In which one of the following instances is a focused strategy keyed either to low-cost or differentiation not likely to work well?

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Answer 1

A focused strategy that is keyed either to low-cost or differentiation may not work well in the following instance:

When there is a lack of distinct customer segments that value either low-cost or differentiation.

A focused strategy aims to target a narrow market segment or niche with a product or service that is differetniated or offered at a lower cost than competitors. This approach can be effective when there are distinct customer segments that value either low-cost or differentiation.

However, if there is no clear segmentation of customers, or if the market is too small to support a focused strategy, then a low-cost or differentiation approach may not work well. In such instances, a broader market approach that offers a combination of both low-cost and differentiation may be more appropriate.

Therefore, it is important for businesses to carefully evaluate market conditions and customer preferences before implementing a focused strategy based on either low-cost or differentiation.

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positive represent the key to a company's long-run survival. (enter only one word.)

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Positive relationships with customers, employees, and other stakeholders represent the key to a company's long-run survival. When a company has positive relationships with its customers, they are more likely to remain loyal and continue to purchase from the company.

This can lead to repeat business and positive word-of-mouth advertising. Additionally, positive relationships with employees can lead to increased job satisfaction, productivity, and decreased turnover rates.Having positive relationships with stakeholders can also lead to increased support from the community, suppliers, and other business partners. This can lead to better deals and opportunities for the company, as well as increased trust and goodwill. Positive relationships with stakeholders can also help to mitigate potential issues and crises, as stakeholders are more likely to be understanding and supportive in times of difficulty.Overall, positive relationships are crucial for a company's long-term success and sustainability. They can help to build trust, loyalty, and support from customers, employees, and other stakeholders, which can ultimately lead to increased profitability and growth.

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Which of the following benefits cannot be excluded as a no additional cost service fringe benefit?
A. Free tax return preparation from a client.
B. Complementary dry cleaning for employees at a laundry company.
C. A car wash at an automobile dealership.
D. Free local phone service for phone company employees.

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A. Free tax return preparation from a client cannot be excluded as a no additional cost service fringe benefit.

"No additional cost service fringe benefits" are benefits provided by an employer to employees at no additional cost, which means that the employer incurs no substantial cost to provide them.

These benefits can be excluded from an employee's gross income and are not subject to payroll taxes. To be considered a "no additional cost service fringe benefit," the benefit must meet the following criteria:

The employer must provide the service to customers in the ordinary course of business.

The service must be offered to employees in the same manner as to customers.

The employer must incur no substantial additional cost to provide the service to employees.

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a reduction in personal income taxes increases aggregate demand through a. an increase in personal consumption. b. an increase in private savings. c. an increase in investment spending. d. an increase in national savings.

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A reduction in personal income taxes increases aggregate demand through an increase in personal consumption,

How do tax reductions increase demand ?

The reduction of personal income taxes results in an increase in people's disposable income, which can be utilized to purchase goods and services. Consequently, it is probable that their individual spending will rise, ultimately causing a surge in total demand. Subsequently, this surge in the need for goods and services has the potential to boost manufacturing and enhance the economy.

It is improbable that aggregate demand will go up with an upsurge in private savings as it means individuals are setting aside a larger portion of their earnings instead of consuming.

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the most significant function of advertising is to lower the overall cost of sales. true false

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The most significant function of advertising is to lower the overall cost of sales is false.

While advertising can have a positive impact on sales, its most significant function is not to lower the overall cost of sales. Advertising is a tool used by businesses to promote their products or services to potential customers and increase brand awareness. By creating persuasive messages and using various media channels to distribute them, advertising aims to influence consumer behavior and encourage people to buy a particular product or service.

Advertising can also help businesses differentiate themselves from competitors and build customer loyalty. However, advertising is just one component of a company's marketing strategy, which may also include market research, pricing, distribution, and sales promotions.

Therefore, the most significant function of advertising is not to lower the overall cost of sales, but rather to promote products or services, increase brand awareness, and ultimately drive sales.

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what are the long-term financing advantages to an organization that issues bonds? (select all that apply)

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There are several long-term financing advantages to an organization that issues bonds. First, bonds offer a reliable source of funding, as they typically have a fixed interest rate and maturity date.

This allows the organization to plan their finances and budget accordingly, without worrying about unexpected changes in interest rates. Additionally, bonds can be issued in large denominations, which allows organizations to raise significant amounts of capital quickly. Bonds also offer the advantage of being a less expensive source of financing compared to equity, as the interest paid on bonds is tax-deductible, unlike dividends paid to equity holders.

This makes it a cost-effective way for organizations to finance long-term projects. Finally, issuing bonds can also help to improve an organization's credit rating, as it demonstrates their ability to manage debt effectively. This can lead to lower borrowing costs in the future, further strengthening the organization's financial position.

Overall, issuing bonds provides several long-term financing advantages for organizations, making it a popular choice for those looking to raise capital.

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according to mcclelland, __________ power is used as a negative force. group of answer choices a. personalized b. referent c. aggressive d. abusive e. antisocial

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According to McClelland, abusive power is used as a negative force. David McClelland was a psychologist who developed the theory of needs, which suggests that people are motivated by three primary needs.

achievement, affiliation, and power. McClelland believed that power is a crucial driver of behavior, and that individuals who are high in the need for power are more likely to seek leadership positions and to use power in different ways.

McClelland identified two different types of power: personalized power and socialized power. Personalized power is based on a desire for personal gain, and individuals who exhibit this type of power are more likely to use it in a negative way, such as bullying or abusing others.

Socialized power, on the other hand, is based on a desire to help others and to achieve collective goals. Individuals who exhibit socialized power are more likely to use their power in a positive way, such as inspiring and motivating others.

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when negative wom spreads on a relatively large scale, it can result in _____.

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When negative wom (word-of-mouth) spreads on a relatively large scale, it can result in various negative consequences for individuals, organizations, and brands. Such negative consequences may include a decrease in sales, a loss of reputation, a decrease in customer loyalty, and a decrease in trust.

Negative wom can spread quickly through social media and other online platforms, which can magnify its impact and make it difficult to control. This is why it is essential for individuals, organizations, and brands to address negative wom promptly and appropriately. Addressing negative wom requires understanding the root cause of the negativity and addressing it directly, whether it is a product or service issue, a customer service issue, or an issue with messaging or branding. In doing so, individuals, organizations, and brands can minimize the impact of negative wom and potentially turn it into a positive by demonstrating a commitment to customer satisfaction and a willingness to listen and learn.
When negative Word of Mouth (WOM) spreads on a relatively large scale, it can result in significant damage to a company's reputation and decreased consumer trust. Negative WOM can stem from various factors, such as poor customer service, product quality issues, or unmet expectations. As consumers share their negative experiences with others, potential customers may be deterred from engaging with the brand. This can lead to decreased sales and a loss of market share.

To mitigate the negative impact of WOM, companies should proactively address customer concerns and invest in improving the overall customer experience. By consistently monitoring and analyzing customer feedback, businesses can identify patterns and take corrective measures to prevent the spread of negative WOM. Additionally, companies can engage with customers directly through social media and other communication channels to address concerns and build trust. Implementing a strong crisis management strategy can also help minimize the adverse effects of large-scale negative WOM on a company's reputation and business performance.

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a company purchased a building on march 1 for $360,000. the building had an estimated useful life of 30 years. harris prepares adjusting entries monthly. depreciation expense in march was

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To calculate the depreciation expense for the month of March, we first need to determine the monthly depreciation rate.

The formula to calculate the monthly depreciation rate is:

Monthly depreciation rate = (Cost of asset - Salvage value) / (Useful life in months)

In this case, the cost of the building was $360,000, the useful life is 30 years, which is equivalent to 360 months, and we will assume that there is no salvage value at the end of the useful life. Therefore, the monthly depreciation rate would be:

Monthly depreciation rate = ($360,000 - $0) / 360 months

Monthly depreciation rate = $1,000 per month

Now we can calculate the depreciation expense for the month of March, which would be:

Depreciation expense = Monthly depreciation rate x Number of months in service

Depreciation expense = $1,000 x 1 month

Depreciation expense = $1,000

Therefore, the depreciation expense for the month of March would be $1,000.

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as a substitute for the wage-incentive system, slaveowners most often used the

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As a substitute for the wage-incentive system, slaveowners most often used the punishment system, which relied on physical and psychological abuse to control and motivate enslaved individuals to work harder and faster. This included harsh whippings, confinement, and other forms of violence, as well as the threat of being sold away from their families and communities.

The wage-incentive system is a method of compensation for workers based on their productivity and the amount of work they complete. In this system, employees are given a base wage or salary, and then additional pay or bonuses are awarded based on their performance or the amount of work they produce.

In contrast, slavery involves forced labor, where individuals are considered the property of others and are not compensated for their work. Slaveowners did not need to use a wage-incentive system since they had complete control over the labor of their slaves. Instead, they used various methods of coercion and violence to force their slaves to work, often under harsh and inhumane conditions.

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on june 1, button co. borrowed $1,000 cash from national bank by signing a 120-day, 6% interest-bearing note. button will record this transaction with a credit to in the amount of . multiple choice question. notes payable; $1,000 cash; $1,060 cash; $1,000 notes payable; $1,060 notes payable; $1,020 cash; $1,020

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On June 1, Button Co. borrowed $1,000 cash from National Bank by signing a 120-day, 6% interest-bearing note. To record this transaction, Button Co. will need to create a journal entry to reflect the borrowed cash and the liability created due to the note.

In this case, Button Co. will debit the Cash account, as they have received cash from the bank, and credit the Notes Payable account, which represents the obligation to repay the borrowed funds plus interest. Since the principal amount borrowed is $1,000, the journal entry would be as follows:

Debit: Cash $1,000
Credit: Notes Payable $1,000

The interest on the note (6% for 120 days) is not recorded in the initial journal entry but will be accounted for when the note is repaid at the end of the 120-day period.

So, the correct answer to the multiple-choice question is: "Notes Payable; $1,000."

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according to the capital asset pricing model, the required return by investors on a security is a. inversely related to the market return. b. inversely related to the risk-free rate. c. inversely related to the firm's beta. d. none of these choices are correct.

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According to the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM), the required return by investors on a security is not inversely related to the market return, the risk-free rate, or the firm's beta.Option D

In fact, the CAPM proposes that the required return is directly related to the market return and the risk-free rate, and indirectly related to the firm's beta.

The CAPM is a widely used method of determining the expected return on an asset or investment. It assumes that investors are rational and risk-averse, and that they require a higher return on investments with higher levels of risk.

The model calculates the expected return based on the risk-free rate, the market return, and the asset's beta.

The risk-free rate is the rate of return on a risk-free asset such as government bonds, which investors can expect to earn without taking any risk. The market return is the average rate of return on all securities in the market. The asset's beta measures the volatility of the asset relative to the market.

According to the CAPM, the required return on an asset is equal to the risk-free rate plus the asset's beta multiplied by the market risk premium (the difference between the market return and the risk-free rate).

This equation suggests that the required return is directly related to the market return and the risk-free rate, and indirectly related to the asset's beta.

In conclusion, the answer to the question is d. None of these choices are correct, as the required return is directly related to the market return and the risk-free rate, and indirectly related to the asset's beta, according to the CAPM. So the Option D is correct.

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true/ false - organizational structure refers to the totality of a firm’s organization.

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True. Organizational structure refers to the overall framework of a firm's organization, including its hierarchy, reporting relationships, and division of labor. It encompasses all the different parts of the organization and how they work together to achieve the company's goals.

Organizational structure refers to the way a company is organized and how its roles, responsibilities, and resources are allocated and coordinated to achieve its goals. It encompasses the entire hierarchy of the company, including its divisions, departments, teams, and individual positions.

The structure is usually depicted in an organizational chart that illustrates the chain of command, reporting relationships, and functional responsibilities. By defining the roles and relationships within a company, the organizational structure helps to establish clarity, accountability, and efficiency in decision-making and operations.

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total fixed costs are $300. the selling price is $15. average variable costs are $5. the breakeven volume of production is ________ units.

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To calculate the breakeven volume of production, we need to use the formula:

Breakeven volume = Total fixed costs / (Selling price - Average variable costs)

Using the given values, we can plug in the numbers:

Breakeven volume = $300 / ($15 - $5)

Breakeven volume = $300 / $10

Breakeven volume = 30 units

The breakeven volume of production refers to the minimum number of units that a company needs to sell in order to cover all of its costs. In other words, it is the point at which total revenue equals total costs, and there is no profit or loss.

To calculate the breakeven volume, we need to take into account the total fixed costs, the selling price per unit, and the average variable cost per unit. Total fixed costs are the expenses that do not change regardless of the number of units produced, such as rent, salaries, or insurance. The selling price per unit is the amount that the company charges its customers for each product. The average variable cost per unit is the cost that varies depending on the number of units produced, such as raw materials or labor.

Using the formula mentioned above, we can calculate the breakeven volume of production for this scenario. We know that the total fixed costs are $300, the selling price per unit is $15, and the average variable cost per unit is $5. We can plug these values into the formula:

Breakeven volume = Total fixed costs / (Selling price - Average variable costs)

Breakeven volume = $300 / ($15 - $5)

Breakeven volume = $300 / $10

Breakeven volume = 30 units

Therefore, the breakeven volume of production is 30 units. This means that the company needs to sell at least 30 units in order to cover its total costs. If the company sells more than 30 units, it will start making a profit. If it sells less than 30 units, it will incur a loss.

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the quality of the film stock used can affect a filmed image’s contrast, which is

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The quality of the film stock used is one of the most important factors that can affect a filmed image's contrast.

Film stock is the medium used to capture and record the image, and its quality can significantly impact the final result. A high-quality film stock can produce a sharper, clearer image with a wider dynamic range, while a lower quality stock may result in a grainier, less defined image.

The contrast of an image is determined by the difference between the darkest and lightest parts of the picture. A high-quality film stock will have a wider range of tones, which allows for greater contrast between the shadows and highlights in the image. This can be particularly important when shooting in low light or high contrast situations, where the ability to capture fine details in both light and dark areas of the image can make a significant difference.

Overall, the quality of the film stock used is a crucial element in creating a high-quality, visually striking film. Choosing the right stock can help to ensure that the images captured are crisp, clear, and full of detail, with a rich, well-defined contrast that brings the story to life on screen.

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Which of the following functions is not performed by any of the 12 regional Federal Reserve banks?
A. Check clearing
B. Conducting economic research related to monetary policy
C. Issuing new currency and withdrawing damaged currency
D. Setting interest rates payable on time deposits

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D. Setting interest rates payable on time deposits is not performed by any of the 12 regional Federal Reserve banks.

The Federal Reserve System is the central banking system of the United States and is comprised of three key entities: the Board of Governors, the Federal Reserve Banks, and the Federal Open Market Committee (FOMC).

The 12 regional Federal Reserve Banks perform a variety of functions, including check clearing, conducting economic research related to monetary policy, and issuing new currency and withdrawing damaged currency.

However, setting interest rates payable on time deposits is not within the purview of the Federal Reserve Banks.

This responsibility falls under the authority of individual banks and financial institutions, who set interest rates based on market conditions and their own financial objectives. The Federal Reserve Banks can influence interest rates through their monetary policy decisions, but they do not set rates directly.

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which of the following statements should the salesperson use if she wished to ignore the objection? A. acknowledge and convert the objection. postponeD. agree and neutralizeD. denial. ignore

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If a salesperson wished to ignore an objection raised by a potential customer, they should simply ignore the objection and continue with their pitch.

However, this approach may not be effective as it does not address the customer's concern or hesitation. Ignoring the objection may also come across as dismissive or uninterested in the customer's needs. It is important for salespeople to acknowledge and address objections raised by customers. They can do this by empathizing with the customer's concern and then providing information or a solution to address it. Ignoring an objection can lead to a missed opportunity to build trust and rapport with the customer, and potentially lose a sale.

When a salesperson wishes to ignore an objection, they should opt for option E, which is to "ignore." This means they would continue with their sales pitch without addressing the customer's concern. Other methods like acknowledging and converting the objection (A), agreeing and neutralizing (C), or postponing (B) all involve addressing the objection in some manner. Ignoring an objection may not be the best approach in all situations, as it can lead to customer dissatisfaction. However, in certain scenarios, it may be appropriate to maintain the focus on the product or service being offered.

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In deciding how much of a role the guest should play in co-producing an experience, a. the organization must decide. b. the guest must decide.

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In deciding how much of a role the guest should play in co-producing an experience, both the organization and the guest must decide.

The organization should create opportunities for guest involvement, while the guest ultimately chooses the level of their participation.

In deciding how much of a role the guest should play in co-producing an experience, both the organization and the guest must decide. It is important for the organization to establish clear guidelines and expectations for guest involvement, while also allowing room for flexibility and creativity.

At the same time, the guest must also be willing to actively participate and contribute to the co-creation process in order for the experience to be successful. Ultimately, it is a collaborative effort between both parties to co-produce a memorable and engaging experience.

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siddiqui company sells a product which has a unit sales price of $9, unit variable cost of $6 and total fixed costs of $360,000. the number of units the company must sell to break even is

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Siddiqui company needs to sell 120,000 units to break even and cover its total fixed costs.

to calculate the break-even point, we need to determine the number of units that the company must sell to cover its total fixed costs and variable costs, while generating zero profit or loss.

the contribution margin per unit can be calculated as the difference between the unit sales price and the unit variable cost:

contribution margin per unit = unit sales price - unit variable cost                                = $9 - $6 = $3

using this contribution margin per unit, we can determine the number of units that need to be sold to cover the total fixed costs:

break-even point (in units) = total fixed costs / contribution margin per unit                                          = $360,000 / $3= 120,000 units

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Which type of product is a basic or necessary item that is available almost everywhere?A) emergency productB) stapleC) impulse productD) shopping productE) unsought product

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The type of product that is a basic or necessary item that is available almost everywhere is a staple product (option B).

A staple product is a basic or necessary item that is purchased frequently and is typically low in cost. These products are considered essential to daily life and are often bought without much thought or consideration. Examples of staple products include food items like bread, milk, and eggs, as well as household items like soap, toilet paper, and cleaning supplies.

One of the defining characteristics of a staple product is its widespread availability. These products are typically sold in a variety of stores and are easy to find in most areas. This is because they are in high demand and are considered essential to daily life.

Staple products are also important to retailers because they are often purchased on a regular basis, which can help to generate consistent revenue. Many retailers use staple products as "loss leaders," selling them at a low price in order to attract customers to their store and generate additional sales.

Overall, staple products are an important part of the retail landscape and play a critical role in meeting the basic needs of consumers. They are essential items that are widely available and often purchased on a regular basis, making them a key component of many retailers' business strategies.

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which statement best describes personal selling?multiple choiceit is primarily informational communication, not persuasive communication.it includes encoding, while advertising includes only decoding.it is primarily indirect communication.it reaches a larger audience than advertising.it is the two-way flow of communication between a buyer and a seller.

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It is the two-way flow of communication between a buyer and a seller: best describes personal selling. Thus, option D is the correct option.

Through a sales team, personal selling entails making direct contact with both current and new clients. Its goal is to develop solid communication with clients in addition to engaging and persuading them to purchase a good or service. Personal selling gives the sales process a more intimate feel.

The sales team is often well-educated and skilled at handling consumer questions and resolving issues. By coordinating the activities of the firm, they determine the wants of the consumers and satisfy them. The capacity of the sales force to build solid and long-lasting client connections is essential for the success of personal selling.

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the term that describes practical measures used to limit a criminal’s ability to commit crime is

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The term that describes practical measures used to limit a criminal's ability to commit crime is "crime prevention."

Crime prevention refers to various strategies and measures employed to reduce the likelihood of criminal activity, enhance community safety, and deter potential offenders.

These measures can include increased surveillance, target hardening, and community-based programs that promote social cohesion and address the root causes of criminal behavior.

By implementing effective crime prevention strategies, communities can work together to create safer environments and reduce the overall rate of crime.

Examples of crime prevention measures include increased police presence in high-crime areas, the installation of surveillance cameras, and the use of security systems and alarms in homes and businesses.

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josh edwards was judged at fault in an automobile accident. three others were awarded damages of $200,000, $100,000, and $100,000. josh has 100/400 bodily injury liability coverage. what amount, if any, would not be covered by his insurance?

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it appears that Josh Edwards has a bodily injury liability coverage of 100/400. This means that his insurance policy will cover up to $100,000 per person and up to $400,000 per accident in the event of bodily injury to others resulting from an automobile accident where he is deemed at fault.

In this scenario, three people were awarded damages of $200,000, $100,000, and $100,000, totaling $400,000. Since Josh's insurance policy only covers up to $100,000 per person, he would be responsible for the remaining $300,000.

Therefore, the amount not covered by Josh's insurance in this case would be $300,000. It is important for drivers to have sufficient liability coverage to protect themselves in the event of an accident resulting in significant damages or injuries.

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Which of the following laws protect employees against losses due to work-related injury: __Patient Protection and Affordable Care ActWorkers' CompensationPayroll register

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The law that protects employees against losses due to work-related injury is Workers' Compensation.

It is a state-mandated insurance program that provides benefits to employees who suffer job-related injuries or illnesses. The benefits include medical expenses, lost wages, and rehabilitation costs. Workers' compensation laws vary from state to state, but in general, they provide benefits to employees who are injured on the job, regardless of who is at fault for the accident.

Employers are required to carry workers' compensation insurance, and employees who are covered by the program are prohibited from suing their employer for damages related to the workplace injury. The Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act (ACA) is a federal law that provides health insurance coverage to individuals and families, but it does not specifically protect employees against work-related injury. The payroll register is a record of all employee compensation and deductions and is used for tax and accounting purposes.

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Which of the following is not a reason why Rent the Runway appeals to designers?
The firm brings in younger customers, averaging about a decade younger than department store customers.
All of the above are reasons why Rent the Runway appeals to designers.
Most Rent the Runway customers rent brands they've never bought before.
Some designers have used Rent the Runway to test new looks.
The firm introduces high-end designer brands to new customers.

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All of the above are reasons why Rent the Runway appeals to designers.

Rent the Runway is an online service that allows customers to rent high-end designer dresses and accessories for special occasions. The company appeals to designers for several reasons, including the fact that it brings in younger customers who may not have been exposed to their brands before. Additionally, Rent the Runway customers are more likely to rent brands they've never bought before, which can help designers expand their customer base. Some designers also use Rent the Runway to test new looks and gauge customer interest before introducing them into their regular product lines. Finally, Rent the Runway helps to introduce high-end designer brands to new customers who may not have been able to afford them otherwise.

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two loans are for the same amount at the same interest rate. one is paid off in 14 years; the other, in 19 years. (a) which loan results in more of each payment being directed toward principal?

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When two loans are for the same amount at the same interest rate, the one that is paid off in a shorter time frame will result in more of each payment being directed toward principal.

This is because the longer the loan term, the more interest accrues over time, and the less of each payment goes toward paying down the principal. In this scenario, the loan that is paid off in 14 years will result in more of each payment being directed toward principal compared to the loan that is paid off in 19 years. This is because the 14-year loan has a shorter term, meaning that the interest has less time to accrue, and more of each payment can go toward paying down the principal.

It's important to note that when choosing between loan terms, it's crucial to consider factors such as monthly payments, total interest paid, and overall affordability. While a shorter loan term may result in more of each payment being directed toward principal, it may also result in higher monthly payments that may not be affordable for all borrowers.

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when a news medium focuses on a narrow audience defined by special interest, they are engaging in

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When a news medium focuses on a narrow audience defined by special interest, they are engaging in niche journalism or specialized journalism.

Niche journalism, also known as specialized journalism, refers to the practice of targeting a specific audience with specialized interests or topics. Instead of covering general news that appeals to a broad audience, niche journalism caters to a specific group of individuals who share a particular interest or passion.

This approach allows news media outlets to focus on a specific subject matter, such as technology, finance, sports, health, or entertainment, and provide in-depth coverage and analysis within that specific field. Niche journalism aims to deliver content that is highly relevant and valuable to the target audience, often offering expertise and insights that may not be found in general news sources.

The rise of the internet and digital media platforms has facilitated the growth of niche journalism. Online publications and blogs have emerged, catering to specialized interests and attracting dedicated followers. These outlets can provide more comprehensive coverage and delve into specific topics, appealing to readers seeking a deeper understanding of their chosen subject area.

Overall, niche journalism plays a vital role in diversifying news sources and ensuring that specific interests are adequately covered. It allows individuals to access in-depth reporting and analysis tailored to their passions, providing a more personalized news experience.

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Having a product or service that is faster, cheaper and better is not enough to make it compelling. (T/F)

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True. While being faster, cheaper, and better than competitors is important, it is not enough to make a product or service compelling. A compelling product or service must also meet a specific need or solve a problem for the target audience. It should have unique features, benefits, or value propositions that set it apart and make it stand out in the market.

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a higher interest rate consumption, investment, and , which aggregate demand

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A higher interest rate tends to decrease consumption, investment, and aggregate demand.

When interest rates increase, borrowing becomes more expensive, which can discourage individuals and businesses from taking out loans and making investments. This can lead to a decrease in consumer spending and investment, which in turn can reduce aggregate demand in the economy.

With lower demand, businesses may reduce their output, leading to lower economic growth and potentially higher unemployment. On the other hand, lower interest rates can stimulate consumption, investment, and aggregate demand by making borrowing cheaper and encouraging spending and investment.

Central banks often adjust interest rates as a monetary policy tool to achieve their macroeconomic goals, such as controlling inflation or promoting economic growth.

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According to the accompanying graph, when the government imposes a price ceiling of $25 the quantity of goods that will be traded is 701 S A. 200. 60- B. 0. 50- C. 100. Price 40- D. 150. 30- Price

Answers

According to the accompanying graph, when the government imposes a price ceiling of $25, the quantity of goods that will be traded is 100 (option C). This is because a price ceiling is a maximum price that the government sets below the equilibrium price.

In this case, the equilibrium price is at $30 and the equilibrium quantity is at 150. When the government imposes a price ceiling of $25, it is below the equilibrium price, which means that the quantity demanded will exceed the quantity supplied. This results in a shortage of goods in the market. At a price of $25, the quantity demanded is 100, which is the point where the demand curve intersects the price ceiling. However, the quantity supplied is only 60, which is the point where the supply curve intersects the price ceiling. This creates a shortage of 40 units (100 - 60 = 40). Overall, a price ceiling has a negative impact on the market, as it creates a shortage of goods and can lead to inefficient allocation of resources. While it may benefit consumers by keeping prices low, it can harm producers by reducing their profits and reducing incentives for them to produce more goods.

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Which of the following are true concerning the Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI)? (Select TWO)
answer choices
Roaming profiles must be configured to allow mobile users to keep their same desktop environment across systems.
In the event of a widespread malware infection, the administrator can quickly reimage all user desktops on a few central servers.
User desktop environments are centrally hosted on servers instead of on individual desktop systems.
In the event of a widespread malware infection, the administrator can reimage user desktops by pushing an image out to each user desktop system over the network.
User desktop environments are provided by individual desktop systems instead of by remote servers.

Answers

The correct answers are:

User desktop environments are centrally hosted on servers instead of on individual desktop systems.Roaming profiles must be configured to allow mobile users to keep their same desktop environment across systems.

Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI) is a technology that allows users to access their desktop environment and applications from a remote server or data center, rather than on their local desktop system. User desktop environments are centrally hosted on servers instead of on individual desktop systems, which makes it easier for administrators to manage and maintain desktop environments. Roaming profiles must be configured to allow mobile users to keep their same desktop environment across systems, ensuring that users have a consistent experience regardless of which device they are using. In the event of a widespread malware infection, the administrator can quickly reimage all user desktops on a few central servers.

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