When the channel narrows, a pressure difference occurs. Since pressure times area equals force, the fluid is subjected to a net force as a result of the pressure difference.
The fluid's kinetic energy is increased by the net work completed. Therefore, whether or not the fluid is contained in a tube, the pressure will decrease in a fluid that is moving quickly. There are several typical instances of pressure loss in fluids moving quickly. A region of lower pressure is created inside the shower by the fast-moving water and air stream, while normal atmospheric pressure is created on the other side. The mid-1800s saw the first evidence of this phenomenon when it was discovered that trains traveling in opposite directions leaned alarmingly in the direction of one another.
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how does transcription inhibition differ between prokaryotes and eukaryotes? drag the appropriate items to their respective bins.
Prokaryotic repressor proteins:
Bind to operator sequences that overlap promoters.Can block the action of the enhancerInvolve in the formation of DNA loops containing enhancers and their intended promoter targets.Eukaryotic repressor:
Binds to silencer sequences.Prevent enhancer-mediated transcription.Block transcription initiation by RNA polymerase.Eukaryotic insulators:
Block transcription initiation by RNA polymeraseWhat are regulatory gene?Regulatory genes or regulators are genes involved in controlling the expression of one or more other genes. Regulatory sequences that encode regulatory genes are often located at her fifth end of the transcription start site of the genes they regulate. Regulatory elements are sequences of DNA that are recognized and bound by specific transcription factors to recruit or exclude RNA polymerase. Promoters regulate gene transcription together with nearby transcription factor binding elements.
Operons are controlled by regulatory genes that produce small protein molecules called repressors. The repressor binds to the operator gene and prevents it from initiating the synthesis of proteins required by the operon.
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diagnosis of paramyxoviruses is aided by viewing a or a multinucleate giant cell with cytoplasmic inclusion bodies. multiple choice question.
Diagnosis of paramyxoviruses is aided by viewing a syncytium or a multinucleate giant cell with cytoplasmic inclusion bodies .
A huge, cell-like structure known as a syncytium is created when two or more cells come together.
The order Mononegavirales contains the family of negative-strand RNA viruses known as Paramyxoviridae. Natural hosts are vertebrates. Measles, mumps, and respiratory tract infections are among the illnesses connected to this family.
By isolating the virus from swabs (oropharyngeal and/or cloacal), serology, or PCR testing, paramyxovirus can be identified. There is just supportive care available for paramyxovirus infection. Some viruses may give some persons transient conjunctivitis and flu-like symptoms.
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anemia is a condition where the blood does not have enough healthy, normal red blood cells. there are many anemias caused by factors not related to nutrition, but nutrient deficiencies can also be the culprit. the most common nutrient deficiencies that result in anemias are deficiencies of iron, folate, vitamin b12, and vitamin b6.
People with this form of SCD (sickle cell disease) inherit two of their genes (one from each parent) that code for hemoglobin 'S'. Hemoglobin S is an abnormal form of hemoglobin that causes red blood cells to harden and sickle. This is commonly known as sickle cell anemia and is usually the most serious form of the disease. By blocking blood flow to organs, sickle cells deprive affected organs of blood and oxygen. During sickle cell anemia, the blood is also chronically depleted of oxygen. This lack of oxygenated blood can damage nerves and organs such as the kidneys, liver, and spleen, which can be fatal.
Stem cell or bone marrow transplantation is the only treatment for sickle cell disease, but it is not done very often because it carries significant risks.Stem cells are spongy tissue found in the center of some bones. It is a special cell produced by the bone marrow that is They can turn into different types of blood cells.
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The complete question is as follows:
Anemia is a condition where the blood does not have enough healthy, normal red blood cells. there are many anemias caused by factors not related to nutrition, but nutrient deficiencies can also be the culprit. the most common nutrient deficiencies that result in anemias are deficiencies of iron, folate, vitamin b12, and vitamin b6.
Identify the types of Anemia given the symptoms below:
1) A form of this anemia, called pernicious anemia, occurs when inadequate intrinsic factor is secreted into the stomach.
2) This type of anemia is caused by a recessive mutation that causes hemoglobin molecules to fold incorrectly.
3) Treatment may involve injections of vitamin B12.
4) Red blood cells may abnormally formed into half-moon shapes.
5) A deficiency of vitamin Bs or iron may cause this type of anemia.
6) Treatment often involves supplementation with iron and vitamin C.
7) This may be caused by a deficiency of folate.
8) Red blood cells are smaller than normal.
which of the following is not considered biomass? group of answer choices charcoal animal manure coal crop residues wood
c) Coal is not considered biomass.
In the field of science, biomass can be described as such kind of fuel that is obtained from living organisms such as plants and animals. When the dead plants and animals are burned, fuel is produced which is biomass.
Coal is a resource that does not come from living organisms. Coal is a natural resource that is present in the earth in the form of coal rocks. Although coal is also an excellent fuel used for many purposes, it is not biomass because it is not obtained from the burning of living organisms.
The energy obtained from coal as well as biomass is considered to be a non-renewable resource because it cannot be recycled.
The question will correctly be written as:
which of the following is not considered biomass? group of answer choices
a) charcoal
b) animal manure
c) coal
d)crop residues
e) wood
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Which of the following is NOT a product of the citric acid cycle?
NAD
FADH2
ATP
CO2
NAD
The Citric acid cycle results in the production of carbon dioxide, NADH, FADH2, and GTP (which is comparable to ATP). Throughout this cycle, no water is produced.
What results from the citric acid cycle?Each cycle's turn results in the production of three NADH molecules and one FADH2 molecule. In order to produce ATP molecules, these carriers will be involved in the final phase of aerobic respiration. Each cycle additionally yields one GTP or A.
Of these, which is not a byproduct of the citric acid cycle?The Citric acid cycle results in the production of carbon dioxide, NADH, FADH2, and GTP (which is comparable to ATP). Throughout this cycle, no water is produced. Consequently, 3. water is the right response.
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which key property of the bronchi increases as the average diameter of the passageways decreases? (hint: it also occurs in the arterial vasculature.)
Total cross-sectional is a key property of the bronchi that increases as the average diameter of the passageways decreases.
The lungs' entryways are called bronchi and are the plural form of bronchus. The right and left major bronchi are the first bronchi that emerge from the trachea. The largest bronchi are those that enter the lung. The bronchi continue to branch after entering the lungs, first becoming tertiary (segmental) bronchi, then into secondary bronchi known as lobar bronchi.
Up until the sixth generation of bronchi, segmental bronchi continue to branch. The cartilage in its wall provides support for every generation, beginning with the primary. The passageways are known as bronchioles after the sixth generation because they are too narrow to be supported by the cartilage.
Hence, cross section area maximized to avail required air volume.
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What occurs during meiosis 1 that is very unique to this process?.
Chromosomes resegregate in a diploid cell during meiosis I, resulting in the formation of four haploid daughter cells. Genetic variety is created at this meiotic stage. Before meiosis I begin, DNA replication occurs.
Homologous chromosomes link up and create synapses during prophase I, which is a stage exclusive to meiosis. Meiosis works to cut the number of chromosomes in half.
Each daughter cell that is created will have half as many chromosomes as the parent cell. Due to the fact that gametes have half as many chromosomes as diploid (2N) people, meiosis is a necessary step in the sexual process.
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all of the following are part of the calvin cycle except all of the following are part of the calvin cycle except all of the above are part of the cycle. regeneration of atp. regeneration of rubp. carbon fixation. synthesis of g3p. note: clicking any button other
During the Calvin cycle, plants fixate CO₂, and use ATP and NADPH to produce sugar molecules G3P, while regenerating RUBP to keep the cycle going. Option A. regeneration of ATP.
What is the Calvin cycle?
The Calvin cycle is the series of chemical reactions that occur during the light-independent phase of photosynthesis.
During the Calvin cycle, sugars or carbohydrates are synthesized.
Carbón dioxide -CO₂- enters the leaves through stomas, and diffuses to the chloroplast stroma. These molecules are used to produce 3-C sugars.
The whole process is impulsed by ATP and NADPH coming from light-dependent reactions.
1) During the carbon fixation phase, the CO₂ molecule combinates with a ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate (5-C molecule) to form 6-C molecules, which will divide into two 3-phosphoglycerate molecules, 3-PGA (3-C molecules).
CO₂ + ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate ⟶ 6-C molecule ⟶ 2 3-PGA
2) During the reduction phase, ATP and NADPH are used to produce the sugar molecule glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate (G3P) from 3-PGA molecules.
NADPH donates its electrons to turn 3-PGA into glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate, G3P.
3-PGA + ATP + NADPH ⟶ G3P + ADP + NADP⁺
3) During the regeneration phase,
some glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate molecules leave the cycle and go to the cytosol to form glucose.Other G3P get recycled to regenerate the RuBP acceptor. This last reaction needs ATP and a series of other reactions.When three CO₂ enter the cycle, 6 G3P are produced. One of them leaves the cycle, and the remaining five are recycled and generate three RuBP.
According to this framework, the only option that is not part of the Calvin cycle is regeneration of ATP. Option A.
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enzymes degrade proteins, lipids, and large carbohydrates to smaller building blocks in the digestive tract. why must these macromolecules be broken down? which smaller building blocks can be absorbed?
Amino acids, which serve as the "building blocks" of proteins, are disassembled. These tiny molecules can be absorbed through the stomach wall after being released.
Describe how the macronutrients in your diet are digested and then put back together to form the cell structure.The principal macromolecules, from which all life is derived, are macrounits in our diet. The smaller subunits of these macromolecules must be broken down in order to be released. The circulatory system carries the digestively released components to the body's cells. These subunits serve as the building blocks for the macromolecules required for cellular structure and function, which are then put together by cells.
Proteins, lipids, and carbohydrates are examples of macromolecules.
The fact that all three macromolecules are hydrocarbons means that the majority of their atoms are made up of hydrogen and carbon.
Nitrogen atoms are found in proteins and in lipids.
Carbon atoms make up carbohydrates.
Simple carbohydrates are formed when complex carbohydrates are hydrated (by adding hydrogen and oxygen ions).
Dehydration of simple carbohydrates causes them to bind together in chains to create complex carbs. This can be reversed.
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the electron transport chain (etc), or respiratory chain, is linked to proton movement and atpatp synthesis. select the statements that accurately describe the electron transport chain.
Following Statements Accurately describe the electron transport chain (ETC)
Proton transport from the matrix to the intermembrane space is connected with electron transfer in the electron transport chain (ETC).Prosthetic groups, like iron-sulfur centers, are directly engaged in the transport of electrons. Small molecules and hydrogen ions can easily pass through mitochondria's outer membrane.Four complexes of proteins and prosthetic groups make up electron carriers.Ubiquinone (coenzyme Q) and cytochrome c are electron carriers in the electron transport chain (ETC).The oxidative phosphorylation process, also known as the electron transport chain (ETC), is a collection of four protein complexes that combine redox events to produce an electrochemical gradient that results in the production of ATP. Both photosynthesis and cellular respiration take place in mitochondria.
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one of the first steps in obtaining a karyotype (such as that shown below of a cancer cell) is treating cells with a drug that stalls cells in mitosis. why must cells arrest in mitosis for karyotype analysis?
Mitotic chromosomes are the only ones that are highly condensed and visible under a light microscope.
What is a Mitosis?Mitosis is the phase of the cell cycle in which the nucleus of a cell is divided into two nuclei, each with an equal amount of genetic material. It follows the G2 phase and is followed by cytoplasmic division following nucleus separation. Mitosis is required for cell growth and the replacement of worn-out cells. Abnormalities in mitosis can cause DNA to be altered, resulting in genetic disorders.
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TRUE/FALSE the inferior border of the teres major is the anatomical border between the axillary and brachial arteries.
It is true that the axillary and brachial arteries anatomically separate at the inferior border of the teres major.
What do the brachial artery's boundaries look like?Your bicep's frontal region contains the brachial artery. Your armpit and shoulder contain a continuation of the axillary artery. At the cubital fossa, it is finished (the indentation between your upper and lower arm, at the front of your elbow). In your forearm, it splits into the ulnar and radial arteries from there.
What is the axillary artery's ring made of?In the axilla, the brachial plexus encircles the axillary artery. The placement of the cords in the brachial plexus are described in relation to the second segment of the axillary artery.
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hutchinson-gilford progeria is an exceedingly rare human genetic disorder in which there is very early senility and death, usually from coronary artery disease, at an average age of 13 years. patients, who look very old even as children, do not live to reproduce. which of the following sta
There is no "blending" involved because traits are inherited in distinct units.
Hutchinson-Gilford Progeria Syndrome: What causes it?Causes. HGPS is caused by a single-letter error in a gene on chromosome 1 that codes for the protein lamin A, which is necessary for the membrane encircling the cell nucleus. The abnormal lamin is known by the name "progerin." an HGPS-produced protein. HGPS is not frequently passed down via generations.
Does dementia occur in progeria patients?
Children with progeria are not more prone to cancer, the other major aging illness, or dementia or memory loss. Apart from that, progeria resembles aging accelerated.
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in pea plants, the allele for yellow seeds is dominant to the allele for green seeds. if a plant that has heterozygous yellow seeds is crossed with on
Cross between heterozygous yellow seeded plant and green seeded plant will produce 50% yellow seeded plants and 50% green seeded plants.
In general the cross between two heterozygous plants , the resulting progeny may result in the dominant phenotype. But, the recessive phenotype will also reappears in the generation . The cross between heterozygous yellow seeded plant and green seeded plant will produce 50% yellow seeded plants and 50% green seeded plants.
Hence, Mendel's experiments using pea plants, state that yellow color is autosomal dominant to green and round seeds are autosomal dominant to wrinkled seeds.
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which one of the following statements is not true of the helper t cell response? science philosophy of the vsc
The fact that helper T cells produce antibodies is incorrect. T cells can stimulate B cells to make antibodies, but they cannot make them by themselves.
What is cell-mediated immunity?
Cell-mediated immunity includes B cells and T helper cells, both of which are important components of the adaptive immune system. Antigen-presenting cells (APCs) first activate helper T cells by showing them the antigen that is carried by them. After T-helper cell activation, it secretes some cytokines that further stimulate the cell differentiation of T cells and activate B cells. The B cell, after activation, makes antibodies that are required to kill the particular pathogen in the body.
Hence, the option that mentions that helper T cells produce antibodies is incorrect.
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The question is incomplete. The complete question is below
1) which one of the following statements is not true of the helper t cell response? (select one)
a) They can stimulate B cells.
b) They are responsible for cell mediated immunity.
c) Helper T cell can secret cytokines.
d) They require an antigen presenting cell.
e) They produce antibodies.
Mitochondria and chloroplasts are similar in that they both __________; however, they are different in that only chloroplasts, and not mitochondria, __________.
have a double membrane ... carry out photosynthesis
Both have a double membrane but chloroplast carry out photosynthesis.
What are the similarities and differences between mitochondria and chloroplast?They each feature many membranes that divide the innards of each into distinct sections. The innermost membranes, known as cristae or infoldings of the inner membrane, are found in both organelles. Both organelles play a role in energy conversion: chloroplasts participate in photosynthesis and mitochondria in cellular respiration. Both are semi-autonomous, producing tRNA, mRNA, and rRNA from their own DNA. Each one has ribosomes. Both can produce a few proteins on their own. The mitochondria, also referred to as the "powerhouse of the cell," are in charge of cellular respiration and energy metabolism. Chloroplast It is where photosynthesis occurs, and it is bigger and more complex than a mitochondrion. Mitochondria present in every form of aerobic organism's cell, including those of both plants and animals. Green plants and green algae both include chloroplasts. Chloroplasts are Disc-shaped, whereas mitochondria are Bean-shaped. While chloroplasts are green in color, mitochondria are an organelle that lacks color. The two chambers of a mitochondrion are the matrix and cristae, while the two chambers in a chloroplast are the stroma and thylakoid. While chloroplast releases oxygen, mitochondria consume it. Chloroplasts include pigments like chlorophyll, carotenoids, and pigments involved in photosynthetic processes, whereas mitochondria lack any pigment. In contrast to chloroplast, which stores energy and converts it to glucose by using carbon dioxide and water, mitochondria release energy by converting organic food into carbon dioxide and water.
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drag the measurements of different regions of the sarcomere to their respective locations (bins) to describe what happens during the sliding filament mechanism of sarcomere shortening.
The measurements of different regions of the sarcomere to their respective locations are: length decreased (Length of H zone, Length of I band, Distance between Z discs) and no change in length ( Length of A band, Length of thick filament, Length of thin filament)
Putting the measurements of the various areas linked with the sliding filament process of sarcomere shortening into their appropriate categories, based on whether or not the length of those regions increases, decreases, or stays the same.
When the distance/length decreases
Length of H zoneLength of I bandDistance between Z discsWhen the distance/length remains the same as previous
Length of A bandLength of thick filamentLength of thin filamentThe complete question is attached.
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oxygen is efficiently transported throughout the body because of a substance called , which is contained in the .
It is due to metalloprotein called haemoglobin found in blood.
Hb has 2 subunits – 2 alpha have 141 amino acid residues and 2 beta subunits with 146 amino acid residues.
They develop in the cells of bone marrow.
It is a tetrameric protein with heme prosthetic group attached which attach to oxygen molecule.
Each haemoglobin molecule has 4 binding sites for oxygen molecules and forms oxyhaemoglobin.
Oxygen with HB is bright red hence stating why oxygenated blood is bright red.
Hb is in 2 states- R and T states and where oxygen has more affinity with the R state.
Types of HB are –
1. Haemoglobin A2
2. Haemoglobin F
3. Haemoglobin A
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The maximum number of organisms of a particular species that can be supported by an environment is called.
Carrying capacity.
This will often be marked by a plateau in a graph of a species' population.
Which hypothesis suggests that ancestral vertebrates may have evolved from urochordate larvae?.
According to Garstang's Auricularia hypothesis, early vertebrates might have descended from urochordate larvae.
By highlighting the significance of alterations in larval forms, Garstang's Auricularia theory aimed to explain how the chordate body plan arose from a deuterostome common ancestor.
According to this theory, the original chordate was a sedentary filter feeder like adult ascidian tunicates. The swimming larva did not mature into an adult, sessile tunicate; instead, it developed gonads and reproduced while still in the larval stage.
This concept can now be evaluated because of new genetic and developmental evidence, although the majority of zoologists still believe that the ancestor chordate was a free-swimming animal.
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Which of the following has the greatest potential as a cancer treatment?Find a way to turn on the gene for making telomerase in normal cells, so that the normal cells would soon outnumber the cancer cells.Find a way to turn on the gene for making telomerase in cancer cells, since they will be unable to divide if their telomeres are too long.Find a way to turn off the gene for making telomerase in all cells in embryos, so that they never develop cancer.Find a way to turn off the gene for making telomerase in cancer cells, since the cells would stop dividing when the telomeres were gone.
Surgery, chemotherapy, and radiotherapy are the most often used conventional treatment techniques, while hormone therapy is one of the more recent modalities.
How can telomerase production be boosted?These findings demonstrated that in men, telomerase activation in response to high-intensity cycling exercise is diminished with age [78]. A 30-minute treadmill exercise was sufficient, according to another study, to boost the PBMC telomerase activity in 22 young, healthy subjects—11 men and 11 women—[79].
How is telomerase suppressed?oligonucleotides related to antisense. Antisense DNA oligonucleotides are one of the oldest and most widely utilized families of telomerase inhibiting drugs. Since the 1990s, antisense compounds have frequently been utilized to prevent the translation of mRNA into a useful protein.
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What are the 7 properties that all living things share?.
Order, sensitivity or response to the environment, reproduction, growth and development, regulation, homeostasis, and energy processing are all shared by all living organisms.
A one-of-a-kind ability to reproduce, grow, metabolize, respond to stimuli, adapt to the environment, move, and, finally, breathe.
Living things can grow and change. Energy is obtained and used by living beings. They adjust to their surroundings. Every living thing is made up of one or more cells. Living things react to their surroundings or stimuli. All living things excrete waste material from their bodies.
Growth, reproduction, the ability to sense the environment, and appropriate response to something are all considered distinct characteristics of living organisms. Some characteristics that can be added to the list include metabolism, the ability to self-replicate, self-organized interaction, and emergence.
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If a mutation has a visible effect at 26°c, but no visible effect at 20°c, then 20°c is the _______ temperature and 26°c is the _______ temperature.
If a mutation has a visible effect at 26°c, but no visible effect at 20°c, then 20°c is the permissive temperature and 26°c is the restrictive temperature.
The majority of temperature-sensitive mutations damage proteins and result in loss of protein function when temperatures are too high. The permissive temperature is that at which the protein can usually fold correctly or continue to fold correctly. The protein becomes unstable and loses its ability to function at higher temperatures. In diploid organisms, these mutations are frequently recessive. Changing the growth temperature is a simple way to diminish specific gene products in temperature sensitive mutants, which have a reversible mechanismand can do so at different phases of growth.
A temperature-sensitive mutant gene product's permissive temperature is the point at which it develops a typical, useful phenotype. Even when a mutant allele is present, when a temperature-sensitive mutant is grown in a permissive environment, the mutated gene product operates normally (i.e., the phenotype is not shown). As if it were a wild type strain, the cell or organism survives as a result of this. The temperature at which the mutant phenotype is seen, in contrast, is the nonpermissive temperature or restrictive temperature.
Missense mutations are frequently temperature-sensitive mutations because they carry the function of a specific required gene at the typical, permissive low temperature. At a rather high, inadmissible temperature, it will instead not perform the function and show a Middle, semi-permissive temperature and hypomorphic (partial loss of gene activity).
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Describe the significant events of glycolysis. Include which reactants and products (if any) are involved. Highlight what will be released as a product and what will move on to the next stage. Be sure to include where the process occurs in the Mitochondria.
Glycolysis is the first stage in cellular respiration where glucose is broken down. It splits glucose (6 C molecule) in half into 2 pyruvate (3 C molecules). Produces ATP and pyruvate. Occurs in the Cytoplasm.
During the first phase of cellular respiration, glucose is metabolised. It divides six-carbon glucose into two pyruvate molecules (3 C molecules). generates pyruvate and ATP. finds a home in the cytoplasm.
What constituents and byproducts of glycolysis are there? How does it happen?During the first phase of cellular respiration, glucose is metabolised. It divides six-carbon glucose into two pyruvate molecules (3 C molecules). generates pyruvate and ATP. finds a home in the cytoplasm.
A six-carbon glucose molecule is partially broken down during glycolysis into two, three-carbon pyruvate molecules, 2NADH + 2H+, and 2 net ATP molecules as a result of substrate-level phosphorylation. In the cell's cytoplasm, glycolysis takes place.
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which teeth in both carnivores and herbivores typically have flatter occlusal surfaces used for grinding?
Molar teeth in both carnivores and herbivores typically have flatter ooclusal surfaces used for grinding.
The back of the mouth's molars, often known as molar teeth, are big, flat teeth. Mammals have a higher level of development. They are typically employed to grind food as it is being chewed.
The Latin word molaris dens, which translates to "millstone tooth," gave rise to the English word molar. Across animal taxa, molars exhibit a tremendous degree of variation in size and shape. In humans, the third molar can occasionally be absent.
The molar teeth in humans either have four or five cusps. At the rear of the mouth, adults have 12 molars that are arranged in four groups of three. The wisdom tooth is the third and final molar in each group.
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What was the oxygen revolution a result of?.
A period of time during the Proterozoic era when the atmosphere's molecular oxygen concentration increased and its carbon dioxide concentration fell.
What led to the oxygen revolution?The increase in oxygen is credited to cyanobacteria, which are considered to have first emerged some 3.5 billion years ago and are responsible for photosynthesis.
What effects has the oxygen revolution had?Thus, the oxygen released by cyanobacteria led to modifications in the composition of the earth's atmosphere, the emergence of aerobic metabolism, and ultimately the development of multicellularity. The main component of modern Earth, which is far friendlier and more attractive than the early Earth, is oxygen.
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The three factors that regulate glycolysis include all of the following except: A)Concentrations of key glycolytic enzymes; B)Carbon dioxide; C)Oxygen; D)Levels of fructose 1,6-disphosphate
It is the procedure through which a glucose molecule is split into two pyruvate molecules. Animal and plant cells' cytoplasm's are where the process occurs.
The process involves six enzymes. Two pyruvate, two ATP, and two molecules of NADH are the reaction's final byproducts.
Regulation of Glycolysis It's a general principle of metabolic control that pathways are controlled at the committed step. The committed phase is the one when there is just one possible outcome for the substrate. The regulation of glycolysis takes place at various points because glycolytic intermediates are a source of energy for numerous different routes.
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Diagram the entire anatomical pathway of the reaction response starting from the stimulus at the contralateral hammer strike all the way to the response at the ipsilateral limb. Include names of muscles involved, tracts involved, and brain regions involved.
A reflex is an uncontrollable movement that happens almost instantly in response to a stimuli. Before an impulse reaches the brain, reflex arcs respond to it.
The reflex, which happens through a reflex arc, is an automatic reaction to a stimuli that doesn't require or receive conscious cognition. examines descending motor pathways, motor nerves, synaptic connections in the spinal cord, and afferent nerves. Reflexes are suppressed by lower motor neuron lesions (such as those that damage the anterior horn cell, spinal root, or peripheral nerve) and are increased by upper motor neuron lesions. The target muscle group needs to be in a neutral position (i.e. neither stretched nor contracted).
It is important to identify the tendon that connects the muscle(s) being evaluated.
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which of the follow nerves innervate the most important abductor of the arm? group of answer choices axillary nerve thoracodorsal nerve lower subscapular nerve suprascapular nerve
Both the motor and sensory nerves halves of the axillary nerve are innervated. It has motor fibers in arm that innervate the teres minor muscle, which enables lateral rotation of the glenohumeral joint, as well as the deltoid muscle, which acts as the shoulder joint's abductor, flexor, and extensor.
The axillary nerve, commonly known as the circumflex nerve, is one of five peripheral nerves that cross your shoulder. The brachial plexus, in your neck, is where axillary nerves begin (a network of nerves in your shoulder). Your upper limbs' movement and feeling are made possible by this network of nerves.
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hiv undergoes a mutation that enables the virus to enter another cell type. which processes occur in both the t cell and the phagocyte?
In order to infect white blood cells, the AIDS virus (HIV) also binds to chemokine receptors. T and B cells initially enter the same region.
The genetic material for the HIV virus, a retrovirus, is found in the middle of the virus' capsule. The helper t-cells, which are the body's immunological cells that trigger other lymphocyte cells to fight infection, are killed by the HIV virus.
The majority of the helper T cells are killed by HIV, which has an impact on the immune system of the infected person.
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