middle and infraglottic.

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Hom many chromoome would each new cell have after a human body cell divide by mitoi? i the new cell haploid or diploid

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In humans, mitosis often results in two diploid cells. Since a diploid cell has both sets of homologous chromosomes, each of the two produced cells has the identical set of chromosomes as the parent.

The cell has two 46-chromosome groups when mitosis is finished, each encased in its own nuclear membrane. The cell then divides in two by a process known as cytokinesis, producing two clones of the original cell, each with 46 monovalent chromosomes.

A typical diploid human cell has 23 pairs of chromosomes, for a total of 46 chromosomes, half of which are of paternal and maternal descent. Haploid gametes with a single set of 23 chromosomes are created during meiosis.

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major histocompatibility complexes (mhcs) are produced in the cell membranes of phagocytic cells of the immune system. what are mhcs made from?

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MHC molecules are glycoproteins that are found linked to cells and help the immune system distinguish between self-antigens and foreign antigens.

Almost every cell contains MHC class I molecules, which enable T cells to keep an eye out for pathogen by monitoring the antigens inside the cell. In contrast, MHC class II molecules enable the immune system to react to antigens outside the cell. The purpose of MHC molecules is to bind and display pathogen-derived peptide fragments on the cell surface for recognition by the proper T lymphocytes.

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the proccess of meiosis produces: question 2 options: 2 genetically identical daughter cells 4 genetically identical daughter cells 2 geneticall different daughter cells 4 genetically different daughter cells

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Chromosomes cross across during prophase 1 of meiosis. The four daughter cells that are produced at the conclusion of meiosis are genetically different as a result of this process.

In meiosis, are there two or four daughter cells?

Two identical daughter cells are produced during mitosis, and both of these cells have the same amount of chromosomes as their parent cell. But during meiosis, four distinct daughter cells are produced, each of which contains half as many chromosomes as the parent cell.

What is the result of meiosis?

Meiosis is a type of cell division that results in the formation of four gamete cells and a halving of the parent cell's chromosome count. In order to reproduce sexually, egg and sperm cells must be produced.

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the nucleocapsid is composed of multiple choice dna and rna and protein. dna or rna, and protein. protein located in the nucleus. nucleic acid in the ribosome. dna or rna, lipid, and protein.

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The nucleocapsid is composed of DNA or RNA and protein.

In the cytoplasm, nucleocapsid assembly takes place. N, P, and L proteins, along with genomic RNA, make up the nucleocapsid. M is contacted by the nucleocapsid as it moves to the plasma membrane. Viruses emerge from the PM. Until extracellular, trypsin-like proteases cleave F0, virus particles containing the uncleaved form of the protein are not infectious.

Remember that the hydrophobic fusion peptide at the N-terminus of F2 is released during F cleavage, which is an essential maturation step for fusion to an uninfected cell.

The amino acid sequence at the cleavage site determines where in the cell the F cleavage occurs.

The F proteins of the measles and canine distemper viruses are cleaved in the ER/Golgi by cathepsin- or furin-like proteases. Thus, the infected animal is susceptible to these viruses in a variety of tissues.

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downy hair similar to peach fuzz that grows on the body to counteract the heat loss associated with a lack of insulating subcutaneous fat is/are called: group of answer choices endorphins lanugo amenorrhea hypothyroidism

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Lanugo is called downy hair similar to peach fuzz that grows on the body to counteract the heat loss associated with a lack of insulating subcutaneous fat develops by the end of 16 weeks of the fetus's development.

Some babies have lanugo, which is body hair. The earliest type of hair to emerge from hair follicles is this unpigmented, downy hair. Except for the palms, lips, and bottoms of the feet, it can be found everywhere over a baby's body. Around the fourth or fifth month of pregnancy, most fetuses start to develop lanugo.

On the bodies of human embryos as they develop in the womb, lanugo, a type of fine hair, grows. When vellus hairs take their place, either at birth or soon after, these hairs vanish. Although thicker than lanugo hairs, vellus hairs are also naturally thin and translucent.

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when a light is shone into the pupil

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When a light is shone into the pupil it should become smaller in size.

What is pupil?

The pupil can be described as the round opening  that can be seen in  the center of the iris  which is the colored tissue that is "eye color" and is located to the front of the eye however it posse the characteristics of changing size  when there is entering of light into the eye.

It should be noted that In the light reflex, the pupils can be seen to experience the constriction when light is been shone on the retina, however in a case whereby one eye only is stimulated,then the  two pupils will experience constriction, which canm be described as the  consensual reflex, though the afferents are optic nerve fibres  that can be seen to travel to both pretectal nuclei which go across the posterior commissure.

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complete question

When a light is shone into the pupil ----------------------------

which of the following does not introduce dna into a bacterial cell? multiple choice transcription conjugation transduction transformation all of these introduce dna into a cell.

Answers

a)Transcription is not used to introduce DNA into a bacterial cell.

Bacterial transcription is the process by which the RNA polymerase enzyme copies a section of bacterial DNA into a freshly generated strand of messenger RNA (mRNA).

There are various ways that bacterial transcription is different from eukaryotic transcription. While transcription and translation can both happen at the same time in bacteria, in eukaryotes, transcription takes place in the nucleus and translation happens in the cytoplasm. [14] In contrast to the three varieties seen in eukaryotes, bacteria have just one type of RNA polymerase.

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After gel electrophoresis is complete for a crime scene sample, what must be done in order to analyze the results?.

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Answer:  After the electrophoresis is complete, REMOVE the gel and casting tray from the electrophoresis chamber and VISUALIZE the results. No staining is necessary.

which answer choice correctly matches the horizon name with its composition? elimination tool select one answer a e horizon - this is called the bedrock layer. this is the parent material for the soil. b c horizon - this layer contains some mineral components with a large amount of organic material. c a horizon - this is called the topsoil. this is where seeds germinate, and worms and nematodes are likely to live. d b horizon - this is called the organic layer. this is where dead leaves and other detritus accumulate and form a nutrient rich layer. this incorporates into the soil as substances are broken down through decomposition and are carried into the soil.

Answers

The bedrock layer is located at the e horizon. This is the soil's original constituent material. A layer of mineral or organic soil material that is roughly parallel to the land surface is known as a soil horizon.

Which of the following statements most accurately sums up the makeup of the Earth's atmosphere?

About 78% of the gases in the Earth's atmosphere are nitrogen, 21% are oxygen, 0.9 % are argon, and 0.1 % are other gases. trace amounts of water, methane, and carbon dioxide

Which of the following statements most accurately sums up an upwelling's water?

Which of the following statements is accurate regarding the waters in an upwelling area. This region is chilly and nutrient-rich because, periodically (often in the spring), water from the body's bottom is pulled up to mingle with the surface water.

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What tool do geneticists use to determine the mathematical probability of the potential combinations of genotypes that can occur in offspring, given the genotypes of the parents?.

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A Punnett Square is a tool that uses the genotypes of the parents to predict the probability of the possible phenotypes of their offspring.

The outward manifestations of desired traits are known as phenotypes. Phenotypes are the traits that result from the expression of genotypes.

Phenotypes also show the morphology or physiology that results from the presence of an allele combination.

In order to more systematically and precisely show phenotype in relation to genotype, scientists and individuals alike frequently draw a Punnett square.

This kind of tool is the most reliable and accurate. As a result of the successful fusing of the parental gametes, it also discloses the likelihood of the potential phenotypes of the offspring.

A Punnett Square, then, is a tool for estimating the likelihood of potential phenotypes in offspring based on the genotypes of the parents.

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a organ systems have been removed from the concept map allowed in the place of each organ system dragon drop major organ or tissue comprising the system

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The neurological and endocrine systems regulate several bodily processes. Chemical messengers are used by these two regulatory systems to influence the operation of other organ systems and to synchronize activity across the body.

How are the various organ systems distinguished from one another?

An organ system is a collection of organs that collaborate to carry out a certain function, whereas an organ is made up of a set of tissues that work together to support the overall function of the organ.

Is it conceivable for a single organ to belong to several organ systems?

Some organs are a part of multiple systems. For instance, the nose functions as both a sensory organ and part of the breathing system.

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How is the coordinated transcription of all the genes involved in a particular metabolic pathway brought about in eukaryotes?.

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The genes all have the same combination of control elements in their enhancers is how  the coordinated transcription of all the genes involved in a particular metabolic pathway brought  is about in eukaryotes .

A fundamental concept in the regulation of gene expression in eukaryotes is the coordination of transcription and RNA processing. In the case of mRNA, coordination is primarily based on a co-transcriptional processing mechanism in which a developing precursor mRNA is matured by the transcription apparatus through cleavage and modification. The biosynthesis of rRNA is controlled by a similar process. However, it is still unclear how the transcription and processing of the relatively short tRNA transcript are coordinated. Human RNA polymerase III high molecular weight initiation complexes assemble on tRNA genes and convert precursor transcripts into mature forms. The removal of the 5' leader of the precursor tRNA by RNase P is one example of the co-transcriptional processing that these multifunctional initiation complexes might facilitate.

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A typical human cell expresses about what portion of its protein-coding genes at any given time?.

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A typical human cell expresses about 20% portion of its protein-coding genes at any given time.

What are Protein-coding genes ?

DNA sequences that are translated into mRNA and from which the appropriate mRNA molecules are translated into polypeptide chains are known as protein-coding sequences. In a protein coding sequence, known as a codon, one amino acid in the polypeptide chain is encoded every three nucleotides.

The bulk of RNA sequences come from protein-coding genes, according to the conventional theory. They are translated into messenger RNAs (mRNAs), which are then exported to the cytoplasm and translated into proteins.

In mRNA, each trio of nucleotides is referred to as a codon, and each codon designates a specific amino acid (hence, it is a triplet code). Thus, the chain of amino acids that makes up a protein is assembled in order using the mRNA sequence as a template.

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What hormone is responsible for the fight or flight response in the alarm stage of a stress response?.

Answers

Answer: The correct answer is adrenaline.

Explanation: I hope this helps!!! : D

true or false? changes in our diet are accompanied by changes in the composition of our gut microbes, suggesting that our microbial populations are influenced by both environmental and genetic factors.

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As stated in the above sentence, "changes in our food are accompanied by changes in the composition of our gut bacteria, demonstrating that our microbial populations are influenced by both environmental and genetic variables" is true.

Gut Microbiota:

Numerous pieces of evidence point to the gut microbiota's potential role in the emergence of obesity and its related comorbidities. It has been noted that the gut microbiota of obese and lean individuals differs, indicating that microbiome dysbiosis may be a factor in changes in body weight. Uncertainty exists regarding the exact processes by which the gut bacteria contributes to energy balance. Different dietary and lifestyle choices can have a beneficial or detrimental impact on the gut microbiota. It's interesting to note that complicated connections between nutrition, gut flora, and genetic makeup have also been linked to the likelihood of acquiring obesity and metabolic syndrome symptoms. Additionally, microbial metabolites have the ability to cause epigenetic alterations (such as adjustments to micro-RNA expression and DNA methylation), which may have an impact on one's health and susceptibility to obesity.

Additionally, microbial byproducts such membrane proteins or short-chain fatty acids may influence host metabolism by controlling hunger, lipogenesis, gluconeogenesis, inflammation, and other processes. In order to find new postbiotics with biological activity in the host and identify new targets and tools for inclusion in individualized therapeutics, metabolomic methods are being explored.

Therefore, Our gut microorganisms' makeup fluctuates along with changes in our food, indicating that environmental and genetic variables affect our microbial populations.

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which one of the following cells are the product of meiosis? group of answer choices bacterial cells blood stem cells sperm cells liver cells all of thesea) sperm cellsb) liver cellsc) red blood cellsd) all of the above

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sperm cells are the product of meiosis whereas liver cells, red blood cells are the product if mitosis.

What is meiosis?

In sexually reproducing organisms, meiosis is the process of a unique type of cell division of germ cells that results in the production of gametes, such as sperm or egg cells. Two rounds of division are necessary, and the end product is four cells with just one copy of each chromosome.

What is mitosis?

Chromosomes that have been duplicated are divided into two new nuclei during the cell cycle phase known as mitosis. Mitosis, the process of cell division, creates genetically identical cells with a constant number of chromosomes. Thus, equational division is another name for mitosis.

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On the lines provided, enter the name of the target organ(s) affected by the pituitary hormone indicated. Hypothalamic nerve call Posterior pituitary Anterior pituitary Growth hormone (GH) 10 Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) Thyroid- stimulating hormone (TSH) Oxytocin (OCT) Prolactin (PRL) Gonadotropic hormones (FSH, LH) Melanocyte stimulating hgfa (MSH)

Answers

Produced by the anterior pituitary. It's regarded as a tropical hormone. Target cells are impacted by tropical hormones indirectly after being stimulated.

The anterior pituitary gland affects which organs?

The following organs, glands, and bodily tissues are affected by and interact with the anterior pituitary hormones: organs, muscles, and bones the growth hormone (GH). Adrenocorticotropic hormone: Adrenal gland (ACTH). thyroid hormone, which stimulates the thyroid gland (TSH).

What are the anterior pituitary gland's seven hormones?

Frontal pituitary

hormone adrenocorticotrophic (ACTH)

hormone that stimulates the thyroid (TSH)

Luteinizing agent (LH)

hormone that stimulates ovulation (FSH)

Prolactin (PRL) (PRL)

hormonal growth (GH)

MSH, or melanocytic-stimulating hormone

Because it releases hormones that regulate the thyroid, adrenal glands, ovaries, and testes, the pituitary gland is frequently referred to as the "master gland."

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1 eq br2 acetic acid draw the structure(s) of the major organic product(s) of the following reaction.

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Br2 = +1 eq. acetic acid. The concept of stereochemistry is not required. Draw each significant product that is conceivable, if there are any. For each of the following reactions, identify the main organic product. (Minor or inorganic side products don't necessarily need to be drawn.) Br2. Br + NaOH + hv.

What does food acetic acid do?

Vinegar, which includes 4 to 18% acetic acid, is primarily made up of acetic acid. It serves as a food ingredient and preservative (known as E260)

What are the adverse effects of acetic acid?

The most frequent adverse reactions to acetic acid are moderate stinging or burning at first use.

Serious adverse reactions from acetic acid can include hives, breathing problems, and facial swelling.

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the arteries that branch from the aorta and provide oxygenated blood to the heart muscle itself are arteries. the arteries that branch from the aorta and provide oxygenated blood to the heart muscle itself are arteries. pulmonary capillary coronary systemic

Answers

Blood is delivered to your heart through the right and

left coronary arteries. They are the first arteries to branch off your body's major artery, the aorta.

Your heart muscle is surrounded by and contains your coronary arteries. They diverge from your aorta, the principal artery in your body. They begin at the aortic root, which is the first section of your aorta to leave your heart's left ventricle. Your heart's left ventricle is where oxygenated blood exits and begins to travel through your body. Your aorta has many branches, the coronary artery branches being the first.

cardiovascular artery anatomy

Two coronary arteries exist, and each has a number of branches:RCA: Right coronary artery Blood is delivered to your right atrium and right ventricle by the RCA (where deoxygenated blood goes before heading to the lungs). Its branches feed the atrioventricular (AV) and sinoatrial (SA) nodes.

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Why is it important for citizens to vote?.

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Voting by the citizens of a country is essential because it gives citizens a chance to choose their government leaders, it allows them to voice their opinions on the public issues and also makes them realize the importance and power of their citizenship.

Voting is the process where a group of people raise their opinion, make a collective decision and express their point of view in the form of a decision or a representative or leader.

Government is the group of officials who are involved in running a country systematically. It is the authority that sets some rules for the country in order to make it organized. A government usually consists of legislature, executive, and judiciary.

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The definition of a ______ is a population whose members can interbreed and produce fertile offspring.

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A species is a group of organisms that have the ability to interbreed or mate with one another and produce viable, fertile offspring.

What are Species?

A species is a members of populations that actually or potentially interbreed in nature, not on the basis of physical similarity.

The concept of biological species is widely used in biology and related fields of study. There are over 20 different species concepts.

The designation of species stems from taxonomy, where the species is recognized as the fundamental unit of classification by the International Commission of Zoological Nomenclature.

Every species is given a standard two-part name consisting of genus and species. The genus is the generic name for closely related species; for example, the gray wolf is classified as Canis lupus and is a close relative of the North American coyote.

Organisms are classified into species based on morphological, or external, similarities, but the ability of sexually reproducing organisms to successfully interbreed is more important.

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All of the following cell components are found in prokaryotic cells EXCEPT
a. DNA
b. ribosomes
c. cell membrane
d. nuclear envelope
e. enzymes
d. nuclear envelope

Answers

With the exception of the nuclear envelope, prokaryotic cells have all of the following cell components.

What cellular elements are found in all prokaryotic cells?

All prokaryotes lack membrane-bound organelles but do have cytoplasm, ribosomes, a cell wall, and DNA. Polysaccharide capsules are also common. Diameters of prokaryotic cells range from 0.1 to 5.0 m.

Are prokaryotic cells DNA-based?

A free-floating, typically circular chromosome that is not protected by a nuclear membrane is seen in prokaryotic organisms, including bacteria. The nucleoid, a part of the cell, is where the DNA merely resides. Only prokaryotic cells have mesosomes, which are folded portions of the plasma membrane.

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Answer:

Nuclear envelope

Explanation:

Simpler answer to the one above.↑↑↑

What is the relationship between meiosis and genetic variation?.

Answers

The relationship between these two is Genetic variation is increased by meiosis.

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Cici firmly believes that every child deserves a loving parent. She becomes a foster parent because she knows that it is the right thing to do. Cici becomes a foster parent because of________ motivation.A. extraB. extrinsicC. instinctD. intrinsicD. intrinsicintrinsic (arising from internal factors)- autonomy (self-rule, self-government)- mastery- Purpose BBQ Corp. had a 3:1 stock split ratio. Pre-split the company had 1.35 Million outstanding shares at a price of $72.45 per share.What is the post-split market capitalization of BBQ corp.? What do Plessy v. Ferguson and Brown v Board of Education have in common?. suppose a[1], a[2], a[3], , a[n] is a one-dimensional array and n > 50. (a) how many elements are in the array? Microscope differential count Complete the following steps: Focus slide at 4x using the coarse focus, then the fine focus MICROSCOPE CONTROLS Rotate 40X nosepiece Coarse focus Fine focus SLIDE POSITION -1227 Turn objective to 10x and focus again al- Stage horizontal Stage vertical 1 1 Turn objective to 40X and focus again METHODS Lab Data - X LABELS Move to upper-left corner of slide Count Percentage Neutrophils . + 33.3 5 + 1 33.3 Lymphocytes Monocytes Open Lab Data. Count each type of WBC in each region of slide by clicking corresponding buttons in Lab Data. + 0 0.0 Eosinophils + 0 0.0 Basophils - + 1 33.3 6 Total 3 100 Count 50 WBCs in total by using arrow buttons to move through regions of slide. How to Identify WBCS An important factor in selling a residential property is the number of people who look through the home. A sample of 21 homes recently sold in the Buffalo, New York, area revealed the mean number looking through each home was 25 and the standard deviation of the sample was 7 people.Develop a 99% confidence interval for the population mean. (Use t Distribution Table.) (Round your answers to 2 decimal places.) Confederate general p. G. T. Beauregard bombarded ______ for two days, ultimately defeating union forces and starting the american civil war. a book is pulled across a desk with a coefficient of friction of 2.25 at constant velocity. if the tension is 2.04 n, how much acceleration does the book have? the health care provider (hcp) has prescribed pseudoephedrine. the nurse should instruct the client about which possible adverse effect of this drug? the u.the term refers to the gap between those who have access to information and communications technology and those who do not.. anticybersquatting consumer protection act of 1999 makes cybersquatting illegal The desk for Carons new office weighs 500 Newtons. What would be the impact of an applied force that pushes from below at 475 Newtons?A. The desk would move forward.B. The desk would stay where it is.C. The desk would change directions.D. The desk would move upward. What are the 5 advantages of assessment?. What is conjunctive adverb in a sentence and give two examples?. Put the steps in order for the dilution of the titrant stock solution. Summarize these steps in your Original Proposal procedures. 1 [Choose ] 2 [Choose] Touch of any hanging drops before placing the pipet tip in the 25 mL volumetric flask Prerinse the volumetric pipet with a small amount of stock solution Fill the volumetric pipet until the meniscus is inline with the etched line on the volumetric pipet Fill the volumetric flask to the calibration line on the neck with Dl water. Cap and invert the volumetric flask to mix the new solution. Obtain a volumetric pipet with a volume equal to the calculated value Determine the volume of stock solution needed for dilution All the stock solution to flow from the pipet into the volumetric flask 3 4 [Choose ] 5 [Choose ] 6 [Choose ] 7 [Choose ] 8 [Choose ] if both variables in a correlational study are non-numerical, the data can be organized in a matrix and then analyzed using a . in a report on the real estate market in florida, which two of the following charts would be the most useful? (choose every correct answer.) A shopkeeper buys a table at RS700 and sells it for Rs735 Find his profit and profit percentage. dewey comprehends that he is a 10-year-old boy who is on the chess team, is a member of a family, loves computer games, and hates peanut butter. this is dewey's give a recursive algorithm which takes a positive integer n as input and returns the sum of the first n positive odd integers. you may call this function as sumodd(n). the nurse asks a client from southeast asia if there is any reason for her fatigue. which statements are culturally consistent with a client from the southeast asian culture? select | all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.