Katie wants to display the most recent entries in the journal log on her Linux system. What journalctl option should she use

Answers

Answer 1

Katie should use the "-n" option followed by the number of entries she wants to display, such as "-n 10" to display the 10 most recent entries.

The journalctl command is used to query and display system logs on Linux systems. The "-n" option specifies the number of recent journal entries to show. For example, if Katie wants to see the 5 most recent entries, she would use the command "journalctl -n 5".

By default, journalctl shows the most recent entries first, so using the "-n" option with a number specifies how far back in the log to go. The journalctl command can also be used with other options to filter logs by time range, severity level, specific service or process, and more.

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Related Questions

A List Filter allows you to filter on multiple values at one time. true or false

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True.A List Filter in Relativity allows users to filter on multiple values at one time.

A List Filter is a type of filter in Relativity that allows users to select multiple values from a predefined list or set of values. This can be useful for quickly narrowing down large sets of data based on specific criteria or categories, such as filtering by document type, reviewer name, or date range.By selecting multiple values in a List Filter, users can create more complex and nuanced filters that take into account multiple factors or variables. This can help to streamline workflows and improve the efficiency of data analysis and review processes in Relativity.

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Which asymmetric algorithm provides an electronic key exchange method to share the secret key?a. RSA b. Diffie-Hellman c. Blowfish d. AES

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The asymmetric algorithm that provides an electronic key exchange method to share the secret key is Diffie-Hellman (b).

Diffie-Hellman is a key exchange algorithm that allows two parties to generate a shared secret key over an insecure communication channel. It works by allowing both parties to independently generate public and private keys, and then exchange their public keys. By combining their private keys with the other party's public key, both parties can derive the same shared secret key. In contrast, RSA is a public-key encryption algorithm that can be used for encryption and digital signatures, but does not provide a direct method for key exchange.

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The presence of the try-catch block imposes overhead when no exception occurs.
true/false

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True, the presence of a try-catch block imposes overhead even when no exception occurs.

When a try-catch block is executed, the Java Virtual Machine (JVM) has to create and maintain a new exception object, which requires additional memory allocation and garbage collection. Even when an exception is not thrown, this overhead is still incurred.

However, the overhead is typically minimal, and the benefits of exception handling, such as improved program robustness and maintainability, usually outweigh the cost of the try-catch blocks.

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​ Many organizations and institutions are moving toward using Social Security numbers as primary keys because of privacy issues. T/F

Answers

This is true.

i would explain, but i keep receiving an error message for my explanation and im not sure why.

Question 17.
What is the capacity of a single-sided, dual-layer DVD?
A) 4.7 GB B) 8.5 GB C) 9.4 GB D) 17.1 GB

Answers

The capacity of a single-sided, dual-layer DVD is 8.5 GB. So, the correct answer is B) 8.5 GB. Dual-layer DVD is a type of optical disc format that can store up to 8.5 gigabytes (GB) of digital data on a single disc by using two layers of data storage instead of one.

Dual-layer DVDs have a standard size and shape that is similar to a regular single-layer DVD, but with an additional layer of data storage.

The two layers in a dual-layer DVD are separated by a semi-reflective layer, which allows the DVD player's laser to read data from both layers. The first layer is located closer to the surface of the disc, and the second layer is located underneath it, closer to the center of the disc.

Dual-layer DVDs are commonly used for storing high-definition movies and other large files, as they can hold more data than a single-layer DVD. They are compatible with most DVD players and can be played on any device that supports DVD playback.

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Which two must be identified when developing a Photoshop Project plan?

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When developing a Photoshop project plan, there are several key factors that must be identified to ensure the success of the project. Two of the most important factors that need to be identified are the project objectives and the target audience.

Project objectives are the goals that the project aims to achieve. These objectives must be clearly defined and agreed upon by all stakeholders involved in the project. They should also be specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, and time-bound. This helps to ensure that everyone is working towards the same goals and that progress can be tracked and evaluated throughout the project. Identifying the target audience is also essential when developing a Photoshop project plan. This involves understanding who the project is intended for, what their needs and preferences are, and what they are looking to achieve from the project. This information can help to guide decisions around the design, content, and delivery of the project to ensure that it is engaging, relevant, and effective.

Other important factors that need to be identified when developing a Photoshop project plan include the scope of the project, the budget and timeline, the resources required, and the risks and challenges that may need to be addressed. By carefully considering all of these factors, you can create a robust and effective project plan that will help you to achieve your objectives and deliver a successful outcome.

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51. Compare and contrast a network-based IPS, a host-based IPS, and an application-based IPS.

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An Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) is a type of security technology that monitors network traffic, system activity, and application behavior to detect and prevent potential threats to the system.

IPSs come in several forms, including network-based, host-based, and application-based IPSs.

Network-based IPS:

- Monitors network traffic in real-time and can identify and prevent attacks at the network layer.

- Uses signatures and heuristics to detect known and unknown threats.

- Operates at the perimeter of the network and can inspect all incoming and outgoing traffic.

- Can prevent attacks before they reach the host or application level.

- Can be deployed as a standalone appliance or integrated into a firewall.

Host-based IPS:

- Installed on individual hosts (servers, workstations) and monitors activity on the host.

- Provides protection against attacks that bypass the network perimeter.

- Monitors system calls, files, and network traffic on the host.

- Can detect and prevent malicious activity on the host, such as malware infections or unauthorized access attempts.

- Can be integrated with other security technologies, such as antivirus software and firewalls.

Application-based IPS:

- Monitors the behavior of individual applications and can detect and prevent attacks targeting specific applications.

- Analyzes traffic at the application level, including HTTP/HTTPS, SMTP, and FTP protocols.

- Uses a combination of signature-based and behavior-based detection techniques to identify and prevent attacks.

- Can prevent attacks against vulnerabilities in specific applications, such as SQL injection attacks against web applications.

- Can be integrated with web application firewalls (WAFs) and other security technologies to provide layered protection against application-level threats.

In summary, network-based IPSs focus on protecting the network perimeter, host-based IPSs focus on protecting individual hosts, and application-based IPSs focus on protecting specific applications. Each type of IPS has its strengths and weaknesses and can be used in combination with other security technologies to provide layered protection against a wide range of threats.

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At which OSPF state are neighbor routers converged and able to exchange routing updates? a) Down b) Init c) Exstartd) Full

Answers

d) At the OSPF (Open Shortest Path First) state, where neighbor routers are converged and able to exchange routing updates, is Full.

In OSPF, the Full state is the final and most desirable state for neighbor routers. It indicates that the routers have successfully completed the neighbor establishment process and are fully adjacent. In this state, the routers have exchanged their complete link-state databases and are ready to exchange routing updates. During the Full state, routers share updates about their respective networks, link states, and routing information. They calculate the shortest path to various destinations and update their routing tables accordingly. This state ensures that routers have accurate and up-to-date routing information, enabling them to make informed routing decisions and efficiently forward network traffic. The Full state signifies that the OSPF neighbor routers are converged and actively exchanging routing updates, making it a critical state for the proper functioning of the OSPF routing protocol.

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Consider the following page reference string: 7, 2, 3, 1, 2, 5, 3, 4, 6, 7, 7, 1, 0, 5, 4, 6, 2, 3, 0 , 1. Assuming demand paging with three frames, how many page faults would occur for the following replacement algorithms

Answers

The number of page faults for the given page reference string and three frames would be: LRU: 9 page faults FIFO: 9 page faults Optimal: 7 page faults

LRU (Least Recently Used) algorithm replaces the page which has not been used for the longest time. In this case, LRU algorithm would result in 9 page faults.

FIFO (First In First Out) algorithm replaces the page which has been in memory for the longest time. In this case, FIFO algorithm would also result in 9 page faults.

Optimal algorithm replaces the page that will not be used for the longest time in the future. In this case, Optimal algorithm would result in the least number of page faults, which is 7.

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FILL IN THE BLANK 83) Comprehensive security management products, with tools for firewalls, VPNs, intrusion detection systems, and more, are called ________ systems.
A) DPI
B) MSSP
C) NSP
D) PKI
E) UTM

Answers

Answer:

E) UTM (Unified Threat Management) systems are comprehensive security management products that provide tools for firewalls, VPNs, intrusion detection systems, and more.

Explanation:

28. What is a NAT firewall and how does it work?

Answers

A NAT (Network Address Translation) firewall is a type of firewall that is used to protect a private network from external threats. It works by hiding the IP addresses of the devices on the private network and presenting a single IP address to the public network.

This makes it difficult for hackers to identify individual devices on the private network and launch attacks against them.
NAT firewall also allows multiple devices to share a single public IP address, which conserves IP addresses and makes it more difficult for attackers to find a way into the network. NAT firewall can be implemented using software or hardware, and it is commonly used in small to medium-sized businesses and home networks.
Overall, a NAT firewall is an essential security measure that helps to protect private networks from external threats and keeps sensitive data safe from unauthorized access.

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you would create a radius template so that you can do what with it?

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A radius template is an important tool that is used to accurately measure and mark circles with a specific radius, saving time and ensuring consistency in various industries.

A radius template is a tool used to create a circle with a specific radius. This tool is typically made out of plastic or metal and is in the shape of a circle with various radius measurements marked on it.

Creating a radius template is essential in order to accurately measure and mark the radius on a surface. By using a radius template, it is possible to create precise circles with uniform measurements, which is essential in various industries such as engineering, architecture, and construction.

Once you have created a radius template, you can use it to measure and mark the radius on various surfaces such as walls, floors, or even on large equipment. This template ensures that you are using accurate measurements and allows you to create the same size circle multiple times, saving time and ensuring consistency.

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With RL implemented as a priority list, the range of priorities is [n1:n2], where n1 and n2 can be:
T or F?
n1 = 0, n2 = 0

Answers

If the range of priorities in a reinforcement learning (RL) implementation is specified as [n1:n2], where n1 = 0 and n2 = 0, this means that there is only one priority level, which is 0. This is the lowest priority level and indicates that the corresponding task or action has the least importance or urgency.

In an RL implementation based on a priority list, tasks or actions are assigned priorities based on their relative importance or urgency. The priority levels usually range from the lowest (e.g., 0) to the highest (e.g., n). By setting both n1 and n2 to 0, the priority range is limited to only one priority level, which can simplify the implementation and reduce the computational complexity. However, using a single priority level may not be sufficient to capture the complexity of some RL problems, which may require a wider range of priorities to achieve optimal performance. Therefore, the choice of priority range depends on the specific requirements of the RL problem at hand.

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standard i/o functions and interactions with sockets

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Standard (input/output) I/O functions are used to read or write data to and from the standard input/output streams of a program.

These functions are generally used to read user input from the console or to write output to the console. Interactions with sockets involve reading or writing data to or from a network socket. A socket is an endpoint of a two-way communication link between two programs running over a network. Sockets are used to establish a connection between two computers so that they can exchange data. When a program interacts with a socket, it can use standard I/O functions to read or write data to and from the socket.

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(t/f) roman numerals are usually changed words

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The given statement "Roman numerals are usually changed words" is false because Roman numerals are a system of numeric notation that uses a combination of letters from the Latin alphabet to represent numbers.

The Roman numeral system has been in use since ancient Rome and has been adopted in many different contexts throughout history, such as in the numbering of monarchs, popes, and wars. The symbols used in Roman numerals are not changed words, but rather specific letters that represent certain values.

For example, "I" represents the number 1, "V" represents 5, and "X" represents 10. Therefore, Roman numerals are a standardized system of notation, not a set of modified words.

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uses a device's gps to define geographical boundaries where an app can be used. Function of what is this?

Answers

The function you are describing is called "Geofencing." Geofencing is a location-based service that uses a device's GPS or other location services to define geographical boundaries where an app can be used.

The boundaries can be set up as virtual perimeters around a specific geographic area, such as a building, a city block, or a specific location.

When a user with the app installed on their device enters or exits the defined area, the app can trigger a specific action or send a notification to the user. For example, a retail store can use geofencing to send targeted advertisements or promotions to customers when they enter the store or a specific department. Similarly, a transportation company can use geofencing to track the location of their vehicles and send alerts to customers when the vehicle is approaching their pickup location.

Geofencing can also be used for security purposes. For example, an organization can set up geofencing around a secure facility or a restricted area, and if an unauthorized person enters the area, the security team can be alerted immediately.

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the standard paper speed for electronic fetal monitor tracings in the united states is:

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The standard paper speed for electronic fetal monitor tracings in the United States is 3 centimeters per minute.

Electronic fetal monitors are used to track the baby's heart rate and the mother's contractions during labor. This helps medical professionals monitor the baby's well-being and make necessary decisions during the birthing process.

The standard paper speed for electronic fetal monitor tracings in the United States is 3 centimeters per minute, meaning that the machine prints out a strip of paper that moves at a rate of 3 centimeters per minute. This strip of paper records the fetal heart rate and uterine contractions during labor and delivery. The slower speed allows for a more detailed record of these events, making it easier for healthcare providers to monitor the progress of labor and identify any potential issues that may arise.

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Check all of the clues that would help someone identify this key term. the title or section heading the first or last sentence a repeated word or phrase a signal word or phrase

Answers

The clues that could help a person identify the key term "Revolution" are The first or last sentence; and a repeated word or phrase. The correct options are b and c.

A revolution is a fundamental and relatively sudden change in political power and political organization which occurs when the population revolts against the government, typically due to perceived oppression or political incompetence.

The word revolutions have occurred throughout human history and vary widely in terms of methods, duration, and motivating ideology. Their results include major changes in culture, economy, and socio-political institutions, usually in response to perceived overwhelming autocracy or plutocracy.

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"Safe languages" and "safe libraries" are so-called because:
a. They automatically detect some forms of input attacks
b. They automatically detect parameter tampering
c. They automatically detect script injection
d. They automatically detect malware attacks

Answers

Safe languages and safe libraries are referred to as such because they have built-in features that automatically detect some forms of input attacks.

These attacks may include parameter tampering, script injection, and malware attacks. Safe languages and libraries have been designed to prevent such attacks from happening in the first place. For instance, a safe language may have a feature that checks the input data for any malicious scripts or commands before executing it. Similarly, a safe library may have functions that automatically check the parameters passed to it, ensuring that they are within safe limits. In this way, safe languages and libraries provide an additional layer of security to software applications.

It is important to note that while safe languages and libraries are beneficial, they do not offer complete protection against all types of attacks. It is still important to follow best practices when writing and deploying software applications, such as sanitizing user inputs and regularly updating software to address vulnerabilities. In summary, safe languages and libraries are called so because they can automatically detect some forms of input attacks, adding an extra layer of security to software applications. However, they are not foolproof and should be used in conjunction with other security measures.

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In Microsoft Access, the ____ function displays a value in uppercase letters.
a.​ UCASE
b.​ LARGE
c.​ UPPER
d.​CAPITAL

Answers

In Microsoft Access, the UCASE function displays a value in uppercase letters. So, the correct answer is: a. UCASE Microsoft Access is a relational database management system (RDBMS) developed by Microsoft Corporation. It is a member of the Microsoft Office suite of applications and is used to create, manage, and manipulate databases.

Access provides an easy-to-use graphical interface that allows users to create and manipulate database objects, such as tables, queries, forms, and reports.

Access databases can store and manage large amounts of data, making it a powerful tool for businesses and individuals to organize, analyze, and report on their data. The database structure is based on the relational model, which means that data is stored in tables that are related to each other by common fields.

Access uses a variant of the Structured Query Language (SQL) called Jet SQL to query and manipulate data. Users can create queries to retrieve and filter data, and also create forms to enter and edit data in a user-friendly way. Reports can be generated to summarize and present data in a professional manner.

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True or False: If the Transmission Event from the message's Transmission Data shows Email Received via Auto Allow list, this means Auto Allow was applied correctly.

Answers

True, If the Transmission Event indicates that the email was received via the Auto Allow list, it means that the Auto Allow feature was applied correctly and the email was allowed through based on the list.

An auto allow entry is automatically deleted if no emails are sent to the address for 120 days. By default email addresses are not added to the trusted database if: Auto-responses are sent (e.g. Out of Office messages). Suspected spam related emails are released and the recipient subsequently replies to the sender.

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Which of the following are characteristics of a rootkit? (Select two.)
(a) Monitors user actions and opens pop-ups based on user preferences.
(b) Uses cookies saved on the hard drive to track user preferences.
(c) Requires administrator-level privileges for installation.
(d) Resides below regular antivirus software detection.
(e) Collects various types of personal information.

Answers

The characteristics of a rootkit are requires administrator-level privileges for installation and resides below regular antivirus software detection. Option C and D is correct.

A rootkit is a type of malicious software that is designed to gain unauthorized access to a computer or network, and to conceal its presence from detection by antivirus or other security software. Rootkits typically require administrator-level privileges to install, and once installed, they can hide their presence from system administrators and security software.

Rootkits are often used to gain access to sensitive data, such as login credentials or financial information, and to control the infected system remotely. They can be difficult to detect and remove, as they are designed to remain hidden from both the user and the operating system.

Therefore, option C and D is correct.

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Final answer:

A rootkit is a form of malicious software that needs administrator-level privileges for installation. It is able to reside undetected under regular antivirus software, operating at a more fundamental system level.

Explanation:

A rootkit is a type of malicious software (malware) that provides privileged access to a computer. It camouflages itself to evade detection from antivirus software and takes advantage of this stealth to give hackers control over your system.

From the options provided, the characteristics of a rootkit are:

Requires administrator-level privileges for installation - Rootkits typically need administrator-level access to install themselves to a system. This is because they operate at a very fundamental level of the system, right down to the operating system itself. Resides below regular antivirus software detection - A defining characteristic of a rootkit is its stealth. It operates beneath the level at which antivirus programs usually detect malware, which allows it to remain hidden on a system for a long time.

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Which of the following is true about single-mode fiber optic network cabling?
The central core is smaller than standard multi-mode fiber optic cabling core.
Single-mode fiber optic cabling is less expensive than multi-mode cabling.
Single-mode cabling supports shorter segment lengths than multi-mode fiber optic cabling.
The central core is composed of braided plastic or glass fibers.

Answers

The correct statement about single-mode fiber optic network cabling is: The central core is smaller than the standard multi-mode fiber optic cabling core.

Single-mode fiber optic cabling has a smaller core diameter compared to standard multi-mode fiber optic cabling. The core of the single-mode fiber is typically around 8-10 microns in diameter, while the core of the multi-mode fiber is usually larger, ranging from 50 to 62.5 microns. The smaller core size of single-mode fiber allows for the transmission of a single mode of light, resulting in longer transmission distances and higher bandwidth capabilities. The other statements mentioned in the options are not true. Single-mode fiber optic cabling is generally more expensive than multi-mode cabling due to the higher precision required in its manufacturing process. Single-mode fiber optic cabling also supports longer segment lengths compared to multi-mode cabling, as it can transmit data over greater distances without signal degradation. Additionally, the central core of both single-mode and multi-mode fiber optic cabling is typically made of glass, not braided plastic or glass fibers.

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How to improve logistic regression and feature choices?

Answers

To improve logistic regression and feature choices, identify the problems, use regularization techniques, try different optimization algorithms, etc.

First, it's important to thoroughly understand your data and problem domain, as well as the strengths and limitations of logistic regression. This will help you choose appropriate features that are relevant to your problem and will give you the best predictive power.

Second, you can use techniques such as regularization or feature selection to help improve the performance of your logistic regression model. Regularization techniques like L1 or L2 can help to reduce overfitting and improve generalization, while feature selection methods like backward elimination or forward selection can help to identify the most important features for your model.

Third, you can experiment with different parameter settings and model architectures to see if they improve performance. This might include trying different optimization algorithms, changing the learning rate or batch size, or using different activation functions or layer architectures.

Finally, it's important to evaluate your model's performance using appropriate metrics and cross-validation techniques to ensure that it is robust and generalizes well to new data. By taking these steps, you can improve the performance of your logistic regression model and make better feature choices that lead to more accurate predictions.

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The fields command allows you to do which of the following? Select all that apply.
(A) Exclude fields (fields -)
(B) Include fields (fields)
(C) Include fields (fields +)

Answers

All three options are correct, as the fields command can be used to either include or exclude specific fields in your data.

Any application components that use the field need to be updated to remove references to the excluded field. For example, you might need to update security rules, reports, and filtered list views.

If you exclude a field from the reporting schema, also exclude it from the reporting framework. If you use global search, also remove the field from global search.

A database management system (DBMS) is system software for creating and managing databases. A DBMS makes it possible for end users to create, protect, read, update and delete data in a database.

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29. What is a security hole and how do you fix it?

Answers

A security hole is a vulnerability or weakness in a system that can be exploited by hackers to gain unauthorized access or steal data.

Security holes can occur due to outdated software, weak passwords, unsecured networks, or lack of security patches. To fix a security hole, you should first identify the root cause of the problem and assess the risk. Then, you should implement security measures such as installing security patches, updating software, enforcing strong passwords, encrypting data, and securing the network. Regular vulnerability scans and security audits can also help to detect and fix security holes before they are exploited. It is important to regularly monitor and maintain security measures to ensure that the system remains secure.

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The various ways in which a message can be sent, ranging from one-on-one in-person meetings to Internet message boards, are called _____.

Answers

The various ways in which a message can be sent, ranging from one-on-one in-person meetings to Internet message boards, are called communication.

The various ways in which a message can be sent are collectively referred to as communication channels. These channels range from traditional methods such as face-to-face conversations, phone calls, and written correspondence to modern methods like email, social media, and instant messaging.

The choice of communication channel depends on the context and purpose of the message being communicated. For instance, in-person meetings may be preferred for sensitive or confidential conversations while email may be better for non-urgent messages that require documentation.

Internet message boards are suitable for public discussions and sharing information with a large audience. In today's digital age, there is a plethora of communication channels available, making it easier than ever to connect and interact with others across the globe.

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An administrator should take the time to troubleshoot all network problems correctly by asking specific questions designed to identify the problem ___

Answers

An administrator should take the time to troubleshoot all network problems correctly by asking specific questions designed to identify the problem's root cause.

When troubleshooting network problems, it is crucial for administrators to ask specific questions that help uncover the underlying cause of the issue. By asking targeted and precise questions, administrators can gather relevant information about the problem, analyze the symptoms, and narrow down the potential causes. These questions aim to identify the root cause of the problem, which could be related to network configuration, hardware failure, software issues, connectivity problems, or other factors.

By understanding the underlying cause, administrators can effectively address the problem, implement appropriate solutions, and prevent similar issues from recurring in the future. Asking specific questions during the troubleshooting process enables a systematic approach and increases the chances of accurate diagnosis and resolution.

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65) An acceptable use policy defines the acceptable level of access to information assets for different users.
A) TRUE
B) FALSE

Answers

The given statement is false.

An acceptable use policy defines acceptable uses of the firm's information resources and computing equipment including desktop.

An acceptable use policy (AUP) is a document stipulating constraints and practices that a user must agree to for access to a corporate network, the internet or other resources.

Many businesses and educational institutions require employees or students to sign an AUP before being granted a network ID.

Hence the given statement is false.

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what dns server is responsible for maintaining a particular domain’s resource records?

Answers

The DNS server responsible for maintaining a particular domain's resource records is called the authoritative nameserver.

What is the term for the DNS server that holds a domain's resource records?

The authoritative nameserver is the DNS server that holds the resource records for a particular domain. When someone types in a domain name in their web browser, the request is sent to the recursive nameserver which then queries the authoritative nameserver to retrieve the corresponding IP address for that domain name. The authoritative nameserver is responsible for maintaining the domain's DNS records including A records, CNAME records, MX records, and more.

It's important to note that there may be multiple authoritative nameservers for a single domain. This is done for redundancy and to ensure that the domain remains accessible even if one of the authoritative nameservers goes down. In addition, the domain owner or administrator is responsible for specifying the authoritative nameservers for their domain.

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Managers develop a list of questions directly related to the job requirements for the ________ part of the hiring process. A disease that has a fast onset, results in very noticeable symptoms, comes to a climax, and then fades away is an example of a(n) ___________ disease. DNA has four chemical bases, which we call A, T, C, and G. The key reason that DNA strands can replicate when separated is that ________. The first three terms of a sequence are given. Round to the nearest thousandth (if necessary).9,16,23,...Find the 46th term. QUICKKKKKK WILL GIVE BRAINLIEST!!What is the volume of a rectangular prism with a length of 14 yards, a width of 6 yards, and a height of 8 yards? 196 cubic yards 336 cubic yards 392 cubic yards 672 cubic yards through what area does the cerebrospinal fluid circulate around the brain and spinal cord? If you want to remove an older email from your inbox, but not permanently delete it, you can _____ it. what would you have to do to your aspirin to make it safely usable? At the start of the Korean War, General Douglas MacArthur was regarded as a war hero. He was respected by both the American public and government leaders.: True Or False Starting in 1639, the Magna Carta was incorporated into statutes governing the American colonies. T/F Chief Powhatan had Captain John Smith kidnapped in order toA. impress Smith with his power and show the Indian's desire for peace.B. demonstrate the Indians' desire for war.C. punish Smith for refusing to marry Pocahontas.D. hold him for a large ransom to be paid by King James.E. all of the above. The table shows data from a survey asking people what type of writing instrument they like. What is the percent probability that a person likes blue pens? Black pens? Pencils? Estimate the number of people who would say they like pencils or black pens in a survey of 400 people. Writing Instrument Number of People Blue pens 75 Black pens 112 Pencils 63 Question content area bottom Part 1 P(blue pens)=3030% (Round to the nearest tenth as needed. ) Part 2 P(black pens)= enter your response here% During thyroid surgery, which structures are at risk of being damaged? (4) Algorithm for suspected variceal hemorrhage Which of the following is NOT a modern method for accurately measuring brain activity? 1)Phrenology 2)Transcranial Magnetic Stimulation 3) Functional Magnetic Resonance Imaging (fMRI) 4) Electroencephalograph (EEG) Define "displacement activity." In what two situations do displacement activities occur? 14. The end-product in the Prussian blue reaction is:a. ferric ferrocyanideb. ferrous fericyanidec. potassium ferrocyanided. potassium ferricyanide Leaders of developing nations believe that what is the cause of poverty? U.S. agricultural employee believe what would solve the issues behind poverty? what is a common bacteria to isolate from operative area? what are goals of sx prep?what is most common source of sx wounds? What metabolic disorder involves tyrosine?