if a borrower makes a 20 percent down payment on a conventional mortgage, she will be required to obtain
- VA insurance
- FHA insurance
- GNMA payment guarantees
- private mortgage insurance.
- None of these choices are correct.

Answers

Answer 1

if a borrower makes a 20 percent down payment on a conventional mortgage, she will be required to obtain: None of these choices are correct.

Private mortgage insurance (PMI) is typically required when the down payment is less than 20 percent. However, in this scenario, the borrower has made a 20 percent down payment, which means they have met the threshold to avoid PMI.

VA insurance and FHA insurance are specific types of insurance associated with government-backed loans. Since the borrower is obtaining a conventional mortgage, these options are not applicable.

GNMA (Government National Mortgage Association) payment guarantees are also not relevant in this situation. GNMA is responsible for guaranteeing mortgage-backed securities, but it does not pertain to the requirement for a borrower who has made a 20 percent down payment on a conventional mortgage.

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Related Questions

hedge funds are similar to mutual funds in that they hold a of assets and issue for investors to purchase.

Answers

Hedge funds are not similar to mutual funds in that they hold a diversified portfolio of assets and issue shares for investors to purchase.

While both hedge funds and mutual funds are investment vehicles that pool money from multiple investors, there are significant differences between the two.

Mutual funds typically hold a diversified portfolio of assets such as stocks, bonds, and other securities. They issue shares to investors at net asset value (NAV) and are regulated by securities laws. Mutual funds are often designed for retail investors and offer different types of funds catering to different investment objectives and risk profiles.

On the other hand, hedge funds are typically structured as private investment partnerships and are not as heavily regulated as mutual funds. Hedge funds often employ more complex investment strategies and may invest in a wider range of assets, including derivatives and alternative investments. They are typically open to accredited investors and have higher investment minimums compared to mutual funds.

Furthermore, hedge funds often employ strategies such as short selling, leverage, and derivatives to potentially generate higher returns or hedge against market risks. This can make them riskier and more suitable for sophisticated or institutional investors who have a higher risk tolerance.

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the underutilization of resources that occurs when the quantity of output a firm chooses to produce is less than the quantity that minimizes the average total cost is called capacity. T/F

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False. The underutilization of resources that occurs when the quantity of output a firm chooses to produce is less than the quantity that minimizes the average total cost is called "excess capacity".

Capacity refers to the maximum amount of output that a firm can produce using its existing resources and technology.

The underutilization of resources that occurs when the quantity of output a firm chooses to produce is less than the quantity that minimizes the average total cost is not called capacity.

Instead, this situation is referred to as "productive inefficiency." Capacity, on the other hand, refers to the maximum output that a firm can produce with its available resources and technology.

In order to achieve productive efficiency, a firm must operate at the lowest point on its average total cost curve, also known as the minimum efficient scale.

When a firm produces at a level below this point, it is not making full use of its resources, leading to inefficiency.

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Marshall finds that he meets the eligibility requirements for Social Security. He elects to receive retirement benefits at 62. In this case, which of the following is true?


A. He will receive full retirement benefits.

B. He will receive retirement benefits only according to his earnings history.

C. He will not be eligible for worker's compensation.

D. He will receive benefits at a permanently reduced level.

E. His exempt amount limits will be lifted.

Answers

If Marshall elects to receive retirement benefits at 62, then the correct answer is D. He will receive benefits at a permanently reduced level.

This is because he is choosing to receive benefits before reaching full retirement age, which is typically between 66-67 years old. By choosing to receive benefits early, Marshall will receive a permanently reduced amount of his retirement benefits. The amount he receives will be based on his earnings history, which means the amount he contributed to Social Security over his working years. This means that option B is also correct, as he will only receive retirement benefits according to his earnings history. Option A and E are not correct, as he will not receive full retirement benefits and his exempt amount limits will not be lifted. Option C is not related to Social Security and retirement benefits, as worker's compensation is a separate program.

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3) Which term defines money that is set aside in savings for emergencies?

A) petty cash

B) financial reserve

C) recurring revenue

D) discretionary funds

Answers

The term that defines money set aside in savings for emergencies is B) financial reserve.

A financial reserve refers to funds that are specifically earmarked or saved for unforeseen expenses, emergencies, or unexpected financial needs. It serves as a safety net or a cushion to provide financial security and peace of mind in times of crisis or unexpected events. Petty cash typically refers to a small amount of cash used for minor expenses in a business setting. Recurring revenue refers to regular income that is generated periodically. Discretionary funds, on the other hand, refer to money that is available for discretionary or optional spending rather than being specifically designated for emergencies. Therefore, the most appropriate term for money set aside for emergencies is a financial reserve. Option B

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one way to keep retail sales flowing is to create an easier ___________.

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One way to keep retail sales flowing is hence to create an easier customer shopping experience.

One way to keep retail sales flowing is to create an easier shopping experience for the customer. This can be done through various methods such as providing clear signage, organizing products in a logical manner, offering online shopping options, and providing exceptional customer service. By making the shopping experience more seamless and enjoyable, customers are more likely to return and make purchases, ultimately keeping sales flowing. A customer is someone who receives goods, services, products, or ideas from a vendor, vendor, or supplier through financial transactions or in exchange for money or other valuable consideration.

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how much will you pay to purchase a $100,000 u. s. treasury bond that is quoted at 99.6250?

Answers

$99,625.00 is the amount you will have pay to purchase a $100,000 U.S.  treasury bond.

Amount payable= 99.6250 % × 100,000

                              = $ 99,625

What exactly is a Treasury Bond, or T-Bond?

Depository bonds (T-bonds) are government obligation protections gave by the U.S. National government that have developments more noteworthy than 20 years. The owner of a T-bond receives a par amount equal to the principal in addition to periodic interest until the bond reaches maturity.

What advantages do Treasury bonds provide?

T-bonds offer stability and liquidity, despite the fact that their average returns may be lower than those of stocks or other investments with a higher rate of growth. In other words, they can help cushion the effects of stocks in your portfolio because their returns are more reliable. And in a pinch, it's simple to sell them and get cash.

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which of the following is always true after an economy reaches a balanced growth equilibrium?

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After an economy reaches a balanced growth equilibrium, the following statement is always true: The economy's output and all factors of production grow at a constant and proportional rate, maintaining stable economic relationships over time.

After an economy reaches a balanced growth equilibrium, it is always true that all factors of production will be utilized efficiently, and the economy will be operating at its full potential. This means that the economy will experience sustained economic growth, and there will be no excess capacity or resources left unused. Additionally, the growth rate of the economy will be sustainable and will not lead to inflation or other economic imbalances.

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_____ help(s) innovators develop hard-to-copy marketing strategies that will be very profitable for a long time.

Answers

Brand positioning helps innovators develop hard-to-copy marketing strategies that will be very profitable for a long time.

By identifying a unique and compelling position in the market, innovators can differentiate themselves from competitors and establish a sustainable advantage.

This involves understanding the needs and desires of target customers, evaluating the competitive landscape, and crafting a clear and consistent message that resonates with the intended audience.

Effective brand positioning can lead to increased customer loyalty, higher sales, and greater profitability over time.

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Income from operations for Division L is $250,000, total service department charges are $400,000 and operating expenses are $2,750,000. What are the revenues for Division L?""$650,000""$3,000,000""$3,400,000""$2,750,000"

Answers

The revenues for Division L is found to be  $3,400,000. The correct is option C. $3,400,000.

To calculate the revenues for Division L, we need to subtract the total service department charges and operating expenses from the income from operations.

Revenue = Income from operations - Total service department charges - Operating expenses

Substituting the given values:

Revenue = $250,000 - $400,000 - $2,750,000
Revenue = -$2,900,000

This answer doesn't make sense, as revenue cannot be negative. This means that there is an error in the calculation or the given values.

One possible error could be that the income from operations is actually the profit after deducting all expenses, rather than the revenue. In this case, we can add the total service department charges and operating expenses to the income from operations to get the revenue.

Revenue = Income from operations + Total service department charges + Operating expenses

Substituting the given values:

Revenue = $250,000 + $400,000 + $2,750,000
Revenue = $3,400,000

Therefore, the correct is option C. $3,400,000.

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Which of the following works well when the marketing researcher is attempting to determine brand, store, or other images?a.Polar differential scaleb.Semantic differential scalec.Likert scaled.Lifestyle inventory scaleFeedback

Answers

The semantic differential scale works well when the marketing researcher is attempting to determine brand, store, or other images.

The semantic differential scale is a rating scale that measures the respondent's perceptions or attitudes towards a particular object or concept by using bipolar adjectives. The respondent is typically asked to rate the object or concept on a set of bipolar adjectives, such as "good" versus "bad" or "strong" versus "weak."

By using a semantic differential scale, the marketing researcher can capture the respondent's perceptions or attitudes towards specific brand attributes, store characteristics, or other images associated with the brand or store. The scale allows for a more nuanced understanding of how the target audience perceives and evaluates different dimensions of the brand or store, providing valuable insights for marketing strategies and positioning.

In contrast, the polar differential scale is a simpler scale that only consists of a single bipolar adjective. It may not provide enough granularity or specificity to capture the multidimensional aspects of brand or store images.

The Likert scale is typically used to measure attitudes or opinions by presenting a series of statements and asking respondents to indicate their level of agreement or disagreement on a scale (e.g., strongly agree, agree, neutral, disagree, strongly disagree). While the Likert scale can be useful for measuring attitudes towards brands or stores, it may not capture the specific images or perceptions associated with them.

The lifestyle inventory scale is a different type of scale that aims to measure an individual's lifestyle or psychographic characteristics rather than brand or store images. It assesses various aspects of an individual's lifestyle, interests, and activities to gain insights into their preferences, behaviors, and motivations.

Therefore, for determining brand, store, or other images, the semantic differential scale is the most suitable option among the choices provided.

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what causes huntington’s disease? a. an iron deficiency during childhood b. a single recessive gene on chromosome 4 c. a single dominant gene on chromosome 4 d. exposure to environmental neurotoxins

Answers

C. A single dominant gene on chromosome 4. Huntington's disease is caused by an autosomal dominant mutation in the huntingtin gene on chromosome 4.

The mutation results in the production of a toxic protein that progressively damages nerve cells in the brain, leading to the characteristic symptoms of the disease. Huntington's disease is primarily caused by a single dominant gene on chromosome 4. This means that only one copy of the mutated gene inherited from either parent is sufficient to develop the disease. The mutation occurs in the huntingtin gene, and the altered gene produces a toxic protein known as mutant huntingtin. This protein accumulates in nerve cells and disrupts their normal function, leading to the degeneration and eventual death of brain cells. As a result, individuals with Huntington's disease experience a range of symptoms, including involuntary movements, cognitive decline, and psychiatric disturbances. The disease is hereditary and can be passed down through generations in affected families.

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a bond with a par value of $1,000 trading at 97 ½ sells for a premium. true or false?

Answers

True.  When a bond is trading at a price higher than its par value, it is said to be selling at a premium. In this case, the bond has a par value of $1,000 and is trading at 97 ½, which is a price higher than its par value. Therefore, it is selling at a premium.

The price of a bond can be influenced by a variety of factors, including changes in interest rates, credit ratings, and market demand. If investors perceive a bond to be less risky than other investments, they may be willing to pay more for it, driving up its price and causing it to trade at a premium. Conversely, if investors perceive a bond to be riskier than other investments, they may be willing to pay less for it, driving down its price and causing it to trade at a discount.
False. A bond with a par value of $1,000 trading at 97.5 is not selling for a premium; rather, it is selling at a discount. When a bond trades at a price above its par value, it is said to be selling at a premium. Conversely, when it trades at a price below its par value, it is selling at a discount. In this case, the bond's trading price of 97.5 represents 97.5% of its par value, which equates to $975 ($1,000 x 0.975). Since $975 is less than the par value of $1,000, the bond is trading at a discount, not a premium.

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time we The longer workers can collect unemployment insurance, and the more income the insurance provides the ______________ would expect them to spend unemployed, thus _____________ the unemployment rate

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The longer workers can collect unemployment insurance, and the more income the insurance provides, the higher the likelihood we would expect them to remain unemployed for an extended period, thus exacerbating the issue of long-term unemployment and potentially leading to an increase in the overall unemployment rate

As the availability of generous benefits might reduce the urgency and incentive for individuals to actively seek and accept available job opportunities, creating a potential disincentive to reenter the labor market and hindering the overall effectiveness of unemployment insurance in facilitating a prompt return to work and reducing unemployment rates.

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The sales director of RealPlan has developed a sales team training session to address the differences between consumer and business buyers. Which of the following is a true statement that should be included in the training session?A) In business sales, the initial contact is almost never the actual purchaser.B) In business sales, more than one person may be involved in the purchasing decision.C) In consumer sales, emotion plays a more significant role than logic in decision making.D) In consumer sales, a new-task buy is the most common type of purchasing situation.E) In consumer sales, even low-cost items involve significant consumer involvement.

Answers

In the sales team training session developed by the sales director of Real Plan to address the differences between consumer and business buyers, it is important to include the statement that in business sales, more than one person may be involved in the purchasing decision.

In the sales team training session developed by the sales director of Real Plan to address the differences between consumer and business buyers, it is important to include the statement that in business sales, more than one person may be involved in the purchasing decision. This is because in business sales, the decision-making process often involves multiple stakeholders such as managers, executives, and other department heads. Therefore, it is crucial for sales teams to understand how to navigate the complex decision-making structures in businesses to effectively close sales deals. Additionally, it is important to note that in consumer sales, even low-cost items involve significant consumer involvement. This means that even small purchases can require emotional attachment and involvement from the consumer, which should be considered by sales teams when targeting and engaging with consumers.

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In a graphical representation of decision trees the event nodes are represented by a. squares b. circles c. solid dots d. ovals

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In a graphical depiction of a decision tree, the event nodes are frequently represented by circles.

In decision trees, event nodes represent decision points or chance events that can lead to different outcomes. Circles are often used to visually represent these event nodes, as they help to differentiate them from other types of nodes such as end nodes or probability nodes. While other shapes such as squares, solid dots, or ovals may be used in certain situations, circles are the most commonly used shape for event nodes in decision trees.

Decision nodes are typically represented by squares, event nodes by circles, and end nodes by solid dots or triangles. In this case, option B, circles, is the correct representation for event nodes in decision trees.

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in the 1920s evening dresses had been floor-length and daytime dresses had been short. in the 1930s both evening and daytime dresses were short.

Answers

In the 1920s, evening dresses were typically floor-length, while daytime dresses were shorter in comparison. However, in the 1930s, both evening and daytime dresses became shorter, reflecting the evolving fashion trends of the time.

Yes, that is correct. In the 1920s, evening dresses were typically floor-length, while daytime dresses were shorter and more practical for everyday wear. However, in the 1930s, both evening and daytime dresses began to get shorter and more streamlined. This was due in part to the changing attitudes towards fashion and the desire for more comfortable and versatile clothing options. Nonetheless, there were still plenty of glamorous and sophisticated evening dresses to be found in the 1930s, with many designers taking inspiration from the Art Deco movement and incorporating luxurious fabrics and intricate embellishments into their designs.

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the one-day return to investors who purchase ipo shares at the ipo offer price are ____, and the returns to investors who purchase the shares a day after the ipo are generally ____.

Answers

The one-day return to investors who purchase IPO shares at the IPO offer price can vary widely depending on market conditions and the specific IPO.

It is not possible to provide a definitive answer without specific information. However, it is commonly observed that the returns to investors who purchase shares a day after the IPO are generally different. The share price can fluctuate based on market demand, investor sentiment, and other factors. While some IPOs may experience significant price increases shortly after their initial offering, others may see a decline or more modest returns. It is important to note that investing in IPOs carries inherent risks, and individual outcomes can vary significantly. Investors should carefully evaluate the company's fundamentals, prospects, and market conditions before making investment decisions.

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which of the following refers to an event in an organization that can include accidental actions or malicious actions that result in a problem?

Answers

Security Incident A security incident refers to an event within an organization that can involve accidental or intentional actions leading to a problem.

A security incident refers to an event within an organization that can involve accidental or intentional actions leading to a problem. It encompasses a wide range of scenarios, including data breaches, unauthorized access to systems, malware infections, physical theft or damage to assets, and other forms of security breaches. Security incidents can result from both internal and external factors and can have serious consequences, such as compromised sensitive information, financial loss, reputational damage, or disruptions in business operations. Organizations employ various measures, such as incident response plans, security controls, and monitoring systems, to prevent, detect, and respond to security incidents promptly and effectively.

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among the different kinds of republicans, the group that has the least influence on the party is

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Among the different kinds of Republicans, the group that has the least influence on the party is likely the moderate or centrist Republicans.

Within the Republican party, there are various factions and ideological groups that shape its policies and direction. These include conservatives, libertarians, Tea Party members, and moderate or centrist Republicans. Among these groups, the moderate or centrist Republicans often have the least influence on the party. This is because they tend to hold more moderate or middle-ground positions, which can be seen as less aligned with the more ideologically driven factions within the party. The Republican party has often been associated with conservative principles, and thus, the more conservative factions often have a stronger voice and influence on shaping party policies and platforms. While moderate Republicans can still have some influence, their views and priorities may be overshadowed by the more dominant conservative or libertarian wings of the party.

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The organization's processes and procedures for conducting project work during Executing,
Monitoring, and Controlling include all of the following EXCEPT:
A.Change control procedure.
B.Issue and defect management procedures.
C.Resource availability control and assignment management.
D.Project closing guidelines

Answers

The organization's processes and procedures for conducting project work during Executing, Monitoring, and Controlling include change control procedure, issue and defect management procedures, and resource availability control and assignment management.

Project closing guidelines, however, are not included. Project closing guidelines are part of the Closing Process Group, the last phase of the project life cycle. During the Closing Process Group, the project is formally closed out and all stakeholders are informed of the outcome.

The main activities during this phase include completing and verifying the project deliverables, obtaining final customer acceptance, obtaining final payments, and releasing the project team from their responsibilities. Project closing guidelines are essential for ensuring the project is properly closed out and all stakeholders are informed of the project’s outcome.

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according to new growth theory, discovering and implementing new __________ is what causes economic growth.

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According to new growth theory, discovering and implementing new "ideas" is what causes economic growth.

In the context of new growth theory, ideas refer to technological advancements, innovation, knowledge, and intellectual property. The theory posits that economic growth is driven by the accumulation and utilization of ideas, which lead to increased productivity, efficiency, and improved standards of living. These ideas can come in various forms, including new inventions, research and development, improvements in production processes, and advancements in technology. The ability to generate and effectively implement new ideas is considered a crucial driver of sustained economic growth in the long run.

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According to the accompanying labor data, the labor force participation rate is: Adult population Labor force Employed persons Discouraged workers 200 million 150 million 138.75 million 10.5 million a) 99.3%. b) 75%. c) 60.4%. d) 69.4%.

Answers

According to the given labor data, the labor force participation rate can be calculated by dividing the number of individuals in the labor force by the adult population, and then multiplying by 100.

In this case, the labor force participation rate is calculated as follows:

(150 million / 200 million) * 100 = 75%

Therefore, the correct answer is b) 75%.

The labor force participation rate indicates the proportion of the adult population that is either employed or actively seeking employment. In this scenario, out of the total adult population of 200 million, 150 million individuals are part of the labor force. This implies that 75% of the adult population is engaged in the labor force, whether employed or actively looking for employment.

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when using fat volumes, everybody that logs on locally has __________ to all files on that volume.

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When using fat volumes, everybody that logs on locally has access to all files on that volume. when using fat volumes, all files on the volume are accessible to anyone who logs on locally, which can pose a security risk.

Fat stands for File Allocation Table, which is a file system used by older versions of Windows. In this file system, permissions are not set on individual files or folders but rather on the entire volume. This means that anyone who logs on locally to the computer can access all the files on that particular volume, regardless of whether or not they have the appropriate permissions to do so. Fat volumes are not secure and do not provide any level of access control. They are often used on older computers or in environments where security is not a concern. However, in modern computing environments, it is important to have a file system that provides granular access control and security.

Therefore, newer versions of Windows use the NTFS file system, which allows for more advanced security features such as file-level permissions and encryption. In summary, when using fat volumes, all files on the volume are accessible to anyone who logs on locally, which can pose a security risk. It is recommended to use newer file systems such as NTFS that provide more advanced security features to protect your data.

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The purchasing cycle ends when the purchasing department is notified that the supplier has shipped the items.T/F

Answers

False.

The purchasing cycle does not end when the purchasing department is notified that the supplier has shipped the items. Instead, it typically continues beyond that point to include additional steps such as receiving, inspecting, and paying for the goods or services.

The purchasing cycle, also known as the procurement cycle or purchasing process, is a series of interconnected steps that organizations follow to acquire the goods and services they need. It typically includes the following stages:

1. Identifying needs: This involves assessing the organization's requirements and determining what goods or services need to be purchased.

2. Supplier selection: The purchasing department identifies potential suppliers, evaluates their capabilities, and chooses the most suitable ones based on criteria such as quality, price, delivery terms, and reliability.

3. Purchase order: A purchase order is created and sent to the selected supplier, specifying the details of the purchase, including quantity, price, delivery date, and any other relevant terms.

4. Fulfillment: The supplier prepares and ships the ordered items to the organization.

5. Receiving and inspection: Upon receiving the items, the organization's receiving department inspects them for quality, accuracy, and condition to ensure they meet the specified requirements.

6. Invoice and payment: The purchasing department matches the received items and corresponding invoice, verifies the accuracy of charges, and proceeds with payment to the supplier.

Therefore, the purchasing cycle extends beyond the notification of shipment, encompassing activities such as receiving, inspection, and payment, before it is considered complete.

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Which of the following aspects of negotiating is most closely associated with non-task sounding?A) relationship buildingB) information exchangeC) persuasionD) final agreement stage

Answers

Non-task sounding is a communication strategy used during negotiations that involve building rapport and establishing a relationship with the other party. It is a technique used to create a comfortable and friendly environment that can lead to more productive discussions. The correct answer is option a.

The primary goal of non-task sounding is to establish trust and create a positive connection between the parties. This technique is often used in negotiations that involve complex issues or high levels of tension. Relationship building involves creating a rapport with the other party by finding common ground and showing empathy. This can help to reduce tension and create a more positive environment for negotiations. Relationship building is often seen as a critical component of successful negotiations as it can lead to a better understanding of each party's needs and priorities.

The other aspects of negotiating listed in the question, including information exchange, persuasion, and the final agreement stage, are all important components of the negotiation process. However, they are less closely associated with non-task sounding than relationship building. Information exchange involves sharing information and data to help each party understand the other's position. Persuasion involves convincing the other party to accept your position or proposal. The final agreement stage involves finalizing the deal and outlining the terms of the agreement.

In conclusion, the non-task sounding is most closely associated with relationship building during negotiations. Establishing a rapport and creating a positive environment is often seen as a critical component of successful negotiations. While information exchange, persuasion, and the final agreement stage are also important aspects of the negotiation process, they are less closely associated with non-task sounding.

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the _____ is based on the five p's. marketing mix target market production mix advertising mix competitive advantage

Answers

The marketing mix is based on the five P's. The marketing mix is a strategic framework that helps businesses effectively market their products or services.

It is commonly referred to as the 4 Ps of marketing, which include product, price, place, and promotion. However, some variations of the marketing mix include an additional P, making it the five P's.

The first P is product, which refers to the goods or services that a company offers. It involves aspects such as product design, features, packaging, and branding. The second P is price, which involves determining the pricing strategy and setting the appropriate price for the product or service. The third P is place, which focuses on distribution channels and making the product available to the target market. The fourth P is promotion, which includes advertising, sales promotion, public relations, and other promotional activities to create awareness and stimulate demand.

The fifth P can vary depending on the source, but it is often referred to as either people or competitive advantage. People emphasize the importance of customer service, employee engagement, and building strong relationships with customers. On the other hand, competitive advantage highlights the unique strengths and advantages that differentiate a company's offerings from competitors.

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JT Engineering wants to buy a machine that costs $360,000, has an 8-year life, and has a $12,000 salvage value. Annual inflows are $120,000 and annual outflows are $86,000 (including depreciation). What is the annual rate of return on this purchase?

A : 18.28%

B : 18.88%

C : 22.86%
D : 28.33%

Answers

The annual rate of return on this purchase is B.18.88% The Option B is correct.

The annual rate of return on the given purchase can be determined through the formula given below;

IRR = Initial Investment + Annual Cash Inflows / [(Life of the Investment + Salvage Value) / 2]

So, the IRR of the given purchase would be;

IRR = $360,000 + [$120,000 - $86,000] / [(8 + $12,000) / 2]= $360,000 + $34,000 / [8 + $12,000) / 2]= $360,000 + $34,000 / 6,004= $394,000 / 6,004

IRR = 65.5%

Hence, the nearest option to the calculated IRR (65.5%) is option B: 18.88%. Therefore, Option B is correct.

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To be eligible for a C-Way quota, a Sailor that has received a "Significant Problem" or "Progressing evaluation must have at least what total number of promotable or higher evaluations?

Answers

In order to be considered for a Career Waypoint (C-Way) quota, a Sailor who has received a "Significant Problem" or "Progressing" evaluation must have a total of at least two promotable or higher evaluations.

This means that the Sailor must have demonstrated consistent and exemplary performance in their job duties and responsibilities. These evaluations are used to determine a Sailor's potential for advancement within their career field. Meeting this requirement is crucial for a Sailor's professional development and advancement opportunities.

It is important for Sailors to continuously strive for excellence in their work and seek opportunities for growth and improvement in order to achieve their career goals.

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summit systems will pay a dividend of $1.44 this year. If you expect Summit's dividend to grow by 6.4% per year, what is its price per share if the firm's equity cost of capital is 10.1%

Answers

Price per share if the firm's equity cost of capital is 10.1% is $40 based on the information provided.

The following chart shows how the price per share was determined:

Dividend times equity cost of capital less growth rate equals price per share.

Dividend  one year from now is $1.44

Equity cost of capital = 10.1%

And, the growth rate is 6.4%

So, the price per share is

= ($1.44 ) ÷ (10.1% - 6.4%)

= ($1.48) ÷ (3.8%)

= $40

Shares, sometimes referred to as mutual funds, limited partnerships, and real estate investment trust shares, are units of ownership of corporate capital in financial markets. The term "share capital" means all shares in an organization. A shareholder (or shareholder) of a company is a person who owns shares in that company. Shares represent the ownership relationship between a company and its shareholders and are immovable units of capital.

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Now that the finished products have been received in the Inventory, the Manufacturing Output Settlement Variance has been added. Explain how is this figure (101.323.35) calculated by the system?

Answers

The Manufacturing Output Settlement Variance is a figure that reflects the difference between the actual cost of manufacturing and the planned cost of manufacturing. In other words, it is the amount of money that was either over or under budget for the production of the finished products.

The figure of 101.323.35 was most likely calculated by the system using a formula that subtracts the actual cost of manufacturing from the planned cost of manufacturing and then adds any additional costs or savings that were incurred during the production process. This figure is important for businesses to track as it helps them to identify areas where they can improve their manufacturing processes and reduce costs in the future. The Manufacturing Output Settlement Variance (101,323.35) is calculated by the system as follows: Step 1: Determine the actual cost of producing the finished products.
Step 2: Determine the standard cost of producing the finished products.
Step 3: Calculate the difference between the actual cost and the standard cost.
Step 4: The resulting figure (101,323.35) represents the Manufacturing Output Settlement Variance.

This variance figure helps the company identify any discrepancies in the production process, allowing them to make adjustments and improve efficiency.

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