Jasmine Flowers must raise $434 million for its future expansion. To do so, Jasmine expects to issue new common stock. Investment bankers have informed the company the flotation costs will be 6.5 percent of the total amount issued plus $588,000 in additional costs associated with the issue. Jasmine can issue its stock for $70 per share. Determine how many shares Jasmine must sell to net $434 million after flotation costs. Round your answer to the nearest whole number.

Answers

Answer 1

For Jasmine Flowers to generate a profit of $434 million after deducting the expenditures associated with its IPO, the company has to sell about 6,602,000 shares.

Investment banks charge floatation costs for new securities. It is usually a proportion of the securities offered and includes issuance charges. Jasmine Flowers needs $434 million to expand. Jasmine anticipates issuing fresh common stock. Investment bankers notified the company that flotation charges will be 6.5 percent of the total amount offered plus $588,000 in issue-related costs. Jasmine can sell shares for $70. New share sales net the difference between gross proceeds and flotation costs.

The formula for calculating the net proceeds is as follows:

Net Proceeds = Gross Proceeds - Flotation Costs

In this case, Jasmine Flowers needs to raise $434 million after flotation costs.

Therefore,Net Proceeds = $434 million

Flotation Costs = 6.5% of the total amount issued + $588,000

Flotation Costs = 0.065($434 million) + $588,000 = $28,210,000

Gross Proceeds = Net Proceeds + Flotation Costs

Gross Proceeds = $434 million + $28,210,000 = $462,210,000

The issue price per share is $70 per share.

Therefore, the number of shares Jasmine Flowers must sell to net $434 million after flotation costs are:

Number of Shares = Gross Proceeds / Issue Price

Number of Shares = $462,210,000 / $70 per share ≈ 6,602,000 shares

Hence, Jasmine Flowers must sell approximately 6,602,000 shares to net $434 million after flotation costs.

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Related Questions

Under which of the following circumstances has a North Carolina listing broker violated their agency relationship with a seller-client?

A. The listing broker presents the seller with an offer after a contract is pending on the listed property.

B. The listing broker presents the seller with an offer three (3) days after receiving it from the buyer agent.

C. A broker employed by the listing broker presents an offer from their sister and her spouse without disclosing the relationship.

D. The listing broker presents the seller with a low price offer and, at the same time, tells the seller that a higher offer from a different buyer is expected.











Which of the following statements is true regarding the practice of designated agency under North Carolina Real Estate Commission rules?

A. Designated agency provides an optional method of practicing dual agency for real estate firms.

B. The designated agency concept may be utilized by a firm that does not practice dual agency.

C. Under designated agency, the level of representation provided by a firm to seller and buyer clients is less than that typically provided under traditional disclosed dual

agency.

D. Designated agency does not permit a designated agent to protect the confidentiality of personal information about a client represented by the agent.









When preparing to list for sale an owner-occupied residential property in North Carolina, the listing agent should

A. determine what the owner paid for the property and the cost of any major improvements.

B. complete the Residential Property and Owners' Association Disclosure Statement for the property.

C. determine whether the federally required lead-based paint disclosure is applicable.

D. examine the property tax records to determine the square footage of the house.

Answers

The correct answer is: C. A broker employed by listing broker presents an offer from their sister and her spouse without disclosing relationship. circumstance has North Carolina listing broker violated their relationship with a seller-client

A broker is an individual or firm that acts as an intermediary between buyers and sellers in financial transactions, such as securities, commodities, or real estate. Brokers facilitate the buying and selling process by matching buyers with sellers, executing trades, or earning a commission or fee for their services. They provide market expertise, help negotiate prices, ensure compliance with regulations, and offer advice to their clients. Brokers can specialize in specific markets, such as stockbrokers in the stock market or real estate brokers in the property market, and they play a crucial role in facilitating efficient and transparent transactions.

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decimaly What is the Fout Firm Concentration Ratio? Is this market concentrated?

Answers

The four-firm concentration ratio is the percentage of total sales or market share of the top four firms in an industry.

It is used to measure the degree of competition in an industry and determine whether the market is concentrated or not. A concentration ratio of less than 50% is generally considered low and indicates greater competition in the industry, while a ratio nearing 100% would indicate a monopoly.

Based on the search results, it is clear that the four-firm concentration ratio is a commonly used measure of market concentration. The ratio can be calculated by summing the total sales or market share of the top four firms in the industry and dividing by the total. The degree of competition can vary depending on the concentration ratio, and there is no distinct ratio that can be used to separate one market structure from another.

In order to determine whether a market is concentrated or not, it is important to consider other factors in addition to the concentration ratio, such as barriers to entry, product differentiation, and the number of firms in the industry.

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Hammerstein Inc, has ZERO debt and has a tax rate of 30 s. The firm's market debtequity is 0.90. The CFO now decided to increase their debt load which will result in a market beta of 0.30. Using the information above, calculate a new levered Beta with the new leveroge omount of 0.90.
Multiple Choice
0.92
1.09
1.71
0.49
1.29

Answers

The new levered Beta with the leverage amount of 0.90 is approximately 0.49.

To calculate the new levered Beta, we can use the formula:

Levered Beta = Unlevered Beta × (1 + (1 - Tax Rate) × (Debt/Equity))

Given the information provided:

- Unlevered Beta: 0.30 (as stated in the question)

- Tax Rate: 30%

- Market Debt/Equity: 0.90

Plugging in the values into the formula:

Levered Beta = 0.30 × (1 + (1 - 0.30) × 0.90)

Simplifying the equation:

Levered Beta = 0.30 × (1 + 0.70 × 0.90)

Levered Beta = 0.30 × (1 + 0.63)

Levered Beta = 0.30 × 1.63

Levered Beta = 0.489

Therefore, the new levered Beta with the leverage amount of 0.90 is approximately 0.49.

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The opportunity cost to the United States of placing a man on the moon was
a. the loss of government revenues that were allocated to the mission.
b. the cost of all production involved in the space program.
c. the loss of utility from the highest valued bundle of products that had to be forgone
because of the moon mission.
d. less than zero, because the long-run benefit of the project will be greater than the cost.

Answers

The opportunity cost to the United States of placing a man on the moon was the loss of utility from the highest valued bundle of products that had to be forgone because of the moon mission. The correct answer is option C.

The United States’ space program to put a man on the moon from 1961 to 1975 was an enormous achievement for the country. The mission required massive resources, including millions of employees, funds, and materials, that were reallocated from other government programs. The opportunity cost of placing a man on the moon refers to the value of the next best alternative that had to be forgone in order to pursue the moon mission. In this case, the opportunity cost is the loss of utility or satisfaction from the highest valued bundle of products or services that could have been produced or consumed with the resources allocated to the moon mission.

Choosing option c. "the loss of utility from the highest valued bundle of products that had to be forgone because of the moon mission" as the answer acknowledges that the resources, including financial, technological, and human resources, used for the moon mission could have been allocated to other productive activities. By focusing on the moon mission, resources were diverted from alternative uses, and the foregone production and consumption possibilities represent the opportunity cost.

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Within a company, a leader who is concerned with his or her people ______. maintains a fair salary range.

Answers

A leader who is concerned with their people maintains a fair salary range for several important reasons. First and foremost, a fair salary range ensures that employees are compensated appropriately for their skills, experience, and contributions.

When employees feel that they are being paid fairly, it fosters a sense of trust, motivation, and job satisfaction. It reduces the likelihood of resentment or demotivation due to perceived inequities in compensation. Furthermore, maintaining a fair salary range helps attract and retain talented individuals within the company. Competitive salaries that align with industry standards and reflect the value of employees' work increase the company's ability to attract top talent. It also reduces the risk of losing valuable employees to competitors who may offer better compensation packages.

Fair compensation practices also contribute to a positive company culture. When employees perceive that the company values their contributions and provides fair compensation, it creates a sense of fairness, transparency, and respect. This, in turn, enhances employee morale, engagement, and loyalty. Lastly, a fair salary range promotes internal equity and consistency. It ensures that employees with similar roles and responsibilities receive comparable compensation, preventing feelings of inequality or favoritism within the organization.

Overall, maintaining a fair salary range demonstrates a leader's commitment to their people's well-being, and it has a significant impact on employee satisfaction, retention, and overall organizational success.

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The cost of preferred stock is similar to the preferred stock valuation except that in the cost of the preferred stock, the price is adjusted for:
a. Inflation cost
b. Intrinsic cost
c. Flotation cost
d. Pandemic cost

Answers

The cost of preferred stock is adjusted for flotation cost, not inflation cost, intrinsic cost, or pandemic cost.

The cost of preferred stock refers to the required return or yield that investors expect to receive from holding preferred stock. It is determined by the dividend payments and the price of the preferred stock.

Flotation cost, also known as issuance cost or underwriting cost, is the cost incurred by a company when issuing new securities, including preferred stock. It includes expenses such as investment banking fees, legal fees, and administrative costs.

Flotation costs reduce the net proceeds received from issuing preferred stock and therefore need to be adjusted in the cost calculation.

Inflation cost, intrinsic cost, and pandemic cost are not directly related to the issuance and valuation of preferred stock and are not typically considered in determining the cost of preferred stock.

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2 points What is considered the best capital budgeting method when deciding between two mutually exclusive projects? CAPM IRR NPV YTM

Answers

The best capital budgeting method when deciding between two mutually exclusive projects is the Net Present Value (NPV) method The correct option is C).

The Net Present Value (NPV) method is considered the best capital budgeting method when choosing between mutually exclusive projects. NPV takes into consideration the time value of money by discounting future cash flows back to their present value.

By subtracting the initial investment from the present value of expected cash inflows, NPV determines the net value created by the project. A positive NPV indicates that the project is expected to generate more value than the cost of capital, making it a favorable investment.

Comparing the NPVs of different projects allows for an objective evaluation and selection of the project that maximizes shareholder wealth. The correct answer is C).

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Discuss and demonstrate in detail how in a perfect capital market, dividend policy of a firm has no effect on its stock price.

Answers

In a perfect capital market, dividend policy has no effect on a firm's stock price because investors can easily sell their shares to get cash if they want dividends.

In a perfect capital market, investors can buy and sell shares of stock instantly and without any cost. This means that if a firm announces that it will be paying a dividend, investors can simply sell their shares and get the cash immediately.

Conversely, if a firm announces that it will not be paying a dividend, investors can simply hold onto their shares and wait for the company to reinvest the earnings in ways that will increase the share price in the future.

Because investors can easily get cash either by selling their shares or by waiting for the share price to appreciate, the dividend policy of a firm has no impact on its stock price.

The dividend irrelevance theory was first proposed by Miller and Modigliani in 1961. They argued that the value of a firm is determined by its underlying assets and its investment opportunities, not by its dividend policy.

This theory has been challenged by some empirical studies, but it remains an important concept in corporate finance.

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You bought a stock for $23.81. One year later, just after the stock paid a dividend of $1.53, you sell the stock for $30. What is your capital gain rate on this investment?

(Provide your answer in % with two decimal places, e.g. if your answer is 9.99%, only enter 9.99, do NOT enter 9.99% or 0.0999 or 0.1)

Answers

The capital gain rate on this investment is 19.57%, or rounded to two decimal places, 19.57%.

To calculate the capital gain rate, we need to determine the gain or loss on the investment and then divide it by the original cost.

First, let's calculate the gain on the investment. The stock was bought for $23.81 and sold for $30, resulting in a gain of $30 - $23.81 = $6.19.

Next, we need to consider the dividend received. Since the dividend was received just before selling the stock, it should be subtracted from the gain. Therefore, the adjusted gain is $6.19 - $1.53 = $4.66.

Now, we can calculate the capital gain rate by dividing the adjusted gain by the original cost. The capital gain rate is ($4.66 / $23.81) * 100 = 19.57%.

However, the capital gain rate is usually expressed as a percentage of the original investment, not the cost. So, to calculate the capital gain rate on the investment, we divide the adjusted gain by the original cost and multiply by 100. The capital gain rate on this investment is ($4.66 / $23.81) * 100 = 19.57%.

Therefore, the capital gain rate on this investment is 19.57%, or rounded to two decimal places, 19.57%.

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Alex has been hired as the Quality Manager with HUSKY Auto Services. In her first meeting with the company's team, she emphasized on applying the dimensions of quality for their auto services. LIST and EXPLAIN FIVE (5 ONLY) of the dimensions of Service quality.

Answers

The five dimensions of service quality that Alex emphasized for HUSKY Auto Services are as follows: Reliability: Reliability refers to the ability of the service provider to deliver their promised service dependably and accurately.

It involves consistently meeting customer expectations, delivering services on time, and providing reliable solutions to problems or complaints.

Assurance: Assurance involves building trust and confidence in customers by demonstrating knowledge, competence, and professionalism. It includes having qualified and well-trained staff, clearly communicating service procedures and policies, and instilling a sense of security in customers regarding the service being provided.

Tangibles: Tangibles relate to the physical elements or attributes associated with the service. It includes factors such as the appearance of the service facility, the cleanliness and functionality of equipment, and the professionalism of staff attire. These tangible cues contribute to customers' perception of the service quality.

Responsiveness: Responsiveness refers to the willingness and promptness of service providers to help customers and address their specific needs or requests. It involves promptly attending to customer inquiries, providing personalized attention, and being flexible in adapting to customer preferences.

Empathy: Empathy refers to the service provider's ability to understand and relate to the customers' feelings, needs, and concerns. It involves showing genuine care, actively listening to customers, and being responsive to their emotional states. Empathy helps create a personalized and satisfying experience for customers.

By focusing on these dimensions of service quality, Alex aims to enhance customer satisfaction, build loyalty, and establish HUSKY Auto Services as a reliable and reputable brand in the auto service industry.

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a) Mr. Smith buys a $1,000 bond in the secondary market which carries a semiannual coupon of 10%. The bond has 9 years until maturity. If the yield-to-maturity in today's market is 9%, what price should Mr. Smith pay for the bond?
b) A corporation issues a special 20-year bond that has no coupons. Rather, interest Will be accumulated on the bond at a rate of 11% per year (EAR) for the life of the bond. At the time of maturity, the total value of the bond will be paid off, including What is the current price of the bond if the yield is 10% ?

Answers

Mr. Smith should pay $596.59 for the bond. The current price of the bond is $497.18 if the yield is 10%.

a) The current price of the bond can be calculated using the present value of the expected cash flows. In this case, the expected cash flows are the coupon payments of $50 (10% of $1,000/2) every six months for 18 periods (9 years x 2 semi-annual periods). At the end of the 18th period, the bond's face value of $1,000 will be paid back.Using a financial calculator or Excel, the price of the bond can be calculated as follows:N

= 18 x 2

= 36I/Y

= 4.5% (9%/2)

PV = ?PMT = $50FV = $1,000Solving for PV, we get:

PVA = $1,000/(1 + 0.045)^36

= $596.59. Therefore, Mr. Smith should pay $596.59 for the bond.

b) The bond can be considered as a zero-coupon bond. The current price of the bond can be calculated using the present value of the bond's face value at maturity and the present value of the accumulated interest. Using a financial calculator or Excel, the price of the bond can be calculated as follows:N

= 20I/Y

= 5% (10%/2)

PV = ?FV

= $1,000 x (1 + 0.11)^20

= $7,383.66Solving for PV, we get:

PV Bond = $7,383.66/(1 + 0.05)^40

= $497.18. Therefore, the current price of the bond is $497.18 if the yield is 10%.

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Investment A yields 6% simple interest for six years. Investment B yields 6%, compounded annually, for eight years. Investment C yields 6% simple interest for eight years. Which one of the following statements is correct if all three individuals invested the same amount of money on the same day?
A) Investment A will provide a higher return than Investment C at the end of three years.
B) Irvestment B will provide a higher return than either Investment A or C at the end of four years.
C) Investment C will provide a higher return than either investment A or B at the end of six years.
D) Investments A and C will provide a higher return than Investment B at the end of six years.
E) None of the above.

Answers

None of the statements about investment can be determined definitively with the information provided. Hence, based on the analysis, the correct answer is  option (E).

To determine which investment will provide a higher return, we need to calculate the future value for each investment based on the given interest rates and time periods.

(A) The statement (A) cannot be determined based on the given information, as we don't know the interest rate and time period for Investment C beyond eight years.

(B) The statement (B) cannot be determined based on the given information, as we don't know the interest rate and time period for Investment A beyond six years.

(C) This statement also, cannot be determined based on the given information, as we don't know the interest rate and time period for Investment B beyond eight years.

(D) Investment A yields simple interest for six years, while Investment B compounds annually for eight years. Since Investment B compounds, it will yield a higher return compared to Investment A. However, Investment C also yields simple interest for eight years, so both Investments A and C will provide a higher return than Investment B. Hence, it is also incorrect.

(E) Hence, based on the analysis, the correct answer is option (E). None of the statements about investment can be determined definitively with the information provided.

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QUESTION ONE (20 Marks)
Explain the nature of financial risk in the public sector and identify, evaluate and recommend appropriate financial risk mitigation strategies, including those relating to public borrowing and financial market risks.

QUESTION TWO (20 Marks)
Describe the budgetary framework, budget cycle and budget processes, including the nature of performance measures, target setting, budget monitoring, budget feedback and control

QUESTION THREE (20 Marks)
Evaluate the PFM system using the Public Expenditure and Financial Accountability (PEFA) framework

QUESTION FOUR (20 Marks)
Describe the nature of public sector capital projects including the approval process, performance measures, and target setting, paying particular attention to public/private partnerships

QUESTION FIVE (20 Marks)
A summary of the general fund transactions for the city of Wautoma for the year ended December 31, 2020 is as follows:
a. A budget was approved, showing estimated revenues of $900,000, appropriations of $875,000, transfers-in of $27,000 from other funds, and required transfers of $20,000 to other funds.
b. The reserve for encumbrance at the end of 2019 was $15,000. Amounts encumbered in the prior period are included in appropriations for 2020.
c. Property taxes for $650,000 were levied. In past years, 1% of the property taxes levied proved uncollectible.
d. Encumbrances for $250,000 had not been liquidated by the end of 2019. invoices for all these items received in 2020 and totaled $24,000.
e. Collections from property taxes totaled $644,000 of which $20,000 represented collections on delinquent taxes. Delinquent taxes of $8,000 remain uncollected, on which a $3,000 allowance is carried. Remaining taxes receivable – current and taxes receivable – delinquent were converted into taxes receivable – delinquent and tax liens receivable, respectively.
f. Purchase orders totaling $700,000 were issue. Subsequently, invoices were received amounting to $685,000 for items estimated to cost $680,000. included were supplies for $10,000.
g. An ending inventory of supplies amounted to $2,000 for which the fund balance should be reserved.
h. A tract of land was purchased for $250,000. Payment was made from the general fund, in whose appropriations the item had been included. The amount had not been encumbered. The purchase was made with the intent of reselling the land to a suitable developer.
i. Wautoma received $300,000 as its part of federal revenue sharing programs. Grants-in-aid of $60,000 due from the state governments are recorded. None of the grants is expenditure driven.
j. Required transfers of $20,000 are made to other funds.
k. A $50,000 payment is made on a mortgage payable. The payment includes $21,000 of interest and a principal payment of $29,000.
l. An offer was received from a land developer who will pay $380,000 for the land acquired by the city in item (h). the sale is approved. The developer remits $100,0000 with a note due in 90 days, bearing 8% interest. Any gain is to be considered revenue.
m. Transfers received from other funds amount to $23,000.
n. The developer in item (l) remits payments for the note plus interest.

REQUIRE
1. Prepare journal entries of record the general fund transactions
2. Prepare closing entries for the general fund

Answers

The nature of financial risk in the public sector involves the potential for adverse financial outcomes due to various factors such as economic volatility, budget deficits and reliance on external financing.

What are appropriate financial risk mitigation strategies?

To mitigate financial risks in the public sector, several strategies can be implemented. One key approach is to establish robust risk management frameworks that identify, assess, and monitor financial risks. This involves regularly analyzing economic indicators, fiscal policies, and market conditions to anticipate potential risks and take necessary actions.

Also, diversifying funding sources and maintaining a balanced debt portfolio can reduce the vulnerability of public entities to fluctuations in interest rates and credit markets. Governments can also consider implementing prudent borrowing practices such as conducting thorough credit assessments and negotiating favorable terms and conditions with lenders.

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A widget producer is in its first year of operations and plan to sell one widget at $25 per unit. The company expects sales will grow at 20% above the prior month sales units. Projected sale units is 100 for April. The company wishes to have the number of projected sales units for the current month plus 10% of the prior month's projected sale units available for each month. How many units would the company plan to have available for May? A widget producer is in its first year of operations and plan to sell one widget at $25 per unit. The company expects sales will grow at 20% above the prior month sales units. Projected sale units is 100 for April. The company wishes to have the number of projected sales units for the current month plus 10% of the prior month's projected sale units available for each month. How many units would the company plan to have available for May? 100 120 130 132 None of these options

Answers

The company would plan to have 132 units available for May.

To calculate the projected sales units for May, we start with the projected sales units for April, which is 100. Then we add 10% of the prior month's projected sales units, which is 10% of 100 = 10. Adding these two values, we get 100 + 10 = 110.

Since the company expects sales to grow at 20% above the prior month's sales units, we calculate 20% of 110, which is 0.20 * 110 = 22. Adding this value to the previous result, we get 110 + 22 = 132.

Therefore, the company would plan to have 132 units available for May.

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A share of stock in a firm that has just paid a $3 dividend. This dividend is expected to grow by 3 percent for three years (e.g., year 1, year2, year 3) and then experience no growth through year 5. In year 6 and year 7 it will grow at 2 percent and then 1 percent forever. What is the earliest year that you can find the future selling price? Explain fully.

Answers

The earliest year to find the future selling price can be determined by calculating the present value of all future cash flows associated with the stock.

1. First, let's calculate the present value of the dividend payments for years 1 to 3. We will use the formula for the present value of a growing annuity: PV = C * (1 - (1 + g)^-n) / (r - g) Where: - PV is the present value of the dividend payments - C is the dividend payment in year 1, which is $3 - g is the growth rate, which is 3% - r is the required rate of return, which we will assume as 10% - n is the number of years, which is 3 Using these values, we can calculate the present value of the dividend payments for years 1 to 3: PV1-3 = 3 * (1 - (1 + 0.03)^-3) / (0.1 - 0.03) = 3 * (1 - 1.092727) / 0.07 = 3 * (0.907273) / 0.07 ≈ 38.9655 2. Next, let's calculate the present value of the dividend payments for years 6 and 7, using the same formula: PV6-7 = 3 * (1 - (1 + 0.02)^-2) / (0.1 - 0.02) = 3 * (1 - 1.0404) / 0.08 = 3 * (0.9596) / 0.08 ≈ 35.97 3. Finally, let's calculate the present value of the dividend payments from year 8 onwards, when the growth rate is 1% and assuming a constant dividend payment of $3: PV8+ = 3 / (0.1 - 0.01) = 3 / 0.09 ≈ 33.33 4. Now, let's add up the present values of all the dividend payments: PV = PV1-3 + PV6-7 + PV8+ ≈ 38.9655 + 35.97 + 33.33 ≈ 108.2655 So, the present value of all the future cash flows is approximately $108.2655. This represents the current value of the stock. To find the future selling price, we need to discount this present value back to the desired year using the required rate of return. Therefore, the earliest year to find the future selling price would be the current year.

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Dr. Fadel is valued employee at the university. The university plans to offer him a $100,000 bonus, payable when he retires in 20 years. If the university deposits $200 a month in a sinking fund, what interest rate must it earn, with monthly compounding, to guarantee that the fund will be worth $100,000 in 20 years
A. 6.66%
B. 7.78%
C. 8.99%
D. 5.98%

Answers

Answer:

FV= $2,636.16

Step-by-step explanation:

Giving the following information:

Annual deposit (A)= $200

Number of periods (i)= 10 years

Interest rate (i)= 6%

To calculate the future value, we need to use the following formula:

FV= {A*[(1+i)^n-1]}/i

A= annual deposit

FV= {200*[(1.06^10) - 1]} / 0.06

FV= $2,636.16

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When a plant asset is sold, its original cost and its

A. market value must be removed from the accounting records.

B accumulated depreciation must be removed from the accounting records.

C salvage value must be expensed immediately.

D related maintenance costs must be transferred to the income statement immediately.

Answers

When a plant asset is sold, its original cost and its accumulated depreciation must be removed from the accounting records. Option b is correct.

A plant asset is a long-term asset used to generate income for a company. Plant assets include physical assets such as machinery, furniture, buildings, and vehicles Accumulated depreciation is a contra asset account that lowers the book value of a company's plant assets. It keeps track of the total depreciation that a company has charged to date on its plant assets.

To calculate the book value of a plant asset, take its original cost and subtract the accumulated depreciation. In other words, the book value is the net amount that the company has invested in the asset.

When a plant asset is sold, its original cost and its accumulated depreciation must be removed from the accounting records. The difference between the asset's book value and the amount received in the sale is known as a gain or loss on the sale of a plant asset.

Therefore, b is correct.

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icate the nature of each of the situations described below using the following three-letter code from the table above Change from FIFO inventory costing to LIFO inventory costing Change from LIFO inventory costing to FIFO inventory costing. Change in the composition of a group of firms reporting on a consolidated basis Change to the installment method of accounting for receivables . Change in actuarial assumptions for a defined benefit pension plan. Change from sum -of-the-yearsdigits depreciation to straight-line Change from expensing extraordinary repairs erroneously recorded as an expense to capitalizing the expenditure Change in the percentage used to determine warranty expense. Change from weighted average to FIFO. hange in the residual value of machinery

Answers

Change from FIFO inventory costing to LIFO inventory costing: FIM (Change in inventory costing method) Change from LIFO inventory costing to FIFO inventory costing: MIF (Change in inventory costing method).

Based on the descriptions provided, here are the corresponding nature codes for each situation:

Change from FIFO inventory costing to LIFO inventory costing: FIM (Change in inventory costing method)

Change from LIFO inventory costing to FIFO inventory costing: MIF (Change in inventory costing method)

Change in the composition of a group of firms reporting on a consolidated basis: GCO (Change in consolidation group)

Change to the installment method of accounting for receivables: ACR (Change in accounting method for receivables)

Change in actuarial assumptions for a defined benefit pension plan: PAA (Change in actuarial assumptions)

Change from sum-of-the-years'-digits depreciation to straight-line: DCD (Change in depreciation method)

Change from expensing extraordinary repairs erroneously recorded as an expense to capitalizing the expenditure: CRE (Change in repair expense treatment)

Change in the percentage used to determine warranty expense: WPR (Change in warranty percentage)

Change from weighted average to FIFO: IWC (Change in inventory costing method)

Change in the residual value of machinery: DRC (Change in residual value)

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Jon Jackson Manufacturing is searching for suppliers for its new line of equipment. Jon has narrowed his choices to two sets of suppliers. Believing in diversification of risk, Jon would select
two suppliers under each choice. However, he is still concerned about the risk of both suppliers failing at the same time. The "San Francisco option" uses both suppliers in San Francisco. Both
are stable, reliable, and profitable firms, so Jon calculates the "unique-event" risk for either of them to be 0.5%. However, because San Francisco is in an earthquake zone, he estimates the
probability of an event that would knock out both suppliers to be 2%. The "North American
option" uses one supplier in Canada and another in Mexico. These are upstart firms; John calculates the "unique-event" risk for either of them to be 10%. But he estimates the "super-
event" probability that would knock out both of these suppliers to be only 0.1%. Purchasing costs would be $500,000 per year using the San Francisco option and $510,000 per year using the
North American option. A total disruption would create an annualized loss of $800,000. Which option seems best?

Answers

The San Francisco option seems to be the best choice for Jon Jackson Manufacturing.

When comparing the two options, Jon needs to consider the unique-event risk and the super-event risk associated with each option.

For the San Francisco option, the unique-event risk of either supplier failing is 0.5% and the probability of a super-event, where both suppliers are knocked out, is 2%. On the other hand, for the North American option, the unique-event risk is higher at 10%, but the probability of a super-event affecting both suppliers is lower at 0.1%.

Considering the purchasing costs, the San Francisco option costs $500,000 per year, while the North American option costs $510,000 per year.

To evaluate the best option, Jon needs to assess the potential annualized loss in the case of a total disruption. The loss is estimated to be $800,000 per year.

By comparing the costs and potential losses, the San Francisco option appears to be more favorable. Even though the unique-event risk is slightly higher for the North American option, the significantly lower probability of a super-event outweighs that risk. Additionally, the lower purchasing cost for the San Francisco option provides further financial advantage.

Therefore, based on the given information, Jon should choose the San Francisco option as it offers a better balance between risk and cost.

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If no monies are due for a particular reporting period, Revenu Quebec still requires that the remittance form is completed and filed by the due date, with 0.00 entered in the Amounts Payable box.

True

False

Answers

The statement is true. Even if no monies are due for a particular reporting period, Revenu Quebec still requires that the remittance form is completed and filed by the due date, with 0.00 entered in the Amounts Payable box.

Revenu Quebec, the tax authority in Quebec, has specific requirements for filing remittance forms, even when no monies are due. Even if there are no amounts payable for a particular reporting period, businesses are still required to complete and file the remittance form by the designated due date. In such cases, the form should indicate 0.00 in the Amounts Payable box to indicate that no payment is required. This practice ensures compliance with the reporting obligations and provides a complete record of the reporting period, even if no taxes or remittances are owed. Therefore, the statement is true.

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The uses of derivatives include: I) Financial engineering for companies; II) Hedging for investors; III) Speculation for traders
a. II only
b. III only
c. I and II only
d. I, II, and III

Participants in derivatives markets include: I) Hedgers; II) Speculators; III) Arbitrageurs
a. II only
b. I, II, and III
c. I only
d. I and III only

An Arbitrage opportunity implies that:
a. Investor will make risky profits with chance of losses
b. Investor will incur losses with certainty
c. Investor will make risk-free profits ("free lunch")
d. Investor will not receive any profits or losses

Answers

The uses of derivatives include: I) Financial engineering for companies; II) Hedging for investors; III) Speculation for traders. The correct option is d. I, II, and III. Financial engineering for companies:Financial engineering is the use of derivative securities to solve financial problems.

It is a way of optimizing financial decision making by designing creative solutions for problems that cannot be solved through traditional methods. Companies often use financial engineering to improve their financial performance, manage their risks, and optimize their capital structure.Hedging for investors:Hedging is a method used to mitigate financial risk. Hedging involves the use of a financial instrument or investment position to offset a potential loss in another investment position. Investors use hedging to protect themselves from potential losses.Speculation for traders:Speculation involves taking positions in derivatives markets with the goal of profiting from price movements.

Traders use derivatives to speculate on the future movements of stock prices, interest rates, and other market variables. The correct option is d. I, II, and III.Participants in derivatives markets include: I) Hedgers; II) Speculators; III) Arbitrageurs. The correct option is b. I, II, and III.

Hedgers: Hedgers participate in the derivatives markets to reduce their exposure to risk. Hedgers use derivatives to hedge against price changes in the underlying assets they own or will own in the future. They use derivatives to lock in a price for a future transaction.Speculators: Speculators participate in the derivatives markets to make a profit from price changes in the underlying assets. Speculators use derivatives to take advantage of price movements in the underlying assets. They use derivatives to amplify the returns on their investments.Arbitrageurs: Arbitrageurs participate in the derivatives markets to take advantage of price discrepancies between related assets.

They use derivatives to buy and sell related assets simultaneously, taking advantage of the price difference to make a profit. The correct option is b. I, II, and III.An arbitrage opportunity implies that: Investor will make risk-free profits ("free lunch").The correct option is c. Investor will make risk-free profits ("free lunch").Arbitrage is the process of buying and selling assets simultaneously to take advantage of price discrepancies between related assets. An arbitrage opportunity implies that an investor can make risk-free profits by buying and selling related assets simultaneously, taking advantage of the price difference to make a profit.

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A small country Osama with agriculture as the main driver of its economy has been hit by a drought. The households expect their wealth to be negatively impacted in the medium term.
Use the concept of precautionary savings to explain how the HH of Osama could respond to these negative expectation about the impact on their future wealth?
How would the HH's behaviour impact the AD curve for Osama?

Answers

In response to the negative expectations about the impact of drought on their future wealth, households in Osama may increase precautionary savings.

Precautionary savings refer to the act of setting aside additional savings as a precautionary measure to mitigate potential future risks or uncertainties. In the case of households in Osama facing the negative expectation of drought's impact on their future wealth, they may respond by increasing their precautionary savings.

The increase in precautionary savings by households has implications for the aggregate demand (AD) curve in Osama. When households increase savings, it means they are consuming a smaller proportion of their income. This reduces their immediate consumption expenditure, leading to a decrease in consumer spending. As consumer spending is a significant component of aggregate demand, a decrease in consumption can lower the overall level of aggregate demand in the economy.

It can lead to decreased production, lower employment levels, and potentially slower economic growth. The contractionary effect on aggregate demand can create a challenging economic environment for businesses and policymakers in Osama, requiring measures to stimulate demand and support economic recovery.

Overall, the negative expectations about the impact of drought on future wealth in Osama can lead households to increase precautionary savings. This behavior can have a contractionary impact on the aggregate demand curve, potentially affecting economic activity and growth in the country.

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one of the ways that cost leaders generally keep their costs low is by not spending much on advertising.

Answers

Cost leaders often maintain low costs by minimizing their advertising expenses.

Cost leaders are companies that strive to achieve a competitive advantage by offering products or services at lower prices than their competitors. One of the strategies they employ to keep their costs low is by minimizing their spending on advertising.

Advertising can be a significant expense for businesses, especially when considering the costs of media placements, creative production, and marketing campaigns. By reducing their advertising expenditures, cost leaders can allocate their resources more efficiently and focus on other cost-saving measures, such as optimizing their supply chain, streamlining operations, or negotiating favorable pricing with suppliers.

While advertising plays a crucial role in promoting products, building brand awareness, and attracting customers, cost leaders often rely on other factors to differentiate themselves and drive sales. They may emphasize factors such as low prices, value for money, efficient operations, or word-of-mouth referrals to generate customer interest and maintain their competitive position in the market.

By prioritizing cost efficiency over extensive advertising, cost leaders can offer lower prices to customers and remain profitable. Their success lies in their ability to find alternative ways to create value and attract customers without relying heavily on advertising expenses.

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Create an imaginary company then list 5 asset accounts, 3
liability accounts, and 2 stockholder equity accounts for the
company and their amounts. Remember the Balance Sheet needs to
balance!

Answers

Company Name: StellarTech Solutions. Asset Accounts: Cash - $100,000

Accounts Receivable - $50,000. Inventory - $75,000. Property, Plant, and Equipment - $500,000. Investments - $200,000

Liability Accounts: Accounts Payable - $30,000. Short-term Loans - $100,000. Long-term Loans - $250,000. Stockholder Equity Accounts: Common Stock - $300,000. Retained Earnings - $445,000

StellarTech Solutions, a technology company, showcases a balanced balance sheet with total assets equal to the sum of liabilities and stockholder equity.

The company possesses $100,000 in cash along with $50,000 in accounts receivable and $75,000 in inventory. Additionally, they have invested $200,000 in various ventures and hold property, plant, and equipment valued at $500,000.

On the liabilities side, StellarTech has $30,000 in accounts payable, $100,000 in short-term loans, and $250,000 in long-term loans.

The stockholder equity accounts reflect the funds provided by the owners, with $300,000 in common stock and retained earnings amounting to $445,000.

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An electronic retailer decides to aggregate inventory into a centralized location. Which of the following would be true?

a. Transportation costs will likely increase since outbound costs will likely increase
b. Transportation costs will likely decrease since inbound shipments will be consolidated
c. Transportation costs will likely decrease since outbound costs will likely decrease
d. Transportation costs will likely increase since inbound costs will likely decrease

Answers

The following would be true: Transportation costs will likely decrease since inbound shipments will be consolidated. The correct option is b.

By aggregating inventory into a centralized location, the electronic retailer can benefit from economies of scale and consolidation in transportation. When inventory is centralized, inbound shipments from suppliers can be consolidated into larger, more efficient shipments. This consolidation allows for better utilization of transportation resources and reduces the number of individual shipments, resulting in lower transportation costs.

With a centralized inventory, the retailer can optimize its transportation operations by coordinating shipments and leveraging volume discounts or negotiated contracts with carriers. By reducing the number of smaller inbound shipments, the retailer can achieve cost savings through improved routing, reduced handling, and more efficient use of transportation modes.

While outbound shipments may also be affected by the centralized inventory, the reduction in transportation costs from inbound consolidation typically outweighs any potential increase in outbound costs. The overall impact is a net decrease in transportation costs for the retailer.

Therefore, option b is the most accurate statement regarding the effect of aggregating inventory into a centralized location on transportation costs.

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Total development costs (including sufficient profit for the developers) are $870/m2 (per square metre). Investors are willing to pay property prices of $22.38 per dollar of current rental income. What is the "replacement cost rent" in this market?
Select one:
a.$27.45/ m²
b.$39.05/ m²
c.$43.07/ m²
d.$41.78/ m²
e.$38.87/ m²

Answers

In order to get the "replacement cost rent," we must divide the total development expenses by the cost of the property, expressed as a dollar of current rental income.

$870/m2 for total development expenses Rental revenue divided by property price: $22.38 Total development expenses / Property price as a percentage of rental income equals replacement cost rent. Rent replacement cost is $870 divided by $22.38. Rent at replacement cost is $38.87/m2. So, in this market, the "replacement cost rent" is roughly $38.87/m2. The appropriate response is e. $38.87/m2.

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Which of the following positions would likely be characterized as a staff position?

a. The marketing manager for a chain of hardware stores

b. The service manager at an automotive dealership

c. The manager of operations for a chain of restaurants

d. The manager of manufacturing at an electronics firm

e. The general legal counsel for a manufacturing firm

Answers

Among the given s, the general legal counsel for a manufacturing firm is the most likely position to be characterized as a staff position due to its advisory and support nature.

the general legal counsel for a manufacturing firm would likely be characterized as a staff position.

staff positions in organizations typically provide support and expertise to the line functions or operational areas of the business. they are responsible for providing specialized knowledge, advice, and services to help the organization achieve its goals.

out of the s given, the general legal counsel for a manufacturing firm fits the characteristics of a staff position. their role is to provide legal expertise, advice, and support to the organization. they may handle legal matters, contracts, regulatory compliance, and other legal issues, serving as a resource for various departments within the manufacturing firm.

on the other hand, the marketing manager, service manager, manager of operations, and manager of manufacturing are all roles that directly contribute to the core operations or functions of the organization. these positions are typically considered line positions as they involve managing and overseeing the primary activities of the business. a staff position is typically characterized by providing support, expertise, and specialized services to the line functions or operational areas of an organization. staff members serve as resources for the organization, offering their knowledge and skills to assist in decision-making, problem-solving, and ensuring compliance with regulations and policies.

in the context of the given s:

a. the marketing manager for a chain of hardware stores: this position is more likely to be considered a line position rather than a staff position. the marketing manager is directly involved in the core function of promoting and selling products, which is a fundamental aspect of the business.

b. the service manager at an automotive dealership: similar to the marketing manager, the service manager is responsible for overseeing the operational activities related to servicing and maintaining vehicles. this role is also more aligned with a line position, as it directly contributes to the core operations of the automotive dealership.

c. the manager of operations for a chain of restaurants: the manager of operations plays a vital role in overseeing the day-to-day operations of the restaurant chain. this position is typically considered a line position, as it involves managing the core functions and activities related to running the restaurants.

d. the manager of manufacturing at an electronics firm: the manager of manufacturing is responsible for overseeing the manufacturing process and ensuring efficient production of electronics products. this role is closely tied to the core operations of the electronics firm and would generally be classified as a line position.

e. the general legal counsel for a manufacturing firm: the general legal counsel provides legal expertise, advice, and support to the organization. this role is primarily focused on offering specialized legal services, guidance on compliance matters, contract negotiations, and handling legal issues. as a result, the general legal counsel position is more likely to be characterized as a staff position.

in summary, while the marketing manager, service manager, manager of operations, and manager of manufacturing are considered line positions directly involved in the core operations of their respective organizations, the general legal counsel position, as a provider of specialized legal services and support, is more likely to be categorized as a staff position.

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Suppose there are 3 firms in a market. The largest firm has sales of $60 million and each of the other two firms has sales of $25 million. The Herfindal-Hirshman Index of this industry is:
a. 2,500
b. 3,750
c. 2,550
d. 4008

Answers

To calculate the Herfindahl-Hirschman Index (HHI) for an industry, we square the market shares of each firm and sum them up. The HHI provides a measure of market concentration.

In this case, the largest firm has sales of $60 million, and the other two firms have sales of $25 million each. To calculate the HHI, we need to determine the market shares of each firm.The market share of the largest firm is:60 million / (60 million + 25 million + 25 million) = 0.545The market share of the other two firms is:25 million / (60 million + 25 million + 25 million) = 0.227Now, we square each market share and sum them up:HHI = (0.545^2) + (0.227^2) + (0.227^2)    = 0.297 + 0.052 + 0.052    = 0.401Multiplying the result by 10,000 gives us the HHI:HHI = 0.401 * 10,000 = 4,010

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130 pts

The infant industry argument claims…

Group of answer choices

that governments should protect some domestic industries until they are internationally competitive.

that free trade is always the best policy.

that countries should focus on developing their current comparative advantage.

All of the above are true

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Question 140 pts

The principle of comparative advantage says that

Group of answer choices

you should specialize in producing goods for which your opportunity costs are relatively low.

trading is generally prohibited by high transactions costs.

you should compare prices before you buy a good or service.

you should specialize only if you can produce something at a lower average cost than other economic actors.

Answers

Economic actors are expected to make informed decisions, which can be determined by comparing opportunity costs and analyzing price differences. One should focus on producing goods for which they have a relative cost advantage, as this can help to reduce the costs of producing goods or services. This means that the cost of producing a unit of a good is lower compared to the cost of production by other economic actors.

By specializing in the production of such goods, the producer can achieve a high level of efficiency and maintain a competitive advantage.The price of goods or services should also be compared before a purchase is made. This means that a consumer should weigh the benefits of purchasing a product against its cost to determine if it is worthwhile. They must compare the prices of different goods or services in order to obtain the best value for their money.

This helps consumers to save money by purchasing goods or services at a lower cost than the retail price.Specialization is only recommended if an economic actor can produce a good or service at a lower average cost than others. By producing at a lower cost, the producer can generate more revenue and increase profitability. This can also lead to increased efficiency and help to maintain a competitive advantage.

Specialization can help an economic actor to improve their skills and resources to increase production capacity. Therefore, it is important to specialize in producing goods or services that can be produced at a lower cost than other economic actors.

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Fred's bookkeeping business provides you the following Accounting GAAP financial information for this year's business income tax return
Income Statement:
1 Revenue $100,000
2. Meals and Entertainment $10,000
3: Supply Expenses $2.000
4. Depreciation Expenses: $5,000
Assets
Furniture (Class 8, 20%); UCC was $10,000: Purchase this year was $10,000 and disposed of furniture for proceeds of $10,000 and had an original cost of $5,000,
Building (Class 1, 4%) UCC was $100,000
The Business Income tax profit to be inserted into Line 13700 is?

Answers

The Business Income tax profit to be inserted into Line 13700 is $71,800.

The Business Income tax profit to be inserted into Line 13700 is $71,800.

How to calculate the Business Income tax profit to be inserted into Line 13700?

The Business Income tax profit to be inserted into Line 13700 can be calculated as follows:

Revenue $100,000

Less: Meals and Entertainment $10,000

Less: Supply Expenses $2,000

Net revenue $88,000

Less: Depreciation Expenses $5,000

Less: Capital cost allowance (CCA) - Furniture:

[(10,000 + 10,000) - 5,000] * 20% = $2,000

CCA - Building: 100,000 * 4% = $4,000 $11,000

Net income before taxes $77,000

Income tax expense $5,200

Net income after taxes $71,800

Therefore, the Business Income tax profit to be inserted into Line 13700 is $71,800.

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